
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Chemistry provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles and concepts that govern chemical reactions and matter. The course covers essential topics including atomic structure, periodic trends, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, and solutions. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, laboratory safety, and practical laboratory techniques to reinforce theoretical knowledge. By the end of the course, students will have developed critical thinking skills and a solid framework for further study in chemistry and related scientific fields.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Chemistry 5th Edition by John A. Suchocki
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Q1) Which of the following would be considered basic research?
A) examining why a mouse likes cheddar cheese more than swiss cheese
B) studying ways of catching mice safely
C) testing the strength of a mouse cage
D) examining how quickly a trapdoor closes
E) testing a safe, nontoxic mouse glue
Answer: A
Q2) Most scientific inquires begin with ________.
A) a theory
B) a strong interest
C) mathematics formulas
D) grant money
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is the most important to the process of scientific inquiry?
A) Proposing answers.
B) Devising tests.
C) Refuting currently-held understandings.
D) Confirming currently-held understandings.
Answer: B
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Q1) The value 300 joules could be a measure of ________.
A) the energy content of an object
B) the amount of heat transferred from one object to another
C) the temperature of an object
D) A and B
E) all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Why is it not possible for the scanning probe microscope (SPM) to make images of the inside of an atom?
A) The most representative "image" of the inside of the atom would be a picture of empty space.
B) The SPM works by passing a current across a tiny gap between the tip of an ultrathin needle and the surface being studied. No gap, no image.
C) The SPM ultrathin needle itself is made of atoms and so is not tiny enough to pierce through an atom much like a sewing needle can pierce into a Ping-Pong ball.
D) All of the above are reasonable answers.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following would be considered a chemical property?
A) reactivity towards water
B) melting temperature
C) boiling temperature
D) conductivity
E) flexibility
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
A) gasoline being used in the engine of a car producing exhaust
B) water freezing into ice crystals
C) aftershave or perfume on your skin generating a smell
D) a piece of metal expanding when heated, but returning to original size when cooled
E) breaking a glass window
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following experiments helped to determine the charge of an electron and (indirectly) its mass?
A) J.J. Thompson's cathode ray deflection experiments
B) R. Millikan's oil drop experiments
C) E. Rutherford's gold foil experiments
D) Avogadro's number experiments
E) Franklin's kite experiments
Q2) If the particles of a cathode ray had a greater electric charge, the ray passing through a magnetic field would bend ________.
A) more because of a greater electromagnetic attraction
B) less because of greater electrical inertia
C) more because the particles would be traveling faster
D) by the same amount regardless of its charge
Q3) What property of an electron makes it possible to use electron microscopes?
A) They can be focused using smaller lenses.
B) They have shorter wavelengths than visible light.
C) They are electrically charged.
D) They can be generated with electricity.
E) none of the above
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Q1) Which are older, the atoms in the body of an elderly person or those in the body of a baby?
A) a baby because this is surely a trick question
B) an elderly person because they have been around much longer
C) They are of the same age, which is appreciably older than the solar system.
D) It depends upon their diet.
Q2) Coal contains only minute quantities of radioactive materials, yet there is more environmental radiation surrounding a coal-fired power plant than a fission power plant. This indicates that ________.
A) the coal-fired power plant's radiation shields need to be strengthened
B) the coal-fired power plant has been contaminated
C) the coal-fired power plant contains none of the radiation it releases
D) the news media is biased in its coverage
Q3) Nuclear fission is known to be commonly produced ________.
A) only by humans
B) within the Earth's mantle
C) within the Sun
D) by humans, within the Earth's mantle, and also within the Sun
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Q1) The number of nonbonding pairs in the ammonia molecule is ________.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q2) Take money away from your bank account and the bank will show a negative credit. Take an electron away from an atom, however, and the atom shows up positive. Explain.
A) Electrons are already negative. Therefore, we know from basic math that subtracting a negative (number) from a neutral (atom), will make the result positive.
B) Neutral atoms contain identically charged but oppositely signed protons and electrons. Removing one of the negative electrons results in an excess of positively charged protons.
