Introduction to Business Review Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Business provides students with a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts, principles, and operations that define the modern business environment. The course explores key topics such as business organization and structure, management, marketing, finance, entrepreneurship, and the role of ethics and social responsibility. By examining real-world examples and case studies, students gain a broad understanding of how businesses are created, how they function in a dynamic global marketplace, and the challenges and opportunities they face. This foundational knowledge equips students with the insights and skills necessary to pursue further studies in business and to make informed decisions as future business professionals or entrepreneurs.
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MGMT6 New Engaging Titles from 4LTR Press 6th Edition by Chuck Williams
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Chapter 1: Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among the four kinds of management jobs, list the one that is the most recent addition to organizations and describe the basic responsibilities of that management job.
Answer: The fourth kind of manager is a team leader. This is a relatively new kind of management job that developed as companies shifted to self-managing teams, which, by definition, have no formal supervisor. Team leaders are responsible for facilitating team performance (but the team itself is responsible for actual performance), managing external relationships, and facilitating internal team relationships.
Q2) Hormel Foods had to recall 104,000 pounds of Stagg canned chili-labeled "hearty beef with a kick of green chilies"-after the kick turned out to come from the ground-up parts of a plastic handheld calculator. The recall was the application of which management function?
A) controlling
B) leading
C) motivating
D) planning
E) organizing
Answer: A
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Chapter 1: Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which skills increase in their importance to success as managers rise through the managerial ranks?
A) human skills and decisional skills
B) informational skills and the motivation to manage
C) conceptual skills and the motivation to manage
D) conceptual skills, technical skills, and human skills
E) human skills and informational skills
Answer: C
Q2) Companies look for a total of four sets of skills in individuals to identify potential managers. These desired skills are technical skills, human skills, conceptual skills, and motivation to manage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) First-line managers are the only managers who do not supervise other managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 1: Management: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) A manager striving to improve organizational __________ is accomplishing tasks that help fulfill organizational objectives.
A) efficiency
B) effectiveness
C) functionality
D) synergy
E) productivity
Answer: B
Q2) The four classical functions of management are (1) making things happen, (2) meeting the competition, (3) organizing people, projects, and processes, and (4) leading.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Upper-level managers may actually spend more time dealing with people than lower-level managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 2: History of Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Management theorist ____ is best known for his role in the Hawthorne Studies.
A) Elton Mayo
B) Chester Barnard
C) Mary Parker Follett
D) Henry Gantt
E) Frank Gilbreth
Q2) Elton Mayo was one of the first researchers to focus on studying human relations management.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the past, battlefield surgery was crude and often ineffective. Which of the following management theorists would most likely have used their understanding of how work is done to help surgeons eliminate unnecessary motions, operate more efficiently, and save more lives by closely studying how surgeries were performed?
A) Henri Fayol
B) Chester Barnard
C) Mary Parker Follett
D) Frederick Taylor
E) Frank and Lilian Gilbreth
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Page 6
Chapter 2: History of Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) How did the Industrial Revolution change jobs and organizations?
A) Managers realized the importance of synergistic tasks.
B) Managers realized the importance of customer relations.
C) Low-paid, unskilled workers running machines began to replace high-paid, skilled artisans.
D) Skilled jobs were performed in homes rather than in factories.
E) Managers learned to use delegation.
Q2) The goal of scientific management was to:
A) make sure workers did not consider their work boring or repetitive
B) decreased wages for individual workers
C) eliminate conflict between workers and management
D) find the one best way to perform each task
E) find different ways to motivate workers
Q3) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth studied the psychology of groups.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Human relations management focused on managers' roles and authority.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the origins of management is true?
A) Job enrichment was developed during the last half of the twentieth century.
B) Management as a field of study is only about 125 years old.
C) Information management appeared with the first computers.
D) The use of management functions would have made the building of the Egyptian pyramids more efficient.
E) All of the above statements about the origin of management are true.
