Introduction to Biology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles and processes that govern living organisms. This course explores the structure and function of cells, basic biochemistry, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life forms. Through lectures, laboratory experiences, and interactive activities, students gain essential knowledge of biological concepts and scientific methods that prepare them for more advanced studies in the life sciences. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, scientific inquiry, and the relevance of biology to everyday life and societal issues.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology Concepts and Connections 9th Edition by Jane B. Reece
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Chapter 1: Introduction: Themes in the Study of Life
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Q1) Once labor begins in childbirth, contractions increase in intensity and frequency until delivery. The increasing labor contractions of childbirth are an example of which type of regulation?
A) a bioinformatic system
B) positive feedback
C) negative feedback
D) feedback inhibition
E) enzymatic catalysis
Answer: B
Q2) Which theme(s)is/are best illustrated by an experiment in which a biologist seeks a medication that will inhibit pain responses in a cancer patient?
A) II
B) VII
C) III and V
D) V and VIII
E) VI and VII
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) Atoms whose outer electron shells contain 8 electrons tend to
A) form ions in aqueous solutions.
B) form hydrogen bonds in aqueous solutions.
C) be stable and chemically nonreactive, or inert.
D) be gaseous at room temperature.
E) be both chemically inert and gaseous at room temperature.
Answer: E
Q2) The atomic number of chlorine is 17. The atomic number of magnesium is 12. What is the formula for magnesium chloride?
A) MgCl
B) MgCl
C) Mg Cl
D) Mg Cl
E) MgCl
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Q1) One liter of a solution of pH 2 has how many more hydrogen ions (H )than 1L of a solution of pH 6?
A) 4 times more
B) 16 times more
C) 40,000 times more
D) 10,000 times more
E) 100,000 times more
Answer: D
Q2) How many grams of the compound in the figure above would be required to make 2.5 L of a 1 M solution?
(carbon = 12, oxygen = 16, hydrogen = 1)
A) 29
B) 30
C) 60
D) 150
E) 342
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) Which of the groups above is a basic functional group that can accept H and become positively charged?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) The two molecules shown in the figure above are best described as A) enantiomers.
B) radioactive isotopes.
C) structural isomers.
D) nonisotopic isomers.
E) cis-trans isomers.
Q3) Which functional group(s)shown above is (are)present in all amino acids?
A) A and B
B) B and D
C) C only
D) D only
E) C and D
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?
A) peptide bonds
B) hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond
C) disulfide bonds
D) hydrophobic interactions
E) hydrogen bonds between the R groups
Q2) Which of the following polymers contain nitrogen?
A) starch
B) glycogen
C) cellulose
D) chitin
E) amylopectin
Q3) Molecules with which functional groups may form polymers via dehydration reactions?
A) hydroxyl groups
B) carbonyl groups
C) carboxyl groups
D) either carbonyl or carboxyl groups
E) either hydroxyl or carboxyl groups
Page 7
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells?
A) limitation on the strength and integrity of the plasma membrane as cell size increases
B) the difference in plasma membranes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
C) evolutionary progression in cell size; more primitive cells have smaller sizes
D) the need for a surface area of sufficient area to support the cell's metabolic needs
E) rigid cell walls that limit cell size expansion
Q2) Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted?
A) lysosome
B) vacuole
C) mitochondrion
D) Golgi apparatus
E) peroxisome
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Which component is the peripheral protein?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) Which of the following is most likely true of a protein that cotransports glucose and sodium ions into the intestinal cells of an animal?
A) The sodium ions are moving down their electrochemical gradient while glucose is moving up.
B) Glucose entering the cell along its concentration gradient provides energy for uptake of sodium ions against the electrochemical gradient.
C) Sodium ions can move down their electrochemical gradient through the cotransporter whether or not glucose is present outside the cell.
D) The cotransporter can also transport potassium ions.
E) A substance that blocks sodium ions from binding to the cotransport protein will also block the transport of glucose.
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) In experimental tests of enzyme evolution, where a gene encoding an enzyme is subjected to multiple cycles of random mutagenesis and selection for altered substrate specificity, the resulting enzyme had multiple amino acid changes associated with altered substrate specificity. Where in the enzyme were these amino acid changes located?
A) only in the active site
B) only in the active site or near the active site
C) in or near the active site and at surface sites away from the active site
D) only at surface sites away from the active site
E) only in the hydrophobic interior of the folded protein
Q2) How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme reaction?
