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Introduction to Chemistry Final Test Solutions - 2174 Verified Questions

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Chapter 5: Classification and Balancing of Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The combination of ions most likely to produce a precipitate is

A)Li<sup>+</sup> and PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup>.

B)Pb<sup>2+</sup> and NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>.

C)NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> and SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>.

D)Fe<sup>3+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup>.

E)Mg<sup>2+</sup> and C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>.

Q2) Which reaction is an example of a precipitation reaction?

A)H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> (aq) H<sub>2</sub>O (l)+ CO<sub>2</sub> (g)

B)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+ Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> (aq) CaSO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+ 2 H<sub>2</sub>O (l)

C)6 HCl (aq)+ 2 Al (s) 2 AlCl<sub>3</sub> (aq)+ 3 H<sub>2</sub> (g)

D)FeCl<sub>3</sub> (aq)+ 3 KOH (aq) Fe(OH)<sub>3</sub> (s)+ 3 KCl (aq)

E)2 Hg (l)+ O<sub>2</sub> (g) 2 HgO (s)

Q3) Which of the following is always a spectator ion in a chemical reaction?

A)Na<sup>+</sup>

B)Cl<sup>-</sup>

C)S<sup>2-</sup>

D)Mg<sup>2+</sup>

E)All of these ions.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Chemical Reactions: Mole and Mass Relationships

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Q1) In the balanced reaction shown,the mole ratio of Fe<sub>2</sub>S<sub>3</sub> to O<sub>2</sub> is Fe<sub>2</sub>S<sub>3 </sub>+ 4 O<sub>2</sub> 2 FeO + 3 SO<sub>2</sub>

A)5 to 5.

B)1 to 4.

C)4 to 1.

D)1 to 2.

E)4 to 3.

Q2) 50.0 g of Cl<sub>2</sub> contains ________ mol Cl<sub>2</sub>.

A)50.0

B)1775

C)0.705

D)1.41

E)4.24 × 10<sup>23</sup>

Q3) The formula weight of copper(II)chloride is ________ g.

A)98.90

B)133.00

C)134.45

D)162.53

E)197.80

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Chemical Reactions: Energy, rates, and Equilibrium

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Q1) In the reaction energy diagrams shown,reaction A is ________,and it occurs ________ reaction B.

A)endergonic; faster than B)exergonic; faster than C)endergonic; slower than D)exergonic; slower than E)exergonic; at the same rate as

Q2) Consider the reaction shown: 452 kcal + 4 PCl<sub>5</sub> (s) P<sub>4</sub> (s)+ 10 Cl<sub>2</sub> (g) This reaction is ________ because the sign of H is ________.

A)endothermic; positive

B)exothermic; positive

C)endothermic; negative

D)exothermic; negative

E)exothermic; neither positive nor negative

Q3) The label on a package of cookies states that there are 100 calories per serving.Explain the different meanings of this statement to a chemist and to a nutritionist.Be sure your answer explains the difference between kilocalories and Calorie.

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Chapter 8: Gases, liquids, and Solids

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Q1) A 250.mL sample of gas at 1.00 atm and 20.0°C has the temperature increased to 40.0°C and the volume increased to 500.mL.What is the new pressure?

A)0.374 atm

B)0.468 atm

C)0.534 atm

D)1.87 atm

E)2.14 atm

Q2) Which process is endothermic?

A)Water condenses on the outside of a cold soda can.

B)The melted wax hardens after a candle is extinguished.

C)Water vapor forms ice crystals in the upper atmosphere.

D)Gasoline spilled on the ground evaporates very quickly.

E)none of the above

Q3) Which represents the largest pressure?

A)one atmosphere

B)five pounds per square inch

C)one millimeter of mercury

D)five mm Hg

E)one hundred pascals

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Solutions

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Q1) In a mixture of 5 mL water,10 mL alcohol,and 50 mL acetone the solvent(s)is(are)________.

A)acetone

B)alcohol

C)water

D)acetone and alcohol

E)alcohol and water

Q2) Which solution has the greatest osmolarity?

A)0.6 M NaCl

B)0.35 M AlCl<sub>3</sub>

C)0.14 M KF

D)0.2 M CaBr<sub>2</sub>

E)0.10 M KNO<sub>3</sub>

Q3) All of the statements about molarity are correct except A)the abbreviation is M.

B)the interpretation of the symbol is "moles of solute per mole of solvent."

C)moles = molarity × volume.

D)volume = moles/molarity.

E)the molarity of a diluted solution is less than the molarity of the original solution.

