

Introduction to Chemistry
Pre-Test Questions

Course Introduction
Introduction to Chemistry provides a foundational understanding of the basic concepts and principles governing the science of matter and its interactions. This course covers essential topics such as atomic structure, chemical bonding, states of matter, stoichiometry, periodic trends, chemical reactions, and the properties of gases, liquids, and solids. Through a combination of theoretical concepts, laboratory experiments, and practical examples, students develop problem-solving skills and an appreciation for how chemistry influences everyday life and global issues. This introductory course is designed for students with limited or no background in chemistry and serves as a prerequisite for more advanced studies in scientific and healthcare-related fields.
Recommended Textbook Principles of Chemistry The Molecular Science 1st Edition by John W. Moore
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not part of Dalton's Atomic Theory?
A) Atoms of the same element have the same mass and properties.
B) Different elements have atoms that are different from one another.
C) Atoms can combine in fractional numbers.
D) Atoms are indestructible.
E) All matter is made up of atoms.
Answer: C
Q2) Water droplets, water molecules, and H<sub>2</sub>O are water at the following levels:
A) symbolic, nanoscale, macroscale.
B) macroscale, symbolic, nanoscale.
C) macroscale, nanoscale, symbolic.
D) nanoscale, symbolic, macroscale.
E) nanoscale, macroscale, symbolic.
Answer: C
Q3) How many atoms are in a diatomic molecule?.
Answer: two
Q4) A mixture that is nonuniform in composition is a(n) _____________ mixture.
Answer: heterogeneous
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Chapter 2: Atoms and Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning isotopes is true?
A) All isotopes of a given element are radioactive.
B) Various isotopes of the same element exhibit very different chemical reactivity.
C) Various isotopes of the same element have the same number of protons.
D) Every element has 3 isotopes.
E) Various isotopes of the same element have the same mass.
Answer: C
Q2) There are ____ milligrams in a kilogram.
A) 1 × 10<sup>-3</sup>
B) 1 × 10<sup>6</sup>
C) 1 × 10<sup>9</sup>
D) 1 × 10<sup>-6</sup>
E) 1 × 10<sup>3</sup>
Answer: B
Q3) <sup>14</sup>O, <sup>16</sup>O, <sup>18</sup>O are called _____________.
Answer: isotopes
Q4) Give an example of an Alkaline Earth Metal.
Answer: Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba, Ra
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Chapter 3: Chemical Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Determine the percent carbon in the acetate ion CH<sub>3</sub>COO<sup>-</sup>.
A) 24.0%
B) 59.0%
C) 20.3%
D) 40.7%
E) 59.3%
Answer: D
Q2) Which compound is incorrectly named?
A) Ni(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> nickel(II) nitrate
B) Al<sub>2</sub>(SO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub> aluminum sulfate
C) Mg<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub> magnesium phosphate
D) Ba(OH)<sub>2</sub> barium(II) hydroxide
E) KCl potassium chloride
Answer: D
Q3) Write the formula for chromium(III) sulfate. Answer: Cr<sub>2</sub>(SO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub>
Q4) Give the formula for an alkane containing five carbon atoms. Answer: C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
Q5) Name the alkane with the formula C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>.
Answer: propane

Page 5
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Chapter 4: Quantities of Reactants and Products
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Sample Questions
Q1) The complete reaction of 2.63 g of iron with 3.34 g of chlorine (Cl<sub>2</sub>) produces a compound with the formula Fe<sub>x</sub>Cl<sub>y</sub>. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
A) FeCl
B) FeCl<sub>2</sub>
C) FeCl<sub>3</sub>
D) FeCl<sub>4</sub>
E) FeCl<sub>5</sub>
Q2) The complete reaction of 16.12 g of titanium with 23.88 g of chlorine (Cl<sub>2</sub>) produces a compound with the formula Ti<sub>x</sub>Cl<sub>y</sub>. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
A) TiCl
B) Ti<sub>2</sub>Cl
C) Ti<sub>4</sub>Cl
D) TiCl<sub>2</sub>
E) TiCl<sub>4</sub>
Q3) What is the theoretical yield (in grams of NaCl) when 0.750 mol of sodium reacts with excess chlorine to produce NaCl?