Q2) Frederick Taylor was the father of systems management.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Frederick Taylor is famous for:
A) developing time and motion studies
B) first defining the functions of managers
C) developing the 14 principles of management
D) creating the principles of scientific management
E) doing all of these
Q4) Management ideas and practices have actually been used from the earliest times of recorded history.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly define and explain the relationship between environmental change, complexity, uncertainty, and resource scarcity.
Q2) In terms of external organizational environments, the ____ environment affects all organizations while the ____ environment is unique to each company.
A) global; national
B) customer-driven; production-driven
C) general; specific
D) informal; formal
E) specific; general
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a dimension of the political/legal component of the general environment that governs and regulates business behavior?
A) legislation
B) competitive products
C) court decisions
D) regulation
E) customer-initiated lawsuits
Q4) Compare and contrast the general environment with the specific environment faced by a company.
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes in any sector of the general environment:
A) will typically not impact most organizations
B) tend to slow down how quickly an organization moves through the environmental cycle
C) inhibit the innovation process
D) influence customers first and then suppliers
E) will eventually affect most organizations
Q2) Technology is the __________ used to transform inputs (raw materials, information, etc.) into outputs (goods or services).
A) knowledge, tools, and techniques
B) knowledge and machinery
C) plans and machinery
D) tools and techniques
E) strategy and tactics
Q3) A company facing a simple environment would:
A) most likely be in the first stage of the environmental cycle
B) exhibit proof of the punctuated equilibrium theory
C) be unable to succeed due to lack of innovation
D) be influenced only by factors in its specific environment
E) have few external factors in the environment that affect it
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Q1) External environments are the forces and events outside a company that have the potential to influence or affect it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a component of Volkswagen's specific environment and will directly influence how it does business?
A) Renault, a French car maker
B) laws concerning air bags
C) inflation
D) gasoline prices
E) the fact consumers are buying fewer SUVs
Q3) The first step managers use to make sense of their changing environments is:
A) environmental scanning
B) perceptual re-engagement
C) modifying budgets
D) downsizing
E) benchmarking
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Page 11
Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility
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Q1) For some time now, GlaxoSmithKline (GSK) has been making anti-AIDS drugs like Retrovir and Epivir available in hard-hit areas of Africa at up to 75 percent off the global price. But that wasn't enough for AIDS prevention groups, which were outraged by GSK's decision to use the World Trade Organization's (WTO's) patent protection rules to take action against governments importing lower-cost versions of these drugs. AIDS prevention groups saw GSK's use of WTO regulation as acting at which level of social responsibility?
A) economic
B) fiscal
C) legal
D) discretionary
E) accommodative
Q2) Due to ____ , the intentional pollution of a metropolitan water supply would have greater ethical intensity than insider trading in which a few participants netted less than $10,000.
A) social consensus
B) magnitude of consequences
C) temporal immediacy
D) probability of effect
E) all of these
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Page 12
Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part A
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Q1) Under the U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines, companies can be prosecuted and punished for the illegal or unethical actions of employees, even if management didn't know about the unethical behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Traditional college students who think about their parents' and grandparents' reactions to their decisions before putting the decision into action are more than likely operating according to which principle of ethical decision making?
A) the principle of long-term self-interest
B) the principle of utilitarian requirements
C) the principle of distributive justice
D) the principle of community injunctions
E) the principle of personal virtue
Q3) Ethics is the set of moral principles or values that defines right and wrong for a person or group.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is social responsibility?
A) a business's obligation to pursue policies, make decisions, and take actions that benefit society
B) a business tactic used to create relationship bonds with customers
C) what companies are obliged legally to do to protect their external environments
D) a business's responsibility to its shareholders
E) the fact businesses are responsible for monitoring their social environments so they can satisfy the needs of their customers
Q2) __________ is unethical behavior that violates organizational norms about right and wrong.
A) Workplace deviance
B) Organizational deviance
C) Social irresponsibility
D) Social deviance
E) An ethical dilemma
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term decision making is used to refer to the process of choosing a solution from available alternatives.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Briefly identify the two types of conflict that may spontaneously occur in situations of group decision making. Comment on the probable effectiveness of group decisions given each type of conflict.
Q3) According to the S.M.A.R.T. guidelines, goals should be ____.
