Introduction to Biology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides an overview of the fundamental concepts that form the foundation of the biological sciences. The course covers topics such as the chemical basis of life, cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, and ecology. Students will explore how living organisms interact with their environment and each other, as well as the processes that sustain life at the molecular, cellular, and ecosystem levels. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and interactive discussions, students will develop critical thinking skills and gain a broad understanding of the principles that govern living systems. This course is designed for students pursuing further studies in biology or related fields, as well as those seeking a general appreciation of the science of life.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between experimental replicates and experimental controls?
A)Replicates are "repeat" samples under a given condition.
B)Replicates decrease sample size.
C)All replicates in an experiment are found under the control conditions.
D)All replicates differ from other replicates by a single factor.
Answer: A
Q2) Current understanding of the evolutionary relationships among organisms _____.
A)are always based only on molecular data
B)may change,as more species are discovered and studied
C)represent a complete and unchanging data set
D)tell us nothing about the history of life on Earth
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements about cells is true? A cell is _____.
A)only found in multiples of two,because single cells cannot exist independently
B)always between 200 and 500 micrometers in diameter
C)characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms
D)characteristic of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is the best description of an atom's physical structure?
A)An atom is a solid mass of material.
B)The particles that form an atom are equidistant from each other.
C)Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated at the center of the bubble.
D)Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated on the outside surface of the bubble.
Answer: C
Q2) Why is carbon so important in biology?
A)It is a common element on Earth.
B)It has very little electronegativity,making it a good electron donor.
C)It bonds to only a few other elements.
D)It forms up to four covalent bonds.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following tends to make chemical reactions spontaneous?
A)The reactants have lower potential energy than the products.
B)The reactants are more ordered than the products.
C)The temperature is low.
D)The pressure is low.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Figure 3.1.Which level of structure is being maintained by the disulfide bond?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following observations is the strongest argument in favor of the hypothesis that protein structure and function are correlated?
A)Proteins function best at certain temperatures.
B)Proteins have four distinct levels of structure and many functions.
C)Enzymes tend to be globular in shape.
D)Denatured (unfolded)proteins do not function normally.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following would be an example of a cofactor?
A)an enzyme active site that contains an -helix
B)the nonprotein heme group in a hemoglobin molecule
C)the disulfide bridge that forms between cysteine residues
D)a -pleated sheet hidden on the inside of a protein's tertiary structure
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) Which of these scientists was not directly involved in the discovery of DNA's structure?
A)James Watson
B)Rosalind Franklin
C)Sidney Altman
D)Francis Crick
E)Maurice Wilkins
Q2) What is the difference between a ribonucleotide and a deoxyribonucleotide?
A)Ribonucleotides contain a phosphate group.
B)Ribonucleotides have a hydroxyl group on the 2 carbon of their sugar subunit.
C)Ribonucleotides contain a sugar with five carbon atoms.
D)Ribonucleotides have a hydrogen atom on the 1 carbon of their sugar subunit.
Q3) Why is it that RNA can catalyze reactions but DNA cannot?
A)The sugar of RNA is much more reactive than the sugar of DNA.
B)The bases of RNA are much more reactive than the bases of DNA.
C)The phosphate groups of RNA are much more reactive than the phosphate groups of DNA.
D)The primary structure of RNA is fundamentally different than the primary structure of DNA.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) Scientists believe polysaccharides played little role,if any,in chemical evolution.Which of the following is true of polysaccharides,which leads scientists to discount them as the first life-forms?
A)They catalyze chemical reactions.
B)There is complementary pairing between monosaccharides,so they can provide the information for copying themselves.
C)Glycosidic linkages form spontaneously between monosaccharides.
D)None of A,B,or C is true-they are all false.
Q2) Refer to the paragraph about Kawakubo's group.Kawakubo's group created a glycoprotein with a terminal NAG (i.e. ,a protein with NAG attached to its end).Their hypothesis is that the terminal NAG and not the protein component is responsible for the damage to the cell wall in H.pylori.What would be the most appropriate control for testing this hypothesis?
A)Grow H.pylori in a test tube (in vitro)with no glycoprotein.
B)Destroy the H.pylori by exposing them to a hypotonic solution.Then add the glycoprotein and observe.
C)Expose other species of bacteria to the glycoprotein.
D)Grow H.pylori in a test tube with glycoprotein that has its terminal NAG removed.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) Which of the following means of transport would most likely be used for moving a medium-sized molecule (like a monosaccharide or an amino acid)from a low concentration on the outside of a cell to a high concentration on the inside of a cell?
A)facilitated diffusion through an ion channel protein
B)facilitated diffusion through a transporter protein
C)active transport through a "pump" protein
D)passive transport
Q2) What is the most important factor in explaining why osmosis occurs spontaneously?
A)It leads to an increase in entropy.
B)It leads to a decrease in entropy.
C)The process is exothermic.
D)The process is endothermic.
Q3) Where would you most likely find an integral membrane protein?
A)on the inside surface of the cell membrane
B)on the outside surface of the cell membrane
C)floating freely in the cytoplasm
D)spanning the cell membrane,with parts of the protein visible from both the inside and the outside of the cell
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8
Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following statements would be true about lysosomes that lack mannose-6-phosphate receptors?