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Chapter 5: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the oxidation number of P in PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup>?
A) +5
B) +3
C) -2
D) -3
E) -5
Q2) Which of the following is a reducing agent?
A) I<sub>2</sub>
B) Na
C) O<sub>2</sub>
D) F<sub>2</sub>
E) Br<sub>2</sub>
Q3) How many moles of NaOH are present in 25.0 mL of a 0.1000 M NaOH solution?
A) 100 mol
B) 2.50 × 10<sup>-3</sup> mol
C) 0.100 mol
D) 2.50 mol
E) 25.0 mol
Q4) A chemical reaction for which spectator ions are deleted is called a(n) _____________ ionic equation.
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Chapter 6: Energy and Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much energy in kilojoules is required to raise the temperature of 20.0 g of water from 22.0°C to 37.0°C? The specific heat of water = 4.184 J g<sup>-1</sup> °C<sup>-1</sup>.
Q2) How many joules are there in one glass of milk containing 110 Calories?
A) 4.6 × 10<sup>5</sup> J
B) 460 kJ
C) 2.6 × 10<sup>4</sup> J
D) 26 J
E) 0.46 J
Q3) The quantity of energy required to increase the temperature of one gram of a sample by 1°C is called the _____________.
Q4) Which property can be used to distinguish one substance from another substance?
A) specific heat capacity
B) kinetic energy
C) temperature
D) enthalpy
E) internal energy
Q5) Energy of motion is called _____________.
Q6) Enthalpy change is equal to heat transfer at constant _______________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Electron Configurations and the Periodic Table
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which wavelength of light has the greatest speed?
A) 418.6 nm
B) 554.9 nm
C) 626.1 nm
D) 563.8 nm
E) All have the same speed.
Q2) The d orbitals occur in groups of ____ and hold up to ____ electrons.
A) 3; 6
B) 4; 8
C) 5; 10
D) 6; 12
E) 7; 14
Q3) What is the electron configuration of Li<sup>+</sup>?
A) 1s<sup>1</sup>
B) 1s<sup>2</sup>
C) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>1</sup>
D) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>
E) 1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>1</sup>
Q4) The first ionization energy is the amount of energy required to remove one ____________ from a neutral atom.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Covalent Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the formal charge on carbon in CO?
A) -2
B) -1
C) 0
D) +1
E) +2
Q2) Which element is the most electronegative?
A) sulfur
B) iodine
C) nitrogen
D) aluminum
E) carbon
Q3) What is the formal charge on sulfur in SO<sub>2</sub>?
A) +2
B) +1
C) 0
D) -1
E) -2
Q4) The ____________ of an element is its ability to pull electrons towards itself when participating in a covalent bond.
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Chapter 9: Molecular Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which molecule is nonpolar?
A) NCl<sub>3</sub>
B) SO<sub>2</sub>
C) PH<sub>3</sub>
D) IF
E) CF<sub>4</sub>
Q2) Which accurately describes a molecule with all polar bonds?
A) It is always a polar molecule.
B) It is never a polar molecule.
C) It may be a polar molecule.
D) It may be an ionic molecule.
E) It cannot be a nonpolar molecule.
Q3) Which of the following central atoms would be expected to accommodate more than four electron pairs in some of its compounds?
A) fluorine
B) boron
C) krypton
D) carbon
E) helium
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Chapter 10: Gases and the Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clean air
A) is pure oxygen.
B) contains mostly oxygen, some nitrogen and nothing else.
C) contains mostly nitrogen, some oxygen and nothing else.
D) contains mostly nitrogen, some oxygen, and a very small amount of several other gases.
E) has all of its nitrogen removed.
Q2) What is the correct name for the atmospheric layer in which commercial jets fly?
A) ionosphere
B) thermosphere
C) mesosphere
D) stratosphere
E) troposphere
Q3) Suppose that at STP a gas occupies 10.2 L. At what temperature (°C) will the same gas occupy 15000 mL at 1550 torr?
A) -273 °C
B) 1.22 × 10<sup>-3</sup> °C
C) 545 °C
D) 6.22 × 10<sup>5</sup> °C
E) undefined due to division by zero
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Chapter 11: Liquids, Solids, and Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which description of the Clausius-Clapeyron equation is false?