A) Synergistic
B) Maximized
C) Accelerated
D) Role-related
E) none of these
Q4) On average, companies that create plans have larger profits and grow much faster than companies that don't.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and briefly describe the three kinds of standing plans. Comment on their relative specificity.
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part A
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Q1) Tactical plans specify how a company will use resources, budgets, and people to accomplish specific goals within its mission.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the Dephi technique, the members of a panel of experts respond to questions and to each other until reaching agreement on an issue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Managers can monitor __________ to track progress toward goal achievement.
A) action plans and their implementation
B) proximal and distal goals
C) one-way and two-way evaluative techniques
D) framing and non-framing goals
E) open-ended and close-ended techniques
Q4) Both absolute comparisons and relative comparisons are methods for identifying decision criteria.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) One method of weighting decision criteria uses ______, which is a process where each decision criterion is compared directly to every other criterion.
A) absolute comparisons
B) relative comparisons
C) valences
D) minimum threshold rule
E) comparative ranking scales
Q2) The __________ approach to decision making is a method in which an individual or a subgroup is assigned the role of a critic.
A) dialectical inquiry
B) groupthink
C) devil's advocacy
D) Delphi
E) dyadic communications
Q3) Tactical plans specify how a company will use resources, budgets, and people to accomplish specific goals within its mission.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The positioning strategies identified by Michael Porter are ____.
A) entrepreneurial, growth, and stability
B) diversification, acquisition, and divestment
C) defender strategy; diversification, and cost leadership
D) focus, cost leadership, and differentiation
E) divestment; cost leadership, and diversification
Q2) Based on the research evidence, related diversification appears to be a better strategy for portfolio management than unrelated diversification.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Companies often choose a stability strategy when their external environment doesn't change much or after they have struggled with periods of explosive growth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The greater the market commonality, the less intense the direct competition between two companies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part A
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the five industry forces that determine an industry's overall attractiveness and potential for long-term profitability?
A) character of rivalry
B) existing complementary products
C) bargaining power of suppliers
D) threat of substitute products
E) bargaining power of buyers
Q2) The research on diversification in portfolio management indicates that the best approach is probably:
A) related differentiation
B) related diversification
C) unrelated diversification
D) repositioning
E) no diversification
Q3) An analysis of an organization's external environment begins with an assessment of the company's distinctive competencies and core capabilities.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part B
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Q1) In any organization, the __________ are the less visible, internal decision-making routines, problem-solving processes, and organization cultures that determine how efficiently inputs can be turned into outputs.
A) imperfectly imitable resources
B) valuable resources
C) distinctive competencies
D) core capabilities
E) sources of innovation
Q2) According to Michael Porter, five industry forces determine an industry's overall attractiveness and potential for long-term profitability. Which of the following is one of those forces Porter identified?
A) existence of complementary products
B) organizational structure
C) existing benchmarks
D) span of management
E) bargaining power of suppliers
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a part of the experiential approach to innovation?
A) hands-on experience to reduce uncertainty
B) testing
C) multifunctional teams
D) design iterations
E) initiative conversations
Q2) Titleist has been manufacturing golf balls for several years, but each year it comes out with new golf ball designs. Titleist's development of the new Pro VI golf ball with a solid core designed to benefit players with high swing speeds is one example of how the manufacturer survives through ____.
A) technological discontinuity
B) discontinuous change
C) dominant design
D) incremental change
E) technological continuity
Q3) Explain the difference between activity-oriented and results-driven change. List the advantages of the results-driven approach to change. Characterize each of the approaches to organizational change presented in the text in terms of their apparent degree of emphasis on activities or results.
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part A
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Q1) Organizational innovation is defined as doing things differently in an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The General Electric workout is a special kind of:
A) activity-oriented change
B) results-driven change
C) generational change
D) vision-driven change
E) resources-driven change
Q3) According to John Kotter's analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
A) not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
B) declaring victory too soon
C) not anchoring changes in the corporation's culture
D) not removing obstacles to the new vision
E) a poorly designed organizational mission
Q4) Organizational decline is typically reversible at any of its five stages.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part B
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Q1) A technology __________ begins with the "birth" of a new technology and ends when that technology reaches its limits and "dies" as it is replaced by a newer, substantially better technology.