A) by binding at the active site of the enzyme
B) by changing the shape of the enzyme's active site
C) by changing the free energy change of the reaction
D) by acting as a coenzyme for the reaction
E) by decreasing the activation energy of the reaction
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) During glycolysis, when each molecule of glucose is catabolized to two molecules of pyruvate, most of the potential energy contained in glucose is
A) transferred to ADP, forming ATP.
B) transferred directly to ATP.
C) retained in the two pyruvates.
D) stored in the NADH produced.
E) used to phosphorylate fructose to form fructose 6-phosphate.
Q2) Even though plants carry on photosynthesis, plant cells still use their mitochondria for oxidation of pyruvate. When and where will this occur?
A) in photosynthetic cells in the light, while photosynthesis occurs concurrently
B) in nonphotosynthesizing cells only
C) in cells that are storing glucose only
D) in all cells all the time
E) in photosynthesizing cells in the light and in other tissues in the dark
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following are directly associated with photosystem I?
A) harvesting of light energy by ATP
B) receiving electrons from the thylakoid membrane electron transport chain
C) generation of molecular oxygen
D) extraction of hydrogen electrons from the splitting of water
E) passing electrons to the thylakoid membrane electron transport chain
Q2) In metabolic processes of cell respiration and photosynthesis, prosthetic groups such as heme and iron-sulfur complexes are encountered in components of the electron transport chain. What do they do?
A) donate electrons
B) act as reducing agents
C) act as oxidizing agents
D) transport protons within the mitochondria and chloroplasts
E) both oxidize and reduce during electron transport
Q3) What are the products of linear photophosphorylation?
A) heat and fluorescence
B) ATP and P700
C) ATP and NADPH
D) ADP and NADP
E) P700 and P680
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Which of the following would be inhibited by a drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to proteins?
A) G protein-coupled receptor signaling
B) ligand-gated ion channel signaling
C) adenylyl cyclase activity
D) phosphatase activity
E) receptor tyrosine kinase activity
Q2) The termination phase of cell signaling requires which of the following?
A) removal of the receptor
B) activation of a different set of relay molecules
C) converting ATP to camp
D) incompatibility of the binding of the signal molecule to the receptor
E) apoptosis
Q3) GTPase activity is involved in the regulation of signal transduction because it
A) increases the available concentration of phosphate.
B) decreases the amount of G protein in the membrane.
C) hydrolyzes GTP binding to G protein.
D) converts cGMP to GTP.
E) phosphorylates protein kinases.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) At the M phase checkpoint, the complex allows for what to occur?
A) Separase enzyme cleaves cohesins and allows chromatids to separate.
B) Cohesins alter separase to allow chromatids to separate.
C) Kinetochores are able to bind to spindle microtubules.
D) All microtubules are made to bind to kinetochores.
E) Daughter cells are allowed to pass into G .
Q2) Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
Q3) Using which of the following techniques would enable your lab group to distinguish between a cell in G and a cell from the same organism in G ?
A) fluorescence microscopy
B) electron microscopy
C) spectrophotometry
D) radioactive-labeled nucleotides
E) labeled kinetochore proteins
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid number of 8 (2n = 8)?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
Q2) A karyotype results from which of the following?
A) a natural cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus
B) an inherited ability of chromosomes to arrange themselves
C) the ordering of human chromosome images
D) the cutting and pasting of parts of chromosomes to form the standard array
E) the separation of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I of meiosis
Q3) Which sample of DNA might be from a nerve cell arrested in G of the cell cycle?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) either I or II
E) either I or III
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) How could you best predict the maximum number of alleles for a single gene whose polypeptide product is known?
A) Search the population for all phenotypic variants of this polypeptide.
B) Count the number of amino acids in the polypeptide.
C) Mate all known genotypes and collect all possible offspring different from the parents.
D) Measure the rate of new mutations in the species and estimate the number since it first evolved.
E) Count the number of DNA nucleotides that are in the code for the polypeptides.
Q2) Most genes have many more than two alleles. However, which of the following is also true?
A) At least one allele for a gene always produces a dominant phenotype.
B) Most of the alleles will never be found in a live-born organism.
C) All of the alleles but one will produce harmful effects if homozygous.
D) There may still be only two phenotypes for the trait.
E) More than two alleles in a genotype is considered lethal.
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because A) male hormones such as testosterone often alter the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
B) female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
C) X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.
D) males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
E) mutations on the Y chromosome often worsen the effects of X-linked mutations.
Q2) In humans, male-pattern baldness is controlled by an autosomal gene that occurs in two allelic forms. Allele Hn determines nonbaldness, and allele Hb determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the presence of testosterone, allele Hb is dominant over Hn. If a man and woman both with genotype HnHb have a son, what is the chance that he will eventually be bald?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 33%
D) 50%
E) 75%
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following statements describes the eukaryotic chromosome?