A) graphing the equation produces a slope equal to -DH<sub>vap</sub>/R
B) based on the nonlinear increase in vapor pressure with increasing temperature
C) used only for calculating the enthalpy of vaporization of a substance
D) predicts a linear relationship between lnP and 1/T
E) can help determine the vapor pressure of a substance at different temperatures.
Q2) The normal boiling point of a liquid on a vapor pressure curve is found
A) at the point where the temperature is equal to the pressure.
B) at any point where the pressure is less than 760 mm Hg.
C) at the point where the temperature line crosses the 760 mm Hg line.
D) in the region below the curve.
E) in the region above the curve.
Q3) In face-centered cubic unit cells, ____ of the atom on each face of the unit cell is counted as part of that unit cell.
A) all
B) none
C) 1/2
D) 1/4
E) 1/8
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Chapter 12: Chemical Kinetics: Rates of Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The substrate in an enzyme-controlled biological reaction is a
A) molecule serving as a rigid support for the enzyme.
B) molecule that is acted on by the catalyst.
C) species necessary for the proper functioning of the enzyme.
D) biological molecule used for storage of energy.
E) catalyst for that chemical reaction.
Q2) The kinetics of a reaction are observed to be third-order. The least likely mechanism
A) involves three molecules reacting together in a single step.
B) involves two molecules reacting in one step, and the third in a subsequent step.
C) involves a single intermediate.
D) involves more than one intermediate.
E) involves a fast step followed by a slow step.
Q3) A heterogeneous reaction mixture may contain
A) only a solid phase and a liquid phase
B) only a gas phase and a solid phase
C) only a gas phase and a liquid phase
D) a gas phase, a solid phase, and a liquid phase
E) any of these
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Chapter 13: Chemical Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) The equilibrium constant for a reaction is related to the rate constants for the reaction as follows:
A) K = k<sub>reverse</sub> / k<sub>forward</sub>
B) K = k<sub>forward</sub> / k<sub>reverse</sub>
C) K = k<sub>forward</sub> × k<sub>reverse</sub>
D) K = k<sub>forward</sub>
E) K = k<sub>reverse</sub>
Q2) If a catalyst is added to a chemical reaction, the equilibrium yield of a product will be ____, and the time taken to come to equilibrium will be ____ than before.
A) higher; less
B) lower; the same
C) higher; the same
D) the same; less
E) lower; less
Q3) Consider the statement, "At equilibrium, a reaction has proceeded as far as it will go, and no further reaction will be observed."
a. From a macroscopic viewpoint, is this statement correct ? Explain your answer.
b. From a nanoscale viewpoint, is this statement correct? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 14: The Chemistry of Solutes and Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If two liquids are miscible, they ____ because ____.
A) mix together; their intermolecular interactions are similar
B) do not mix together; their intermolecular interactions are similar
C) do not mix together; their intermolecular interactions are dissimilar
D) mix together; their intermolecular interactions are dissimilar
E) do not mix together; their densities are dissimilar
Q2) A concentrated antifreeze solution contains 580. g ethylene glycol mixed with 540. g of water. The weight percent of water in this solution is
A) 27.0 %
B) 48.2 %
C) 51.8 %
D) 93.1 %
E) 107 %
Q3) A 0.1 M solution of Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> contains
A) 9.6 × 10<sup>3</sup> mg/L SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
B) 4.6 × 10<sup>6</sup> ppb Na<sup>+</sup>
C) 14.2. g/L sodium sulfate
D) 0.3 mol/L ions
E) all of these are correct
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Chapter 15: Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of acid strength, which acid does not belong in a category with the others?
A) HNO<sub>2</sub>
B) HClO<sub>4</sub>
C) HCOOH
D) HF
E) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub>
Q2) In a 1.2 M solution of HClO<sub>4</sub>, a strong acid, [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] = ____, and [OH<sup>-</sup>] = ____.
A) 1.0 × 10<sup>-7</sup> M; 1.0 × 10<sup>-7</sup> M
B) 8.3 × 10<sup>-15</sup> M; 1.0 × 10<sup>-14</sup> M
C) 8.3 × 10<sup>-15</sup> M; 1.2 M
D) 1.2 M; 8.3 × 10<sup>-15</sup> M
E) 1.2 M; 1.2 M
Q3) Which of the following salts forms a basic solution when dissolved in water?