A) process
B) pattern
C) cycle
D) hierarchy
E) continuum
Q2) The __________ approach to managing innovation assumes that innovation is a predictable process made up of a series of steps and that compressing the time it takes to complete those steps can speed up innovation.
A) compression
B) milestones
C) dialectical
D) generational
E) prototypical
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23
Chapter 8: Global Management
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Q1) What are the basic provisions of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)?. Give three examples of how it benefits U.S. industries.
Q2) Identify the two basic types of political risk facing organizations when conducting global business. Which one is more common?
Q3) A cosmetics company that is considering entering the South American market would be especially interested in the discretionary income within that region. In other words, which of the following would be a determining factor in its global strategy?
A) purchasing power
B) political uncertainty
C) expropriation potential
D) infrastructure
E) sociocultural trends
Q4) The Maastricht Treaty of Europe was designed to create the European Union and make the euro, the one common currency, for all members.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly explain how companies can assess the growth potential of new markets.
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part A
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Q1) Historically, companies have generally followed the phase model of globalization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An expatriate is someone who:
A) claims dual citizenship
B) lives and works outside of his or her own country
C) believes strongly in nationalization
D) is unhappy with his or her present residence
E) desires to be employed in a country outside of his or her own
Q3) The trade agreement that represented the most significant change to the regulations governing global trade during the 1990s was the:
A) Maastricht Treaty of Europe
B) North American Free Trade Agreement
C) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
D) Mercosur
E) Asian Free Trade Arrangement
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part B
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Q1) Managing global joint ventures can be difficult because they:
A) represent a merging of four cultures
B) increase the number of tariffs that have to be paid
C) can only be used by large companies that already have an international presence
D) use local consistency in marketing
E) do all of these
Q2) Global business:
A) is the buying and selling of goods and services to people from different countries
B) includes any sale of goods and services
C) only involves companies with more than 50 employees
D) refers to sales made to people from different cultures, different regions, and different nations
E) is unregulated
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations
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Q1) One of the advantages of a virtual organization is the fact that it allows member companies to share costs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Roughly 70 percent of all reengineering projects fail because ____.
A) of how the process affects people in the workplace
B) the reengineering process requires the organization's vision to be changed
C) staff personnel must be given line authority to effectively implement reengineering
D) satisfactory benchmarks cannot be located
E) newly hired employees cannot internalize the organizational culture
Q3) The job design approach associated with ____ involves increasing the number of different tasks that a worker performs within one particular job and giving workers the authority and control to make meaningful decisions about their work.
A) job rotation and job enlargement
B) job specialization and job enrichment
C) job specialization and job enlargement
D) job enlargement and job enrichment
E) job enrichment and job rotation
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part A
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Q1) The process view of an organization will typically be very similar to the structural, hierarchical view of the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The core philosophy upon which the job characteristic model is based is:
A) reciprocity
B) empathy
C) autonomy
D) internal motivation
E) motivational valences
Q3) A(n) __________ function is an activity that contributes directly to creating or selling the company's products.
A) staff
B) line
C) mechanistic
D) organic
E) charted
Q4) Specialized jobs are generally inefficient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part B
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Q1) The central concern of the job characteristics model (JCM) is:
A) internal motivation
B) synergy
C) task identification
D) time-motion studies
E) a value-added measure
Q2) Which of the following types of departmentalization does NOT have a problem with the duplication of resources?
A) functional
B) geographic and matrix
C) product and customer
D) customer and functional
E) geographic
Q3) __________ is the collection of activities that transforms inputs into outputs that customers value.
A) Reengineering
B) Functionalization
C) Organizational structure
D) Production positioning
E) Organizational process
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams
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Q1) Team norms in an organization can create ____.
A) stronger organizational commitment
B) more trust in management
C) negative behaviors, such as breaking rules
D) increased job satisfaction
E) all of these
Q2) Which of the following is NOT necessary for stretch goals to effectively motivate teams?