A) It is composed of DNA alone.
B) The nucleosome is its most basic functional subunit.
C) The number of genes on each chromosome is different in different cell types of an organism.
D) It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA plus proteins.
E) Active transcription occurs on heterochromatin but not euchromatin.
Q2) In an experiment, DNA is allowed to replicate in an environment with all necessary enzymes, dATP, dCTP, dGTP, and radioactively labeled dTTP (³H thymidine)for several minutes and then switched to nonradioactive medium. It is then viewed by electron microscopy and autoradiography. The figure above represents the results.
Which of the following is the most likely interpretation?
A) There are two replication forks going in opposite directions.
B) Thymidine is only being added where the DNA strands are furthest apart.
C) Thymidine is only added at the very beginning of replication.
D) Replication proceeds in one direction only.
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain mutant for the gene-encoding enzyme B would be capable of growing on which of the following media?
A) minimal medium
B) minimal medium supplemented with A only
C) minimal medium supplemented with B only
D) minimal medium supplemented with C only
E) minimal medium supplemented with nutrients A and B
Q2) If a protein is coded for by a single gene and this protein has six clearly defined domains, which number of exons below is the gene likely to have?
A) 11
B) 5
C) 8
D) 12
E) 14
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) If she moves the operator to the far end of the operon (past the transacetylase gene), which of the following would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose?
A) The inducer will no longer bind to the repressor.
B) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator.
C) The operon will never be transcribed.
D) The structural genes will be transcribed continuously.
E) The repressor protein will no longer be produced.
Q2) In positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the catabolite activator protein (CAP)binds to DNA to stimulate transcription. What causes an increase in CAP?
A) increase in glucose and increase in cAMP
B) decrease in glucose and increase in cAMP
C) increase in glucose and decrease in cAMP
D) decrease in glucose and increase in repressor
E) decrease in glucose and decrease in repressor
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following represents a difference between viruses and viroids?
A) Viruses infect many types of cells, whereas viroids infect only prokaryotic cells.
B) Viruses have capsids composed of protein, whereas viroids have no capsids.
C) Viruses contain introns, whereas viroids have only exons.
D) Viruses always have genomes composed of DNA, whereas viroids always have genomes composed of RNA.
E) Viruses cannot pass through plasmodesmata, whereas viroids can.
Q2) Viral genomes vary greatly in size and may include from four genes to several hundred genes. Which of the following viral features is most apt to correlate with the size of the genome?
A) size of the viral capsomeres
B) RNA versus DNA genome
C) double- versus single-strand genomes
D) size and shape of the capsid
E) glycoproteins of the envelope
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Chapter 20: Biotechnology
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Q1) The major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as YACs and BACs for cloning genes is that
A) plasmids are unable to replicate in cells.
B) only one copy of a plasmid can be present in any given cell, whereas many copies of a YAC or BAC can coexist in a single cell.
C) YACs and BACs can carry much larger DNA fragments than ordinary plasmids can.
D) YACs and BACs can be used to express proteins encoded by inserted genes, but plasmids cannot.
E) All of these are correct.
Q2) In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the following processes was used?
A) use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells of another ewe
B) replication and dedifferentiation of adult stem cells from sheep bone marrow
C) separation of an early stage sheep blastula into separate cells, one of which was incubated in a surrogate ewe
D) fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg, followed by incubation in a surrogate
E) isolation of stem cells from a lamb embryo and production of a zygote equivalent
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) The movement of these blocks suggests that
A) during evolutionary time, these sequences have separated and have returned to their original positions.
B) DNA sequences within these blocks have become increasingly divergent.
C) sequences represented have duplicated at least three times.
D) chromosomal translocations have moved blocks of sequences to other chromosomes.
E) higher mammals have more convergence of gene sequences related in function.
Q2) Which of the following can be duplicated in a genome?
A) DNA sequences above a minimum size only
B) DNA sequences below a minimum size only
C) entire chromosomes only
D) entire sets of chromosomes only
E) sequences, chromosomes, or sets of chromosomes
Q3) How is a physical map of the genome of an organism achieved?
A) using recombination frequency
B) using very high-powered microscopy
C) using restriction enzyme cutting sites
D) using sequencing of nucleotides
E) using DNA fingerprinting via electrophoresis
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Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Which of these conditions should completely prevent the occurrence of natural selection in a population over time?
A) All variation between individuals is due only to environmental factors.
B) The environment is changing at a relatively slow rate.
C) The population size is large.
D) The population lives in a habitat where there are no competing species present.