A) NH<sub>4</sub>ClO<sub>4</sub>
B) (NH<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>NO<sub>3</sub>
C) NaClO<sub>4</sub>
D) LiCH<sub>3</sub>COO
E) NaCl
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Chapter 16: Additional Aqueous Equilibria
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to make up a buffer solution with a neutral pH, it would be best to make use of
A) a weak acid with a K<sub>a</sub> at or near 1.00 × 10<sup>7</sup> and its conjugate base
B) a weak acid with a pK<sub>a</sub> near 7.00 or a K<sub>a</sub> near 1.00 × 10<sup>-7</sup> and its conjugate base
C) an equimolar mixture of a strong acid and a strong base
D) an equimolar mixture of an extremely weak acid and an extremely strong base
E) an equimolar mixture of NaCl and HCl
Q2) Exhibit 16-1 The following question(s) refer to the same titration: a 50.00 mL sample of 0.0950 M acetic acid (K<sub>a</sub> = 1.8 × 10<sup>-5</sup>) is being titrated with 0.106 M NaOH.
Refer to Exhibit 16-1. What is the pH at the endpoint of the titration?
A) 5.28
B) 7.00
C) 8.72
D) 9.26
E) Need more information to answer
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Chapter 17: Thermodynamics: Directionality of Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A reaction cannot change between being product-favored and being reactant-favored when
A)
DH<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>rxn</sub> < 0 and DS<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>rxn</sub> > 0
B)
DH<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>rxn</sub> < 0 and DS<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>rxn</sub> < 0
C)
DH<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>rxn</sub> > 0 and DS<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>rxn</sub> < 0
D)
DH<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>rxn</sub> > 0 and DS<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>rxn</sub> > 0
E)
DH<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>rxn</sub> = 0 and DS<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>rxn</sub> < 0
Q2) Which set of conditions describes a reaction that is least likely to proceed?
A) endothermic, decreasing entropy, high activation energy
B) exothermic, decreasing entropy, high activation energy
C) exothermic, increasing entropy, high activation energy
D) exothermic, increasing entropy, low activation energy
E) endothermic, decreasing entropy, low activation energy
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Chapter 18: Electrochemistry and Its Applications
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Q1) If all of the following metals are part of a metal piping system, and an electrolyte solution is pumped through the system, which metal will corrode the most?
A) Cu (E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>anode</sub> = +0.34 V)
B) Fe (E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>anode</sub> = -0.44 V)
C) Sn (E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>anode</sub> = -0.14 V)
D) Mg (E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>anode</sub> = -2.37 V)
E) Ni (E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>anode</sub> = -0.25 V)
Q2) An electrolytic reaction is a system in which
A) the reaction conditions are manipulated to change the value of E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>cell</sub> to a favorable one.
B) a reactant-favored reaction is forced to produce electricity by the input of heat or light.
C) the same element is both oxidized and reduced.
D) electricity is used to produce a chemical reaction.
E) a chemical reaction is used to produce electricity.
Q3) Explain, with reference to the Nernst equation, how it is possible for a cell to have a positive cell potential under standard conditions, but a negative cell potential under other conditions.
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Chapter 19: Nuclear Chemistry
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Q1) How many Bq correspond to an activity of 7.4 mCi? (1 mCi = 3.7 × 10<sup>7</sup> dps and 1 Bq = 1 dps.)
A) 5.0 × 10<sup>-6</sup>
B) 2.0 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
C) 2.0 × 10<sup>5</sup>
D) 2.7 × 10<sup>5</sup>
E) 5.0 × 10<sup>6</sup>
Q2) The rad is a radiation unit that describes the
A) multiples of the base unit of radiation
B) amount of energy absorbed per kilogram of tissue
C) amount of energy deposited per gram of tissue
D) energy equivalent in mammals of energy absorbed per gram of tissue
E) number of radioactive decays in one second
Q3) Which of the following processes is used in nuclear power plants for the production of electricity?
A) alpha particle capture
B) K-electron capture
C) nuclear fission
D) nuclear fusion
E) electron emission
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