A) a high degree of autonomy
B) the empowerment to control resources
C) structural accommodation
D) conflict management training
E) the ability to change organizational policies and procedures
Q3) ____ undermines team effectiveness by preventing teams from engaging in the kinds of activities that are critical to team effectiveness.
A) Low cohesiveness
B) Cognitive conflict
C) Affective conflict
D) Development of team norms
E) Behavioral conflict
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part A
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Q1) Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The achievement of stretch goals is made easier when the team members have:
A) localized synergy
B) bureaucratic immunity
C) strategic diversity
D) organizational accommodation
E) limited cohesiveness
Q3) __________ is a compensation system in which companies share the financial value of performance gains, such as productivity, cost savings, or quality, with their workers.
A) Skill-based pay
B) Gainsharing
C) A draw account
D) Profit sharing
E) Optional equity
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part B
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Q1) What can management do to promote group cohesiveness?
A) Have the group members engage in nonwork activities together.
B) Create a special jargon for the group members to use.
C) Instruct the group members to work in each others' offices
D) Limit task interdependence.
E) Do all of these.
Q2) __________ is a compensation system in which companies share the financial value of performance gains, such as productivity, cost savings, or quality, with their workers.
A) Skill-based pay
B) Gainsharing
C) A draw account
D) Profit sharing
E) Optional equity
Q3) Which of the following size teams usually provides the best performance?
A) 2 to 3
B) 6 to 9
C) 15 to 20
D) more than 20
E) All sizes tend to perform equally well.
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems
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Q1) ____ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
A) De-employment
B) Dysfunctional turnover
C) Reactive turnover
D) Regressive turnover
E) A "brain leak"
Q2) One of the reasons items manufactured in Southeast Asia are imported into the United States less expensively is that workers are paid a small amount of money for each item produced. The manufacturers operating in Southeast Asia use what type of pay plan?
A) real-time pay
B) compressed pay
C) piecework
D) batch processing
E) commission
Q3) Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide about themselves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part A
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41969
Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
A) De-employment
B) Dysfunctional turnover
C) Reactive turnover
D) Regressive turnover
E) A "brain leak"
Q2) Human resource management (HRM) is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people to form a qualified work force.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide about themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Functional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees who choose to leave the organization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part B
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12 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41968
Sample Questions
Q1) Functional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees who choose to leave the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An ESOP is an:
A) equitable stock ownership plan
B) employee stock ownership plan
C) employee salary option program
D) equity in salary organizational plan
E) employer/subordinate organizational profit
Q3) Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide about themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Human resource management (HRM) is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people to form a qualified work force.
A)True
B)False
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Page 35
Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force
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120 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41973
Sample Questions
Q1) Diversity exists in organizations when there is a variety of demographic, cultural, and personal differences among the customers who do business with them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Companies in several industries are now waking up to the needs of gays and lesbians. They are not only valuable consumers but also great employees who actually help their employers better understand the market. Companies that have hired gays and lesbians more than likely have ____.
A) disparity programs
B) continuous federal agency monitoring
C) poor codes of ethics
D) ethical ombudsmen on staff
E) diversity programs
Q3) What constitutes a disability? How does a disability result in disability discrimination? Give three examples of actions employers can take to avoid such discrimination.
Q4) List and briefly describe the four types of discrimination commonly associated with surface-level diversity. Which of those typically produce the so-called glass ceiling?
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part A
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10 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41972
Sample Questions
Q1) A key difference between affirmative action and diversity is that:
A) diversity requires a wider span of management
B) diversity has a broader focus
C) diversity is legally mandated in all private companies
D) affirmative action is legally mandated in all private companies
E) affirmative action does not alter organizational structures, and diversity does
Q2) The four dimensions of surface-level diversity that many managers use to form initial impressions can sometimes lead to discrimination. They are:
A) Gender, personality, age, and values
B) Physical capabilities, gender, Race/ethnicity, and age
C) Values, attitudes, personality, and gender
D) Race/ethnicity, age, personality, and beliefs
E) Gender, physical capabilities, age, and attitudes
Q3) The Big Five dimensions of personality are autonomy, Machiavellianism, empathy, locus of control, and affectivity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part B
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11 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41971
Sample Questions
Q1) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Conscientiousness is:
A) the degree to which someone is organized, hardworking, responsible, and achievement oriented
B) the degree to which someone is curious
C) the degree to which someone is active and gregarious
D) the degree to which someone is cooperative, flexible, good-natured, tolerant, and trusting
E) defined by none of these
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five personality dimensions?