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Chapter 10: Acids and Bases

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Q1) The normality of a solution prepared by dissolving 25.0 g of Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> in water to make 250.mL solution is ________ N.

A)2.70

B)1.35

C)0.675

D)3.51

E)1.75

Q2) If the [H<sup>+</sup>] of a water sample is 1 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M,the [OH<sup>-</sup>] is

A)1 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M.

B)1 × 10<sup>-14</sup> M.

C)1 × 10<sup>4</sup> M.

D)1 × 10<sup>-10</sup> M.

E)none of the above

Q3) Which pair of compounds is used in the manufacture of fertilizers?

A)HCl and NaOH

B)HCl and H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>

C)HNO<sub>3</sub> and HCl

D)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> and H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>

E)HNO<sub>3</sub> and NaOH

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Chapter 11: Nuclear Chemistry

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Q1) Ionizing radiation is dangerous to living things because

A)it causes nuclear reactions.

B)it causes thermal burns.

C)it alters the chemical structure of atoms or molecules.

D)it causes electrons to be captured by the nucleus.

E)its penetrating power varies with its source.

Q2) The half-life of nickel-65 is 2.50 days.How much of a 100.-g sample remains after 7.50 days?

A)100.g

B)50.0 g

C)25.0 g

D)12.5 g

E)6.25 g

Q3) A unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed per gram of tissue is the A)curie.

B)roentgen.

C)rem.

D)rad.

E)sievert.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Introduction to Organic Chemistry: Alkanes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which functional group does not contain oxygen?

A)alcohol

B)amine

C)carboxylic acid

D)ester

E)ketone

Q2) When hydrocarbons undergo complete combustion,the product(s)is(are)

A)CO<sub>2</sub> and O<sub>2</sub>.

B)CO<sub>2</sub>.

C)CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O.

D)H<sub>2</sub>O and O<sub>2</sub>.

E)H<sub>2</sub>O.

Q3) All of the following statements are general properties of organic compounds except

A)the bonds are covalent.

B)they have relatively low boiling points.

C)they have limited or no water solubility.

D)they usually behave as electrolytes in solution.

E)they have relatively low melting points.

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Chapter 13: Alkenes, alkynes, and Aromatic Compounds

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Q1) Which choice represents the carbon skeleton of 2,4-octadiene?

A)C=C=C-C-C-C-C-C

B)C-C=C-C-C=C-C-C

C)C=C-C-C=C-C=C-C

D)C-C=C-C-C-C-C=C

E)C-C=C-C=C-C-C-C

Q2) Alkenes and simple aromatics are similar in all of the following properties except

A)solubility in non-polar solvents.

B)insolubility in water.

C)flammability.

D)nonpolarity.

E)lack of toxicity.

Q3) Which of the following compounds is a saturated hydrocarbon?

A)acetylene

B)benzene

C)1,3-butadiene

D)ethylene

E)hexane

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15

Chapter 14: Some Compounds With Oxygen, sulfur, or a Halogen

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Q1) Which compound has the lowest boiling point?

A)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> D)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub> E)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>

Q2) The most characteristic feature of thiols is ________

A)odor

B)solubility in water

C)reactivity with water

D)boiling point

E)color

Q3) Oxidation of an alcohol group results in formation of a(an)________ group.

A)alkyl

B)aromatic

C)carbonyl

D)ether

E)hydroxyl

Q4) Describe and explain the change in water solubility of straight-chain primary alcohols as molar mass increases.

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Chapter 15: Amines

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Q1) Amines are most similar in chemical structure and behavior to A)the hydronium ion.

B)ammonia.

C)sodium hydroxide.

D)a primary alcohol.

E)water.

Q2) An alkaloid used in treating malaria is A)quinine.

B)histamine.

C)atropine.

D)nicotine.

Q3) Which compound is a secondary amine?

A)trimethylamine

B)diethylamine

C)isopropylamine

D)N,N-dimethylethylamine

E)N-ethyl-N-methylpropylamine

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Chapter 16: Aldehydes and Ketones

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Q1) Which pair of compounds can react to form a hemiacetal?

A)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CHO and CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH

B)CH<sub>3</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub> and CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CHO

C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CHO and CH<sub>3</sub>COOH

D)CH<sub>3</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub> and CH<sub>3</sub>COOH

E)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH and CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH

Q2) The result of a hydrolysis reaction is what?

A)getting the chemicals wet

B)having an oxidation reduction reaction result in hydration of the molecule

C)splitting of a molecule into the component substances

D)one that forms water upon reaction

E)addition of water across a double bond

Q3) Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?