Q2) Charles Darwin was the first person to propose
A) that evolution occurs.
B) a mechanism for how evolution occurs.
C) that Earth is older than a few thousand years.
D) a mechanism for evolution that was supported by evidence.
E) that population growth can outpace the growth of food resources.
Q3) What was the prevailing belief prior to the time of Lyell and Darwin?
A) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging.
B) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations gradually change.
C) Earth is millions of years old, and populations rapidly change.
D) Earth is millions of years old, and populations are unchanging.
E) Earth is millions of years old, and populations gradually change.
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) Which of the following represents the treatment option most likely to avoid the production of drug-resistant HIV (assuming no drug interactions or side effects)?
A) using a series of NAs, one at a time, and changed about once a week
B) using a single PI, but slowly increasing the dosage over the course of a week
C) using high doses of NA and a PI at the same time for a period not to exceed one day
D) using moderate doses of NA and two different PIs at the same time for several months
Q2) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.3. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele?
A) 0.09
B) 0.49
C) 0.9
D) 9.0
E) 49.0
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Two closely related populations of mice have been separated for many generations by a river. Climatic change causes the river to dry up, thereby bringing the mice populations back into contact in a zone of overlap. Which of the following is not a possible outcome when they meet?
A) They interbreed freely and produce fertile hybrid offspring.
B) They no longer attempt to interbreed.
C) They interbreed in the region of overlap, producing an inferior hybrid. Subsequent interbreeding between inferior hybrids produces progressively superior hybrids over several generations.
D) They remain separate in the extremes of their ranges but develop a persistent hybrid zone in the area of overlap.
E) They interbreed in the region of overlap, but produce sterile offspring.
Q2) Which species is most closely related to species W?
A) V is most closely related to species W.
B) X is most closely related to species W.
C) Y and Z are equally closely related to W.
D) It is not possible to say from this tree.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) If arrows indicate locations in the column where fossils of a particular type (see key above)first appear, then which core in Figure 25.2 has the most accurate arrangement of fossils?
A) core A
B) core B
C) core C
D) core D
Q2) Which of these observations gives the most support to the endosymbiotic theory for the origin of eukaryotic cells?
A) the existence of structural and molecular differences between the plasma membranes of prokaryotes and the internal membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts
B) the similarity in size between the cytosolic ribosomes of prokaryotes and the ribosomes within mitochondria and chloroplasts
C) the size disparity between most prokaryotic cells and most eukaryotic cells
D) the observation that some eukaryotic cells lack mitochondria
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Which of these would, if it had acted upon a gene, prevent this gene from acting as a reliable molecular clock?
A) neutral mutations
B) genetic drift
C) mutations within introns
D) natural selection
E) most substitution mutations involving an exonic codon's third position
Q2) Concerning growth in genome size over evolutionary time, which of these is least associated with the others?
A) orthologous genes
B) gene duplications
C) paralogous genes
D) gene families
Q3) Regarding these sequence homology data, the principle of maximum parsimony would be applicable in
A) distinguishing introns from exons.
B) determining degree of sequence homology.
C) selecting appropriate genes for comparison among species.
D) inferring evolutionary relatedness from the number of sequence differences.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which statement about the domain Archaea is true?
A) Genetic prospecting has recently revealed the existence of many previously unknown archaean species.
B) No archaeans can reduce CO to methane.
C) The genomes of archaeans are unique, containing no genes that originated within bacteria.
D) No archaeans can inhabit solutions that are nearly 30% salt.
E) No archaeans are adapted to waters with temperatures above the boiling point.
Q2) Which statement about bacterial cell walls is false?
A) Bacterial cell walls differ in molecular composition from plant cell walls.
B) Cell walls prevent cells from bursting in hypotonic environments.
C) Cell walls prevent cells from dying in hypertonic conditions.
D) Bacterial cell walls are similar in function to the cell walls of many protists, fungi, and plants.
E) Cell walls provide the cell with a degree of physical protection from the environment.
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Test tube 4 contains
A) Paramecium.
B) Navicula (diatom).
C) Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate).
D) Entamoeba.
E) Plasmodium.
Q2) Which process could have allowed the nucleomorphs of chlorarachniophytes to be reduced, without the net loss of any genetic information?
A) conjugation
B) horizontal gene transfer
C) binary fission
D) phagocytosis
E) meiosis
Q3) The best evidence for not classifying the slime molds as fungi comes from slime molds'
A) DNA sequences.
B) nutritional modes.
C) choice of habitats.
D) physical appearance.
E) reproductive methods.
