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Introduction to Business offers students an overview of the foundational principles and practices that drive the modern business world. The course covers key topics such as management, marketing, finance, accounting, human resources, and entrepreneurship, emphasizing how these elements interact to create successful organizations. Through case studies, discussions, and practical examples, students will develop a broad understanding of business operations, the external environments affecting businesses, and the ethical issues that arise in decision-making. This course serves as a gateway for students interested in pursuing advanced study or careers in business and related fields.
Recommended Textbook Essentials of Organizational Behavior 2nd Edition by Terri A. Scandura
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Q1) Employee withdrawal happens with ______.
A) absenteeism
B) poor job market
C) high job satisfaction
D) high engagement
Answer: A
Q2) Chris tends to place a higher value on the extent and weight of evidence; this indicates he is displaying which of the following skills needed of a leader?
A) communication
B) judgment
C) charisma
D) decision-making
Answer: B
Q3) Modern organizational behavior studies started with ______.
A) a 2008 to 2010 Gallup study
B) Frederick Taylor in the 1900s
C) Elton Mayo's Hawthorne Studies
D) Chester Barnard
Answer: C
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101 Verified Questions
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Q1) The fundamental premises that individuals hold about themselves and their functioning in the world are known as ______.
A) psychological capital
B) self-efficacy
C) high Mach
D) core self-evaluations
Answer: D
Q2) In the Type ABCD personality theory, which type is nice, self-sacrificing, and compliant as well as trying to appease others?
A) Type B
B) Type D
C) Type A
D) Type C
Answer: D
Q3) Individual differences are easily changed by management interventions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of affective events theory?
A) integrates personality, emotions, and moods
B) deals with emotional intelligence development
C) considers impact of performance on affect
D) considers impact of motivation on affect
Answer: A
Q2) Affective climate refers to the affective experience of an organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q3) Which of the following is a limitation of emotional intelligence?
A) relatively unimportant at work
B) easy to measurement
C) cannot be learned
D) too vague
Answer: D
Q4) Moods change quickly.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) If employees are satisfied with one aspect of work, they are satisfied with all aspects of their job.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Research has shown organizational commitment is positively related to ______.
A) absenteeism
B) stress
C) job satisfaction
D) turnover
Q3) More specific attitudes predict more specific behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is defined as an employee's desire to remain a member of an organization?
A) job satisfaction
B) organizational behavior
C) organizational commitment
D) turnover intent
Q5) Describe the four responses to job dissatisfaction.
Q6) Why have attitudes during job searches been likened to a roller coaster?
Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wearing a fraternity or sorority pin to an interview may invoke a positive impression if the interviewer is a member who assumes membership in that organization translates to high performance. This is an example of ______.
A) horns effect
B) contrast effect
C) halo effect
D) self-serving bias
Q2) Which of the following is defined as verbal information linked to visual images?
A) rehearsal
B) coding
C) imaging
D) availability bias
Q3) Which of the following describes the process for making decisions with little apparent effort and typically without conscious awareness?
A) rational decision-making
B) System 2 Thinking
C) prospect theory
D) intuition
Q4) What are some of the risks of relying too heavily on intuition?
Page 7
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Q1) James listens to followers openly and does not criticize their ideas. He is demonstrating which of the following of the behaviors of transformational leaders?
A) inspirational motivation
B) intellectual stimulation
C) individualized consideration
D) idealized influence
Q2) According to the text, leadership directs individuals and groups toward achieving ______.
A) group conflict
B) organizational goals
C) status quo
D) individuals' demands
Q3) Julie is positive and upbeat and gets others to feel optimistic as well. She is demonstrating which of the following of the behaviors of transformational leaders?
A) intellectual stimulation
B) idealized influence
C) inspirational motivation
D) individualized consideration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is an influence tactic that is particularly effective if the leader is viewed as an expert?
A) apprising
B) ingratiation
C) pressure
D) rational
Q2) The zone of indifference falls between reward power and expert power and is centered on ______.
A) coercive power
B) legitimate power
C) referent power
D) leadership power
Q3) Power in use is known as ______.
A) influence
B) compassion
C) coercion
D) power
Q4) Describe negative consequences of perception of organizational politics and how to mitigate them.
Q5) Compare and contrast the five bases of power.
Page 9
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Q1) Early need theories of motivation address which part of the motivation process?
A) energizing behavior
B) feedback
C) sustaining behavior
D) directing behavior
Q2) According to McClelland's need theory, the need for affiliation is ______.
A) the need to influence others to do what you want
B) the need for close personal relationships
C) the drive to succeed at high levels
D) the need for consistent feedback
Q3) According to research, which of the following are true of the need for achievement?
A) People who have a lower need to achieve perform better at higher levels.