A)3-methyl-2-pentanal

B)4-methylpentanal

C)3-ethylpentanal

D)ethanal

E)All are correct.

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Chapter 17: Carboxylic Acids and Their Derivatives

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Q1) Nylons and proteins are both referred to as polyamides because

A)each reactant molecule contains an amide group.

B)they are produced by reaction between an amide and an ester.

C)they are formed when an acid reacts with ammonia.

D)they are produced by basic hydrolysis of an amine.

E)they are formed when an acid functional group reacts with an amine functional group.

Q2) The products of acid hydrolysis of an ester are

A)another ester + water.

B)alcohol + acid.

C)alcohol + water.

D)acid + water.

E)salt + water.

Q3) Reaction of a carboxylic acid with a base like sodium hydroxide,NaOH gives

A)a carboxylate salt.

B)an alkoxide salt.

C)an ester.

D)an alcohol.

E)none of the above.

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Amino Acids and Proteins

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Q1) Two functional groups that are present in all amino acids are the ________ group and the ________ group.

A)hydroxyl; amide

B)carboxyl; amine

C)carboxyl; phosphate ester

D)acetal; amine

E)carbonyl; amide

Q2) Serum albumin is an example of a(an) A)enzyme.

B)structural protein.

C)storage protein.

D)transport protein.

E)protective protein.

Q3) Which of these amino acids has a thiol group as part of its side chain?

A)cysteine

B)tyrosine

C)histidine

D)threonine

E)methionine

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Chapter 19: Enzymes and Vitamins

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Q1) All of the following vitamins are fat soluble except

A)Vitamin A.

B)Vitamin K.

C)Vitamin C.

D)Vitamin D.

E)Vitamin E.

Q2) Substances the bind to an enzyme and increase its activity are called

A)negative regulators.

B)positive regulators.

C)allosteric regulators.

D)neutral regulators.

Q3) Which mechanism of enzyme control determines the amount of enzyme available?

A)allosteric control

B)competitive inhibition

C)zymogen production

D)covalent modification

E)genetic control

Q4) Explain how an allosteric enzyme is regulated.

Q5) Explain the term specificity as it applies to enzyme activity.

Q6) Explain the term feedback as a mechanism for control of biochemical reactions.

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Chapter 20: The Generation of Biochemical Energy

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Q1) Exergonic reactions are those that are ________ and that ________ liberate free energy.

A)spontaneous; do B)nonspontaneous; do C)spontaneous; do not D)nonspontaneous; do not E)none of the above

Q2) The mitochondria are the location where ________ takes place and most ________ is produced.

A)citric acid cycle; ATP

B)digestion; acetyl coenzyme A

C)digestion; ATP

D)citric acid cycle; acetyl coenzyme A

E)digestion; fatty acid

Q3) Which of the following is common to the structures of NAD<sup>+</sup>,and FAD?

A)nicotinic acid

B)nicotinamide

C)ATP

D)ADP

E)AMP

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Chapter 21: Carbohydrates

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Q1) ________ of glucose leads to gluconic acid.

A)Oxidation

B)Reduction

C)Isomerization

D)Glycosidation

E)Esterification

Q2) Which of the following monosaccharides is present in nucleic acids?

A)glucose

B)galactose

C)ribose

D)fructose

Q3) The molecular formula of the common disaccharides in human biochemistry is A)CH<sub>2</sub>O.

B)C<sub>2</sub>(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>2</sub>.

C)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>.

D)C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub>.

E)C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>24</sub>O<sub>12</sub>.

Q4) Explain why cows and other grazing animals can eat grass and benefit from its nutritive value,but humans cannot.

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Chapter 22: Carbohydrate Metabolism

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Q1) Classify each pathway of carbohydrate metabolism as anabolic or catabolic.Justify your choice in each case.

Q2) Conversion of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to D-glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is a(an)________.

A)isomerization

B)oxidation

C)reduction

D)esterification

E)condensation

Q3) All of the following are reactions in the oxidation of glucose which produce energy except

A)glycolysis.

B)glycogenolysis.

C)oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl-SCoA.

D)the citric acid cycle.

E)reaction of reduced coenzymes in the electron transport chain.

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Chapter 23: Lipids

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Q1) Which choice is an example of a material that is transported across cell membranes by active transport?

A)cholesterol

B)K<sup>+</sup>

C)glucose

D)oxygen

E)carbon dioxide

Q2) All of the following are components of a cell membrane except A)liposomes.

B)integral proteins.

C)peripheral proteins.

D)glycoproteins.

E)cholesterol.