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) If intelligent extraterrestrials visited Earth 475 million years ago, and then again 300 million years ago (at the close of the Carboniferous period), what trends would they have noticed in Earth's terrestrial vegetation over this period?
1)a trend from dominant gametophytes to dominant sporophytes
2)a trend from sporangia borne on modified leaves (sporophylls)to sporangia borne on stalks (seta)
3)a trend from no true leaves, to microphylls, to megaphylls
4)a trend from soil-surface-hugging plants to "overtopping" plants
5)a trend toward increased lignification of conducting systems
A) 1 and 3
B) 3, 4, and 5
C) 1, 2, 4, and 5
D) 1, 3, 4, and 5
E) 2, 3, 4, and 5
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fruit is most commonly
A) a mature ovary.
B) a thickened style.
C) an enlarged ovule.
D) a modified root.
E) a mature female gametophyte.
Q2) Gymnosperms differ from both extinct and extant (living)ferns because they A) are woody.
B) have macrophylls.
C) have pollen.
D) have sporophylls.
E) have spores.
Q3) If one were to erect a new taxon of plants that included all plants that are pollinated by animals, and only plants that are pollinated by animals, then this new taxon would be A) monophyletic.
B) paraphyletic.
C) polyphyletic.
D) identical in composition to the phylum Anthophyta.
E) identical in composition to the phylum Cycadophyta.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Fossil fungi date back to the origin and early evolution of plants. What combination of environmental and morphological change is similar in the evolution of both fungi and plants?
A) presence of "coal forests" and change in mode of nutrition
B) periods of drought and presence of filamentous body shape
C) predominance in swamps and presence of cellulose in cell walls
D) colonization of land and loss of flagellated cells
E) continental drift and mode of spore dispersal
Q2) Both axes of the graph are linear. Thus, the shape of the line plotted on this graph most accurately depicts the
A) volume of a sphere as the radius, r, increases.
B) surface area of a sphere as the radius, r, increases.
C) volume of a cylinder as length, L, increases.
D) surface area of a cylinder as length, L, increases.
Q3) The lifestyle of microsporidians is most similar to that of A) scavengers.
B) viruses.
C) free-living yeasts.
D) ectoparasites.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In how many of the following ways is Tp unlike the typical animal?
1)Tp is multicellular.
2)Tp lacks muscle and nerve cells.
3)Tp has cilia.
4)Tp has a different place where digestion of food occurs.
5)Tp lacks cell walls.
A) only one way
B) two ways
C) three ways
D) four ways
E) all five ways
Q2) Which two groups are most clearly represented in the Ediacaran fauna?
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and IV
D) II and V
E) IV and V
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Page 34
Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) Aside from the density of dinoflagellates in P. ianthina skin, how many of the following factors can affect whether or not the endosymbiotic dinoflagellates promote the sea slug's survival (assuming latitudes above or below Earth's equator)?
1)day length
2)height of sun above the horizon
3)cloud cover
4)depth at which P. ianthina lives
5)water clarity
A) two of these
B) three of these
C) four of these
D) five of these
Q2) By which structures are nematocysts most likely to reach the skin of sea slugs?
A) the closed circulatory system
B) branches of the intestine
C) branches of the excurrent siphon
D) branches of the nephridium
E) branches of the pseudocoelom
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35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of these are amniotes?
A) amphibians
B) fishes
C) egg-laying mammals
D) placental mammals
E) More than one of these is correct.
Q2) Some bird bones are hollow rather than honeycombed. The hollow bones mostly contain air sacs. The replacement of bone marrow with air sacs is properly understood as an adaptation to
A) reduce the weight of the bird.
B) facilitate flight.
C) eliminate the functions that marrow performs.
D) All three of the options listed are correct.
E) Only two of the options listed are correct.
Q3) Which of these numbers represents ectotherms that were able to fly?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 7
D) 8
E) It is not possible to say.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) What effect does "pinching back" have on a houseplant?
A) increases apical dominance
B) inhibits the growth of lateral buds
C) produces a plant that will grow taller
D) stimulates lateral buds to grow
E) increases the flow of auxin down the shoot
Q2) Which of the following cells transport sugars over long distances?
A) parenchyma cells
B) collenchyma cells
C) sclerenchyma cells
D) tracheids and vessel elements
E) sieve-tube elements
Q3) Land plants are composed of all of the following tissue types except
A) mesodermal.
B) epidermal.
C) meristematic.
D) vascular.
E) ground tissue.
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) What drives the flow of water through the xylem?