C) Removing an electron from an atom does not have the atom show up positive. It simply leaves the atom short one electron.
D) Atoms are constantly exchanging electrons. Having an atom "show up positive" is only an expression indicating that it has taken its turn in the game of electron exchange.
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Q1) What is the molarity when water is added to 2 moles of sodium chloride to make 0.5 liter of solution?
A) 8 M
B) 4 M
C) 5 M
D) 2.5 M
Q2) When you set a pot of tap water on the stove to boil, you'll often see bubbles start to form well before boiling temperature is ever reached. Explain this observation.
A) These are dissolved salts heating up and escaping from the water.
B) These bubbles are formed as the surrounding gases from the air dissolve into the water as it is heated.
C) They are very minute pockets of water in the gaseous phase. When they get large enough, the water will boil as this gas escapes.
D) These initial bubbles are the gases that were dissolved in the water coming out of solution. The solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature.
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Q1) If the specific heat of gold is 0.13 J/(g°C), how much heat does it take to raise the temperature of a 1.0-gram piece of gold from 74°C to 99°C?
A) 3.3 J
B) 9.75 J
C) 13.0 J
D) 75,000 J
E) 192 J
Q2) Why does a lake freeze from the top down?
A) As cold water cools towards freezing it gets less dense.
B) The cold air is at the top of the lake.
C) Cold water sinks, warm water rises.
D) Warm water sinks, cold water rises.
E) none of the above
Q3) What is found within the extra volume that arises as water expands upon freezing?
A) nothing
B) other water molecules
C) air
D) dissolved oxygen
E) the atoms have expanded
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Q1) Seven grams of nitrogen, N<sub>2</sub>, (N, atomic mass 14 amu) contains
A) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms
B) 0.5 moles of nitrogen atoms
C) 0.25 moles of nitrogen atoms
D) Not enough information is given
Q2) According to the following balanced chemical equation, if you want to generate two moles of H<sub>2</sub>O , how many molecules of O<sub>2</sub> do you need? 2 H<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> 2 H<sub>2</sub>O
A) 1
B) 2
C) 1/2
D) 4
E) 6.022 × 10<sup>23</sup>
Q3) How close are you to a CFC molecule right now?
A) It depends upon whether you are in an urban or rural setting.
B) There are about 25 trillion of them in each liter of air you breathe.
C) There are about 25 million of them in each liter of air you breathe.
D) There are about 25 of them in each liter of air you breathe.
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Q1) Which of the following items would you use to make a basic buffer solution?
A) acetic acid (a weak acid) and hydrochloric acid (a strong acid)
B) sodium hydroxide (a strong base) and sodium chloride
C) acetic acid (a weak acid) and sodium acetate
D) hydrochloric acid (a strong acid) and sodium hydroxide (a strong base)
E) ammonium hydroxide (a weak base) and ammonium chloride
Q2) What happens to the pH of soda water as it loses its carbonation?
A) It does not change since the carbonation has nothing to do with pH.
B) It decreases as it loses the carbon dioxide molecules which form the carbonic acid in the soda.
C) It increases as it loses the carbon dioxide molecules which form the carbonic acid in the soda.
D) It decreases as the soda becomes more concentrated through the loss of the carbon dioxide gases.
Q3) Which of the following reactions illustrates an amphoteric compound?
A) 2 HF H<sub>2</sub>F<sup>+</sup> + F<sup>-</sup>
B) NaOH + HBr NaBr + H<sub>2</sub>O
C) 2 H<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> 2 H<sub>2</sub>O
D) All are amphoteric.
E) none of the above
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Q1) When boron is added to a layer of ultrapure silicon, the result is ________.
A) n-type silicon
B) p-type silicon
C) an excess of negative charges
D) electrons that are free to roam
E) A and C
Q2) Thin-film photovoltaic cells are ________.
A) composed of crystalline silicon
B) easy to mass produce
C) sensitive to only narrow regions of the visible spectrum
D) very expensive to produce
E) none of the above
Q3) Which of the following elements would be most useful for creating a n-type silicon?