Q3) All of the following types of molecules can be classified as lipids except A)triacylglycerols.

B)steroids.

C)glycoproteins.

D)eicosanoids.

E)sphingomyelins.

Q4) Sketch a lipid bilayer and identify its hydrophobic and hydrophilic portions.

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Chapter 24: Lipid Metabolism

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Q1) The complete metabolism of one molecule of myristic acid,a fatty acid with 14 atoms of carbon,would require ________ turns of the beta-oxidation cycle.

A)6

B)7

C)12

D)14

E)16

Q2) Which molecule is not associated with synthesis of triacylglycerides?

A)glycerol 3-phosphate

B)NADH

C)coenzyme A

D)carnitine

E)fatty acids

Q3) High concentrations of ketone bodies in the bloodstream may indicate A)diabetes mellitus.

B)starvation.

C)a decrease in the pH of the blood.

D)All responses are correct.

E)No responses are correct.

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis

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Q1) What is the difference between deoxyribose and ribose?

A)Deoxyribose is a D form,whereas ribose is an L form.

B)Deoxyribose has one less oxygen atom than does ribose.

C)Ribose is found in the straight chain structure,whereas deoxyribose is not.

D)Ribose is a monosaccharide,but deoxyribose is a polysaccharide.

E)All statements are incorrect.

Q2) rRNA is associated with what part of the cell?

A)cytoplasm

B)mitochondrion

C)nucleus

D)ribosome

E)cell membrane

Q3) The process in which information from DNA is used to manufacture RNA is called A)mutation.

B)replication.

C)transcription.

D)translation.

E)translocation.

Q4) Explain the term base pairing and its relationship to replication of DNA.

Q5) Distinguish between the forms of RNA that exist in a typical cell.

Page 27

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Chapter 26: Genomics

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Q1) Enzymes used in genetic engineering to cleave DNA are called A)restriction enzymes B)ligases. C)hydrolases.

D)lyases. E)synthases.

Q2) Circular strands of DNA located in the cytoplasm of bacterial cells are called A)plastids. B)plasmids.

C)palindromes.

D)chromosomes.

E)primer.

Q3) A gene mutation that involves a change in the DNA sequence that still specifies for the same amino acid is called a ________ mutation

A)frameshift

B)silent

C)point

D)nonsense

Q4) Explain the difference between polymorphisms and mutations.

Q5) Discuss the importance of telomeres in cell death and in cancer.

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Chapter 27: Protein and Amino Acid Metabolism

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Q1) Each of the following metabolic intermediates is a precursor to one or more amino acids except A)fumarate.

B) -ketoglutarate.

C)oxaloacetate.

D)3-phosphoglycerate.

E)pyruvate.

Q2) Which statement best summarizes the digestion of proteins?

A)Amine groups are removed from all amino acids.

B)All peptide linkages are hydrolyzed to produce a mixture of amino acids.

C)Proteins are denatured by stomach acid.

D)Amino acids are combined to produce proteins or enzymes.

E)none of the above

Q3) The first step in amino acid catabolism is ________.

A)transamination

B)decarboxylation

C)oxidation

D)esterification

E)tautomerization

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Chapter 28: Chemical Messengers: Hormones, neurotransmitters, and Drugs

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Q1) When epinephrine interacts with a cell,the step immediately following binding of the messenger with the receptor site is

A)production of GTP from GDP.

B)conversion of cyclic AMP to ATP.

C)activation of a G protein in the cell membrane.

D)activation of adenylate cyclase.

E)conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP.

Q2) Steroid hormones are chemically described as

A)molecules whose structure is clearly related to an amino acid,usually tyrosine.

B)molecules containing a nucleus of four interconnected cyclic structures.

C)molecules composed of three or more amino acids,but no secondary or tertiary structure.

D)polypeptides with a high degree of secondary and tertiary structure.

E)large protein molecules which are directly involved in the regulation of chemical reactions.

Q3) Compare the nervous system and the endocrine system with respect to chemical messengers used,and the messenger molecules' means of transport,specificity,and time lapse between release and effect.

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Chapter 29: Body Fluids

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Q1) Blood clotting is a specific example of the blood's general function of A)defense.

B)transport.

C)regulation.

D)energy production.

E)none of the above

Q2) Hemoglobin contains how many heme groups for each molecule?

A)1

B)2

C)3

D)4

E)5

Q3) All of the following are small molecules commonly found dissolved in blood except A)oxygen.

B)nitrogen.

C)carbon dioxide.

D)glucose.

E)amino acids.

Q4) Distinguish between inflammatory and immune responses to antigens.

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