A) passive transport by the endodermis
B) the number of companion cells in the phloem
C) the evaporation of water from the leaves
D) active transport by sieve-tube elements
E) active transport by tracheid and vessel elements
Q2) What is the main cause of guttation in plants?
A) root pressure
B) transpiration
C) pressure flow in phloem
D) plant injury
E) condensation of atmospheric water
Q3) Plasmodesmata can change in number, and when dilated can provide a passageway for
A) macromolecules such as RNA and proteins.
B) ribosomes.
C) chloroplasts.
D) mitochondria.
E) cytoskeletal components.
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the mass of organic material of a plant comes from A) water.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) soil minerals.
D) atmospheric oxygen.
E) nitrogen.
Q2) Which of the following would be in the lowest concentration in an actively growing shoot tip?
A) zinc
B) nitrogen
C) phosphorus
D) potassium
E) calcium
Q3) Some of the problems associated with intensive irrigation include all but A) mineral runoff.
B) overfertilization.
C) land subsidence.
D) aquifer depletion.
E) soil salinization.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biofuels are mainly produced by
A) the breakdown of cell wall biopolymers into sugars that can be fermented.
B) plants that convert hemicellulose into gasoline.
C) the genetic engineering of ethanol-generating genes into plants.
D) transgenic crops that have cell walls containing ethylene.
E) plants that are easy to grow in arid environments.
Q2) In some angiosperms, other floral parts contribute to what is commonly called the fruit. Which of the following fruits is derived mostly from an enlarged receptacle?
A) pea
B) raspberry
C) apple
D) pineapple
E) peach
Q3) A seed develops from
A) an ovum.
B) a pollen grain.
C) an ovule.
D) an ovary.
E) an embryo.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) A long-day plant will flower if
A) the duration of continuous light exceeds a critical length.
B) the duration of continuous light is less than a critical length.
C) the duration of continuous darkness exceeds a critical length.
D) the duration of continuous darkness is less than a critical length.
E) it is kept in continuous far-red light.
Q2) In order for a plant to initiate chemical responses to herbivory,
A) the plant must be directly attacked by an herbivore.
B) volatile "signal" compounds must be perceived.
C) gene-for-gene recognition must occur.
D) phytoalexins must be released.
E) it must be past a certain developmental age.
Q3) After some time, the tip of a plant that has been forced into a horizontal position grows upward. This phenomenon is related to
A) calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum of shaded cells.
B) whether the plant is in the northern or southern hemisphere.
C) gibberellin production by stems.
D) auxin production in cells receiving red light.
E) auxin movement toward the lower side of the stem.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Q1) During its months-long hibernation in its burrow, the body temperature of a ground squirrel
A) is held at a constant 37°C.
B) is held at a constant 5°C.
C) varies between 5°C and 37°C, depending on the frequency of arousals from hibernation.
D) varies between 5°C and 15°C, depending on the external temperature outside of the burrow.
E) varies between -5°C and +5°C, depending on the temperature in the burrow.
Q2) Which of the following would increase the rate of heat exchange between an animal and its environment?
A) feathers or fur
B) vasoconstriction
C) wind blowing across the body surface
D) countercurrent heat exchanger
E) blubber or fat layer
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Constipation can result from the consumption of a substance that A) contains plenty of fiber.
B) promotes water reabsorption in the large intestine.
C) speeds up movement of material in the large intestine.
D) decreases water reabsorption in the small intestine.
E) stimulates peristalsis.
Q2) Analysis of jawbones from the skeletal remains of a vertebrate animal reveal its dietary patterns owing to
A) the position of muscle attachment sites.
B) the prevalence of specific kinds of teeth.
C) the size of the mouth opening.
D) the evidence of food molecules still present.
E) whether the mouth is the most anterior structure.
Q3) Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate vitamin?
A) blood clotting and vitamin C
B) normal vision and vitamin A
C) synthesis of cell membranes and vitamin D
D) protection of skin from cancer and vitamin E
E) production of white blood cells and vitamin K
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Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) After several weeks of exercise, a human athlete's resting heart rate is typically lower than before because
A) the body needs less oxygen than before.
B) the body temperature has increased.
C) the stroke volume has increased.
D) the cardiac output has decreased.
E) the body produces less carbon dioxide than before.
Q2) The sun shining on a tidal pool during a hot day heats the water. As some water evaporates, the pool becomes saltier, causing
A) a decrease in its carbon dioxide content.
B) a decrease in its oxygen content.
C) an increase in its ability to sustain aerobic organisms.
D) a decrease in the water's density.
E) a decrease in the movement of the water molecules.
Q3) Small swollen areas in the neck, groin, and axillary region are associated with
A) increased activity of the immune system.