A) As
B) Sn
C) Pb
D) B
E) Ga
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formula for a certain ether is shown below: CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
What would be the most likely starting material?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>O
C) CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>
D) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
E) HOCH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
Q2) Which of the following ethers has the highest boiling point?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>
B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
C)
CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH <sub>3</sub>
D)
CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH <sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
E) All have the same boiling point.
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Q1) Vitamins such as vitamin B and vitamin C are often lost by boiling vegetables. Why?
A) They are water soluble and are poured down the drain with the water.
B) The heat of the boiling water destroys the vitamin.
C) The heat of the boiling water causes the vitamin to evaporate.
D) They are fat-soluble compounds and vegetables do not have much fat.
E) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following abbreviations for nitrogenous bases is not found in DNA?
A) G
B) A
C) U
D) T
E) C
Q3) mRNA does not remain associated with DNA after being generated through transcription because ________.
A) a special enzyme breaks the nucleotide bonds
B) the amine groups are not compatible
C) the mRNA is so much longer than the DNA
D) the hydroxyl group on the ribose prevents the mRNA from binding to the DNA
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Q1) What advantages are there to synthesizing a naturally occurring medicine, such as Taxol, in the laboratory rather than isolating it from nature?
A) Synthesizing a natural product can be advantageous when the source of the natural product is rare and thus not readily available.
B) In synthesizing the natural product in the laboratory, the chemist is able to create closely related compounds that may have even greater medicinal properties.
C) Both A and B are true.
D) In synthesizing the natural product in the laboratory, a chemist can increase the concentration of the synthetic beyond that of natural product to insure maximum potency for good heath.
Q2) Which of the following would not be part of the drug discovery process?
A) learning the exact shape of various receptor sites
B) changing an old drug a little and testing the new drug for activity
C) random testing of new compounds for drug activity
D) examining folklore for herbs and potions
E) All of the above are part of the process.
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Q1) Eating which of the following foods would make you a primary consumer?
A) lentils
B) chicken
C) shark steak
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) What is the leading cause of malnutrition?
A) lack of social infrastructure to distribute food
B) lack of food
C) lack of nutritious food
D) lack of soil nutrients to provide adequate crop yield
E) none of the above
Q3) Why would a predominately meat-based diet be a severe restriction on the possible size of the human population?
A) The hormones found in beef have a negative effect on human fertility.
B) Such a diet would shorten the average life span of humans.
C) There is not enough biochemical energy available at that trophic level to support a very large population.
D) The land area taken up by livestock would prevent people from finding new places to live.
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Q1) What is the cause of the following symptom of pollution? There is a sharp drop in oxygen content but there is no algal bloom.
A) Inorganic fertilizers were released nearby.
B) Organic matter was released nearby.
C) There is no oxygen in the water.
D) Anaerobic bacteria are consuming most of the nutrients in the water.
E) none of the above
Q2) Withdrawal of groundwater for irrigation in the San Joaquin Valley of California caused the water table to drop by 75 meters. Pumping has been greatly reduced, the aquifer is slowly recharging, and water for irrigation is now provided by canals that bring water from the adjacent Sierra Nevada. What else might be done to insure an adequate water supply for the foreseeable future?
A) Local governments could establish water conservation ordinances.
B) Local agriculture could practice water-conserving irrigation techniques.
C) People dependent on the agriculture of this region could eat less meat.
D) all of the above
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Q1) Which of the following conventional power plants most closely resembles an ocean thermal energy converter?
A) a fusion reactor
B) a coal-fired power plant
C) a dam
D) all of the above
E) only a or b
Q2) Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?
A) cellulose
B) coal
C) natural gas
D) petroleum
E) All of the above are fossil fuels.
Q3) What is the greatest impediment to the widespread application of sustainable energy?
A) fossil fuels are too cheap so there is no motivation to improve
B) government restrictions on use of public lands
C) negative public opinion
D) lack of technology
E) all of the above
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