A) emotional stability
B) extraversion
C) conscientiousness
D) empathy
E) agreeableness
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Page 38
Chapter 13: Motivation
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41976
Sample Questions
Q1) According to management expert Bill Roche, results from goal setting can virtually be guaranteed, but only if "you have first won the hearts and minds of your workers. When they are on board with the goal-they agree that it is important and can be done-you really will get dramatic improvement." Roche is describing ____.
A) goal recognition
B) goal congruity
C) goal specificity
D) goal difficulty
E) goal acceptance
Q2) According to expectancy theory, instrumentality is strong when employees believe that improved performance will lead to better and more rewards.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe goal-setting theory. Briefly identify the theory's basic components.
Q4) What are reinforcement contingencies? How are reinforcement contingencies related to behavior?
Q5) Overreward frequently causes inequity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part A
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41975
Sample Questions
Q1) In a(n) __________ reinforcement schedule, consequences follow a behavior after different times, some shorter and some longer, that vary around a specified average time.
A) fixed interval
B) variable interval
C) fixed ratio
D) variable ratio
E) continuous ratio
Q2) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On the basis of research evidence, the two basic needs categories are:
A) tangible and intangible needs
B) physiological and psychological needs
C) higher-order and lower-order needs
D) extrinsic and intrinsic needs
E) realized and unrealized needs
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part B
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41974
Sample Questions
Q1) __________ strengthen behavior (i.e., increase its frequency).
A) Positive and negative reinforcement
B) Negative reinforcement and extinction
C) Positive reinforcement and extinction
D) Negative reinforcement, positive reinforcement, and punishment
E) Negative reinforcement, positive reinforcement, extinction, and punishment
Q2) Which of the following statements about goal-setting theory is true?
A) Feedback should not be specific.
B) Goals should be specific, measurable, attainable, and generalized.
C) Workers do not have to truly accept organizational goals for goal-setting theory to be motivational.
D) Goals can energize behavior.
E) None of the above statements about goal-setting theory is true.
Q3) Goal acceptance is most similar to the idea of:
A) goal congruity
B) goal commitment
C) goal valence
D) goal expectancy
E) groupthink
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Page 41
Chapter 14: Leadership
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140 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41979
Sample Questions
Q1) The two kinds of charismatic leaders are referred to as ____.
A) ethical charismatics and unethical charismatics
B) effective charismatics and ineffective charismatics
C) transformational and transactional leaders
D) visionary and nonvisionary leaders
E) those who have learned how to be charismatic and those who are naturally charismatic
Q2) Ford Motor Company has always attracted and nurtured capable managers, but it has failed to do the same for leaders. Ford is embarking on a sweeping attempt to mass-manufacture leaders. It wants to build an army of "warrior-entrepreneurs." Ford's "warrior-entrepreneurs" will be expected to ____.
A) take a long-term perspective
B) inspire and motivate employees to embrace change
C) realize that results are more important than processes
D) be architects rather than builders
E) do all of these things
Q3) There is no such thing as a "best" leadership style for all situations and employees.
A)True
B)False
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Page 42
Chapter 14: Leadership: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important situational factor in Fieldler's Contingency Theory is:
A) Task structure
B) Procedural power
C) Leader relations
D) Position power
E) Leader-member relations
Q2) Since there are no consistent trait differences between leaders and nonleaders, or between effective and ineffective leaders, trait theory is wrong.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research at three universities has confirmed that two basic leader behaviors, ______ and ______, are central to successful leadership.