B) a broken limb.
C) blood sugar that is abnormally high.
D) dehydration.
E) sodium depletion.
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adaptive immunity depends on
A) traits common to groups of pathogens.
B) pathogen-specific recognition.
C) maternal provision of antibodies to offspring.
D) plants being exposed to new pathogens.
E) having exhausted all options for innate immunity responses.
Q2) An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because
A) MHC molecules of the donor may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue, but bacteria lack MHC molecules.
B) the tissue graft, unlike the bacterium, is isolated from the circulation and will not enter into an immune response.
C) a response to the graft will involve B cells and a response to the bacterium will not.
D) a bacterium cannot escape the immune system by replicating inside normal body cells.
E) the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient.
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low selectivity of solute movement is a characteristic of A) salt pumping to control osmolarity.
B) H pumping to control pH.
C) reabsorption mechanisms along the proximal tubule.
D) filtration from the glomerular capillaries.
E) secretion along the distal tubule.
Q2) The osmoregulatory/excretory system of an earthworm is based on the operation of A) protonephridia.
B) metanephridia.
C) Malpighian tubules.
D) nephrons.
E) ananephredia.
Q3) Which of the following animals generally has the lowest volume of urine production?
A) a vampire bat
B) a salmon in fresh water
C) a marine bony fish
D) a freshwater bony fish
E) a shark inhabiting freshwater Lake Nicaragua
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) DES is called an "endocrine disrupting chemical" because it structurally resembles, and interferes with, the endocrine secretions of the
A) pancreatic islet cells.
B) thyroid gland.
C) adrenal medulla.
D) ovaries.
E) hypothalamus.
Q2) In a positive-feedback system where hormone A alters the amount of protein X
A) an increase in A always produces an increase in X.
B) an increase in X always produces a decrease in A.
C) a decrease in A always produces an increase in X.
D) a decrease in X always causes a decrease in A.
E) it is impossible to predict how A and X affect each other.
Q3) Prostaglandins are local regulators whose chemical structure is derived from A) oligosaccharides.
B) fatty acids.
C) steroids.
D) amino acids.
E) nitric oxide.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that
A) they both have the same number of chromosomes.
B) they are approximately the same size.
C) they each have a flagellum that provides motility.
D) they are produced from puberty until death.
E) they are formed before birth.
Q2) A male's "primary" sex characteristics include
A) deepening of the voice at puberty.
B) embryonic differentiation of the seminal vesicles.
C) growth of skeletal muscle.
D) elongation of the skeleton prior to puberty.
E) onset of growth of facial hair at puberty.
Q3) The use of birth control pills (oral contraceptives)
A) reduces the incidence of ovulation.
B) prevents fertilization by keeping the sperm and egg physically separated by a mechanical barrier.
C) prevents implantation of an embryo.
D) prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra.
E) prevents oocytes from entering the uterus.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure of the Drosophila gene called Tinman is similar to a gene in humans that also
A) promotes ear development.
B) specifies the location of the heart.
C) determines structures in the eyes.
D) specifies limb elongation points.
E) filters lymphatic fluid.
Q2) As an embryo develops, new cells are produced as the result of A) differentiation.
B) preformation.
C) cell division.
D) morphogenesis.
E) epigenesis.
Q3) In placental mammals, the yolk sac
A) transfers nutrients from the yolk to the embryo.
B) differentiates into the placenta.
C) becomes a fluid-filled sac that surrounds and protects the embryo.
D) produces blood cells that then migrate into the embryo.
E) stores waste products from the embryo until the placenta develops.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary neurotransmitter from the parasympathetic system that influences its autonomic targets is
A) acetylcholine.
B) adenosine.
C) norepinephrine.
D) adrenaline.
E) dopamine.
Q2) The primary means by which a neuron can communicate to a second neuron is by
A) the frequency of its action potentials.
B) the peak of the depolarization phase of an action potential.
C) the peak of the undershoot/hyperpolarization of an action potential.
D) varying how much neurotransmitter it releases for a given action potential.
E) remaining in the depolarization phase of the action potential for an extended interval.
Q3) An amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the brain is A) acetylcholine.
B) epinephrine.
C) endorphin.
D) nitric oxide.
E) GABA.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Central coordination of vertebrate biological rhythms in physiology and behavior reside in the
A) pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebrum.
D) cerebellum.
E) thalamus.
Q2) Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the ________ nervous system.
A) sympathetic
B) somatic
C) central
D) visceral
E) parasympathetic
Q3) The central nervous system is lacking in animals that have A) a complete gut.
B) bilateral symmetry.