B) People who have a lower need to achieve may be more successful entrepreneurs.
C) People who have a higher need to achieve are more effective leaders.
D) People who have a higher need to achieve likely develop this need at a young age.
Q4) Discuss the components of SMART goals and provide an example.
Q5) Describe the job characteristics theory and why growth needs matter.
Q6) How can a leader identify growth needs in his or her followers?
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Q1) Profit-sharing or gain-sharing plans, including stock options, might ______.
A) decrease future performance
B) be consistent enough for employees to count on as their total compensation
C) encourage unethical behavior
D) decrease perceptual biases in the rating process
Q2) Cletus manages a research and development team in charge of creating new products for his organization. He recently read about the motivation-work cycle. Which of the following would be a good suggestion for him to properly motivate the employees on his development team?
A) provide intrinsic rewards toward the end of the development process
B) provide extrinsic rewards during the implementation phase of the process
C) provide extrinsic rewards during the idea generation phase
D) do not worry about motivation for the team as it is unimportant for innovation
Q3) When evaluating the performance of coworkers, peers tend to be ______.
A) harsher than supervisors
B) about the same as supervisors
C) better trained at providing constructive feedback than supervisors
D) more lenient than supervisors
Q4) Critique the performance review process.
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Q1) The unwritten rules for teams are also known as norms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Grace wants to set goals for a team that she leads. She should remember to make the goals ______.
A) soon
B) manageable
C) difficult
D) measurable
Q3) Which of the following stages of the five-stage development model for teams is when the team meets its goals and completes tasks?
A) adjourning
B) performing
C) forming
D) norming
Q4) Which of the following is true regarding teams and goals?
A) Goal setting reduces motivation and performance.
B) Vague and open-ended goals lead to specific team performance.
C) Team goals should be SMART.
D) Feedback on performance effects is relatively unimportant.
Page 12
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Q1) What is another term for unproductive conflict?
A) dysfunctional conflict
B) functional conflict
C) productive conflict
D) task conflict
Q2) Functional conflict hurts an organization's performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not listed in the text as one of the three general sources of organizational conflict?
A) substantive conflict
B) affective conflict
C) interpersonal conflict
D) process conflict
Q4) Which of the following is not a commonly used alternative dispute resolution approach as mentioned in the text?
A) peer review
B) ombudsman
C) counseling
D) conciliation
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Q1) Olive is the dean of the business school, and she is meeting with all of the business faculty to discuss redesign of the School of Business, to implement some decisions, and to coordinate day-to-day activities going forward. This communication that Gail is engaging in is best described as ______.
A) upward communication
B) lateral communication
C) internal communication
D) external communication
Q2) In which of the following communication networks do all communications flow through one person who is most likely the group leader?
A) circle
B) wheel
C) chain
D) all-channel
Q3) Why do employees remain silent or withhold information? Give an example of how to address this.
Q4) The grapevine is always negative.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The transition when the expatriate has completed the international assignment and returns home is known as ______.
A) expatriation
B) repatriation
C) reverse culture shock
D) reentry shock
Q2) Which of the following is the construction of a mutually beneficial interactive environment in which individuals from two different cultures can function in a way beneficial to all involved?
A) cultural intelligence
B) cultural retooling
C) cultural looseness
D) third culture
Q3) Brennan wants to build parallel careers and believes work is not everything. He is likely a member of which generation?
A) boomer
B) traditionalist
C) illennial
D) Gen Xer
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Q1) Research on climate shows that it significantly impacts most dependent OB variables as well as ______.
A) attitudes of employees toward their work relate to work outcomes
B) performance of teams in their work
C) employee work-life balance
D) toxicity
Q2) Which of the following is defined as "the pattern of basic assumptions, that a given group has invented, discovered, or developed in learning to cope with its problems of external adaptation and internal integration, and that have well enough to be considered valid, and therefore, to be taught to new members as the correct way to perceive, think, and feel in relation to those problems"?
A) organizational climate
B) organizational manifesto
C) national culture
D) organizational culture
Q3) Artifacts and creations are the most visible element of organizational culture.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify and describe the four ways that employees learn organizational culture.
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Q1) The nervous and hormonal systems of an individual, when activated, produce adrenaline, and this may result in an elevated heart rate, perspiration, and tightening of the muscles. This is known as ______.
A) fight-or-flight response
B) stress response
C) psychological job strain
D) job burnout
Q2) Leadership styles have shifted from command and control to ______.
A) transformational
B) ethical
C) transactional
D) inspirational
Q3) The OD intervention method shown to be one of the most effective regarding attitudes and satisfaction is ______.
A) team building
B) process consultation
C) workout
D) survey
Q4) Describe the reasons why people resist organizational change.
Q5) Why is planned organizational change necessary?
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