A) initiating structure; consideration
B) initiating structure; job-centered leadership
C) employee-centered leadership; consideration
D) concern for production; job-centered leadership
E) autonomous; participative
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transactional leaders:
A) reward followers for good behavior and punish followers for poor behavior
B) help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision
C) pay special attention to individual needs by creating learning opportunities
D) motivate followers by providing them with meaningful and challenging work
E) are accurately described by all of these
Q2) Which of the following approaches to implementing Fiedler's contingency theory in the workplace has proven effective?
A) accurately measuring and matching leaders to situations
B) teaching managers how to change situational favorableness
C) arbitrary definition of situations
D) only hiring supervisors with appropriate leadership traits
E) creating standing plans concerning leader actions and reactions
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the four leadership styles identified in the path-goal theory of leadership?
A) directive
B) supportive
C) participative
D) charismatic
E) achievement-oriented
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication
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131 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41982
Sample Questions
Q1) When Robin was told that her favorite store would no longer stock her favorite brand of clip-on earrings, she assumed this meant that the company was no longer producing clip-on earrings; even though that was not the case. Robin's incorrect assumption was due to _____.
A) selective perception
B) kinesics
C) closure
D) defensive bias
E) attribution
Q2) The steps in the perceptual process in order are ____.
A) interpretation, attention, organization, action
B) organization, attention, interpretation, retention
C) attention, organization, interpretation, retention
D) attention, interpretation, organization, retention
E) attention, decision, intention, and action
Q3) Another name for the informal communication channel is the "grapevine."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly define perceptual filters. How do perceptual filters impact the perception process?
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ is the system of official channels that carry organizationally approved messages and information.
A) downward communication channel
B) upward communication channel
C) horizontal communication channel
D) formal communication channel
E) informal communication channel
Q2) In which of the following cases would written communication be preferable to oral communication?
A) when immediate feedback is needed
B) when messages are complex and ambiguous
C) when messages are emotion laden
D) when messages are very simple
E) when paralanguage is required
Q3) Managers with better listening skills are rated as better managers by their employees and are much more likely to be promoted.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The steps in the basic perception process include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) attention
B) organization
C) analysis
D) interpretation
E) retention
Q2) The __________ is the system of official channels that carry organizationally approved messages and information.
A) downward communication channel
B) upward communication channel
C) horizontal communication channel
D) formal communication channel
E) informal communication channel
Q3) __________ is the withholding of information about organizational problems or issues by employees.
A) Organizational silence
B) Organizational filtering
C) Negative grapevining
D) Lower-level filtering
E) Communication shutdown
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Chapter 16: Control
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41985
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify and briefly define the three basic control methods.
Q2) Imagine a manufacturer that has a 99 percent error-free production rate and decides it wants 100 percent error-free production. Its management needs to examine ____ to determine if the costs of increased controls outweigh the benefits of error-free production.
A) cybernetic costs
B) benchmarks
C) financial ratios
D) regulation costs
E) feedback loops
Q3) A chain of specialty fashion stores has interviewed a sample of its female customers and learned that a customer can be expected to visit the store looking for new merchandise on average every two weeks. The chain of stores was able to set this standard through ____.
A) evaluating the standard's capacity to enable goal achievement
B) benchmarking competitors
C) listening to customers
D) outsourcing
E) value communications
Q4) Define benchmarking and list the three steps in this process.
Page 48
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Chapter 16: Control: Part A
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41984
Sample Questions
Q1) Concertive control produces less stress for workers than bureaucratic control.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One significant advantage of economic value added (EVA) is that it clearly specifies what managers should or should not do to improve financial performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Normative controls should be used when:
A) cause-and-effect relationships are clear
B) workers have been taught self-control skills
C) responsibility for task accomplishment is given to autonomous work groups
D) it is necessary to standardize all operations
E) organizational culture, values, and beliefs are strong
Q4) Control is an intermittent activity that requires periodic attention from managers once or twice a month.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Control: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest minimization of waste?
A) waste prevention and reduction
B) recycle and reuse
C) waste treatment
D) waste disposal
E) waste remarketing
Q2) One significant advantage of economic value added (EVA) is that it clearly specifies what managers should or should not do to improve financial performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Control is a(n) __________ process.