C) radial symmetry.
D) a closed circulatory system.
E) excitable membranes.
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) The calcium ions released into the cytosol during excitation of skeletal muscle bind to
A) troponin.
B) tropomyosin.
C) actin.
D) myosin.
E) transverse tubules.
Q2) Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's menthol-sensitive neurons would likely produce the sensation of
A) cold temperature.
B) hot temperature.
C) tactile stimulus.
D) odor of pepper.
E) deep pressure.
Q3) Which sensory distinction is not encoded by a difference in neuron identity?
A) white and red
B) red and green
C) loud and faint
D) salty and sweet
E) spicy and cool
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Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
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Questions
Q1) Some dogs love attention, and Frodo the beagle learns that if he barks, he gets attention. Which of the following might you use to describe this behavior?
A) The dog is displaying an instinctive fixed action pattern.
B) The dog is performing a social behavior.
C) The dog is trying to protect its territory.
D) The dog has been classically conditioned.
E) The dog's behavior is a result of operant conditioning.
Q2) Every morning at the same time, John went into the den to feed his new tropical fish. After a few weeks, he noticed that the fish swam to the top of the tank when he entered the room. This is an example of
A) cognition.
B) imprinting.
C) classical conditioning.
D) operant conditioning.
E) maturation.
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) What would be the effect on climate in the temperature latitudes if Earth were to slow its rate of rotation from a 24-hour period of rotation to a 48-hour period of rotation?
A) Seasons would be longer and more distinct (colder winters and warmer summers).
B) There would be a smaller range between daytime high and nighttime low temperatures.
C) Large scale weather events such as tornadoes and hurricanes would no longer be a part of regional climates.
D) Winter seasons in both the northern and southern hemispheres would have more abundant and frequent precipitation events.
E) The climate would stay the same. The only change would be longer days and nights.
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes?
A) annual average rainfall in excess of 250 cm
B) a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns
C) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes
D) vegetation demonstrating vertical layering
E) cold winter months
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the density of the population being studied?
A) counting the number of prairie dog burrows per hectare
B) counting the number of times a 1 kilometer transect is intersected by tracks of red squirrels after a snowfall
C) counting the number of coyote droppings per hectare
D) multiplying the number of moss plants counted in 10 quadrats of 1m² each by 100 to determine the density per kilometer².
E) counting the number of zebras from airplane census observations.
Q2) Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, which population(s)is (are)likely to experience zero population growth (ZPG)?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) I and II
E) II and III
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?
A) stripes of a skunk
B) eye color in humans
C) green color of a plant
D) colors of an insect-pollinated flower
E) a katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf
Q2) Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?
A) an insect that resembles a twig
B) a butterfly that resembles a leaf
C) a nonvenomous snake that looks like a venomous snake
D) a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment
E) a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish
Q3) Based on the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, a community's species diversity is increased by
A) frequent massive disturbance.
B) stable conditions with no disturbance.
C) moderate levels of disturbance.
D) human intervention to eliminate disturbance.
E) intensive disturbance by humans.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following statements is correct about biogeochemical cycling?
A) The phosphorus cycle involves the recycling of atmospheric phosphorus.
B) The phosphorus cycle involves the weathering of rocks.
C) The carbon cycle is a localized cycle that primarily involves the burning of fossil fuels.
D) The carbon cycle has maintained a constant atmospheric concentration of CO for the past million years.
E) The nitrogen cycle involves movement of diatomic nitrogen between the biotic and abiotic components of the ecosystem.
Q2) Why does a vegetarian leave a smaller ecological footprint than an omnivore?
A) Fewer animals are slaughtered for human consumption.
B) There is an excess of plant biomass in all terrestrial ecosystems.
C) Vegetarians need to ingest less chemical energy than omnivores.
D) Vegetarians require less protein than do omnivores.
E) Eating meat is an inefficient way of acquiring photosynthetic productivity.
Q3) The major role of detrivores in ecosystems is to
A) provide a nutritional resource for heterotrophs.
B) recycle chemical nutrients to a form capable of being used by autotrophs.
C) prevent the buildup of the organic remains of organisms, feces, and so on.
D) return energy lost to the ecosystem by other organisms.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) We should care about loss in biodiversity in the populations of other species because of
A) biophilia.
B) potential loss of medicines and other products yet undiscovered from threatened species.
C) potential loss of genes, some of which may code for proteins useful to humans.
D) the risk to global ecological stability.
E) All of the options are correct.
Q2) Which of the following terms includes all of the others?
A) species diversity
B) biodiversity
C) genetic diversity
D) ecosystem diversity
E) species richness
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