A) standardized, periodic, and cybernetic
B) flexible, intermittent, and automated
C) standardized, periodic, and robotic
D) continuous, flexible, and automated
E) continuous, dynamic, and cybernetic
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Chapter 17: Managing Information
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41988
Sample Questions
Q1) The three methods of tracing products through a distribution system are paper records, bar codes, and radio frequency identification tags. Which of the following statements about the tracing of products is true?
A) RFID tags need direct line-of-sight scanning.
B) Bar codes would be the easiest and most economical method to use.
C) Until technological improvements are made, paper records are the best way to trace recalled products.
D) RFID tags are most efficient because they can be read by a radio that has been tuned to a specific frequency.
E) Bar codes are the most efficient because they make use of optical character recognition.
Q2) ____ allow managers and employees to use a Web browser to gain access to customized company information and to complete specialized transactions.
A) Corporate portals
B) Extranets
C) Expert systems
D) Virtual private networks
E) Electronic data interchanges
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information is true?
A) Raw data become information as soon as the facts and figures are manipulated.
B) For information to be useful, it has to be malleable, concrete, reliable, and timely.
C) Obtaining good information incurs negligible costs in terms of acquisition, processing, storage, retrieval, and communication.
D) Useful information does not come cheaply.
E) All of these statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information are true.
Q2) Although firewalls can protect personal computers and network services connected to the corporate network, people away from their offices who interact with their company networks via the Internet face a safety risk. Which of the following technologies has proven to be a viable solution to this problem?
A) safe software for logic (SSL) encryption
B) firewall reengineering
C) secure sockets layer (SSL) encryption
D) secure logistical LAN (SLL) encryption
E) virus protected networks (VPNs)
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Data clusters:
A) result from the use of internal data mining
B) are a statistical technique used for trend analysis
C) are used to create samples for statistical analyses
D) occur when three or more database elements occur together in a significant way
E) are accurately described by all of these
Q2) A(n) __________ is a private company network that allows employees to easily access, share, and publish information using Internet software.
A) LAN portal
B) private company network (PCN)
C) intranet
D) electronic data sharing system
E) information network
Q3) The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:
A) replace the need for intuition in decision making
B) create a link among authorized data and network users
C) protect organizational data from hackers
D) provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers
E) do none of these
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41989
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Q1) One of the key assumptions in the service business is that success depends on how well employees deliver their services to customers. However, according to the service-profit chain, success depends on ____.
A) the availability of factors of production
B) autocratic management
C) a high degree of centralization
D) how well employees are treated
E) market size
Q2) Manufacturing processes are classified according to the amount of processing or assembly that occurs after receiving an order from customers. Briefly describe the three types of manufacturing processes.
Q3) What is inventory? Explain the potential costs associated with it. Briefly describe the systems of inventory management that are available to managers to control these costs, and specify which method of inventory management is best.
Q4) The purpose of service recovery is to restore customer satisfaction to strongly dissatisfied customers
A)True
B)False
54
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
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Q1) Inventory is defined as the number of finished products that a company has in its possession either in the factory, in warehouses, or on delivery vehicles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following types of operations are most dependent on the accuracy of sales forecasts?
A) project manufacturing
B) assemble-to-order operations
C) make-to-order operations
D) buy-to-sell operations
E) make-to-stock operations
Q3) When a manufacturer makes a product continuously, it is using:
A) project manufacturing
B) continuous-flow production
C) line-flow production
D) batch production
E) job shops
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Page 55
Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
Operations: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term __________ refers to restoring customer satisfaction to strongly dissatisfied customers.
A) service recovery
B) service enhancement
C) customer focus
D) customer reengineering
E) relationship marketing
Q2) The three principles that characterize TQM are continuous improvement, teamwork, and:
A) third party certification
B) delegation
C) participative management
D) customer focus and satisfaction
E) distinctive competence
Q3) Two common measures of productivity are extrinsic productivity and intrinsic productivity.
A)True
B)False
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