A)They receive "modified" enzymes,so are unable to break down carbohydrates.
B)They do not receive enzyme shipments from the Golgi apparatus.
C)They have unstable membranes.
D)They stick to transport vesicles and impede the transfer of enzymes.
Q2) To what does the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules,typical of cilia and eukaryotic flagella,refer?
A)the arrangement of dynein arms with respect to each microtubule
B)the arrangement of microtubules within the axoneme
C)the spoke-like arrangement of the cross sections of cilia or flagella
D)the relationship between the basal body and the axoneme
Q3) Where are the proteins that will be exported (excreted)from the cell made?
A)in free ribosomes
B)in ribosomes that attach to the endoplasmic reticulum
C)in ribosomes that attach to the Golgi complex
D)in ribosomes that attach to the outer mitochondrial membrane
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9
Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) Intercalated discs are cell-cell junctions found between cardiac muscle cells.One feature of these intercalated discs is that they contain a large number of gap junctions,which means that _____.
A)an extension of smooth endoplasmic reticulum goes through the gap junction,making it continuous from one cardiac muscle cell to the next
B)water ions and small molecules can readily pass from one cardiac muscle cell to the next
C)cardiac cells can function independently when necessary
D)RNA from one cardiac muscle cell can be transported into an adjacent cell through the gap junction
Q2) Which of the following would you not find in a plant cell?
A)pectin
B)polysaccharides
C)collagen
D)lignin
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) The first CO that is released during aerobic cellular respiration is _____.
A)during glycolysis
B)between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
C)during the Krebs cycle
D)just after the Krebs cycle
Q2) Why are fermentation reactions important for cells?
A)They produce alcohol which enhances the permeability of their mitochondrial membranes to proton translocation.
B)They regenerate NAD so that glycolysis can continue to operate.
C)They allow the cell to conserve oxygen for the Krebs cycle.
D)They generate oxygen.
Q3) The electron transport chain _____.
A)is a series of redox reactions
B)is a series of substitution reactions
C)is driven by ATP consumption
D)takes place in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following procedures would identify the enzyme that catalyzes the carboxylation of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate?
A)irradiating a leaf extract with red light
B)introducing radiolabeled carbon dioxide into a plant extract and determining which molecules become radiolabeled
C)purifying a variety of proteins from plant extracts and testing each protein individually to see if it can carboxylate ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate
D)differential sedimentation of a protein extract
Q2) Chlorophylls absorb light in which colors of the visible range?
A)green and blue
B)blue and red
C)green and red
D)violet and red
Q3) The process of photosynthesis probably originated _____.
A)in plants
B)in prokaryotes
C)in fungi
D)three separate times during evolution
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) How is plant cell cytokinesis different from animal cell cytokinesis?
A)The cleavage furrow in animal cells is composed of protein contractile filaments;the contractile filaments found in plant cells are structures composed of carbohydrates.
B)Plant cells deposit vesicles containing cell-wall building blocks on the metaphase plate;animal cells form a cleavage furrow.
C)The structural carbohydrates of the plant cells separate the two cells,whereas in animal cells,a cell membrane separates the two daughter cells.
D)Animal cells have centrosomes that are involved in this process,but plant cells have microtubule-organizing centers that are not detectable during most of the cell cycle.
Q2) The first gap in the cell cycle (G )corresponds to _____.
A)normal growth and cell function
B)the phase in which DNA is being replicated
C)the beginning of mitosis
D)the phase between DNA replication and the M phase
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I?
A)Sister chromatids separate in mitosis,and homologues separate in meiosis I.
B)DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis,but not before meiosis I.
C)Sister chromatids separate in mitosis,and homologues separate in meiosis II.
D)Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information.
Q2) During which phase of meiosis would the cell first become haploid because homologous chromosomes
Separate?
A)anaphase I
B)metaphase I
C)anaphase II
D)telophase II
Q3) Which of the following is an example of monosomy?
A)Turner's syndrome
B)Klinefelter's syndrome
C)Down's syndrome
D)trisomy X
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14
Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) In birds,sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme that is much like the typical XY scheme seen in humans and many other organisms,except that the system is reversed:
Males are ZZ (similar to XX in humans)and females are ZW (similar to XY in humans).A lethal recessive allele that causes death of the embryo occurs on the Z chromosome in pigeons.What would be the sex ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female?
A)1:1 male to female
B)4:1 male to female
C)3:1 male to female
D)1:2 male to female
E)2:1 male to female
Q2) Assuming independent assortment for all gene pairs,what is the probability that the following parents,AABbCc × AaBbCc,will produce an AaBbCc offspring?
A)1/2
B)1/16
C)1/8
D)3/4
E)9/16
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) In humans,xeroderma pigmentosum is a disorder of the nucleotide excision repair mechanism.These individuals are unable to repair DNA damage caused by ultraviolet light.Which of the following are the most prominent types of mutations in individuals suffering from xeroderma pigmentosum?
A)mismatch errors
B)telomere shortening
C)methylation of purines
D)pyrimidine dimers
Q2) Bodnar et al (1998)used telomerase to extend the life span of normal human cells.Telomere shortening puts a limit on the number of times a cell can divide.How might adding telomerase affect cellular aging?
A)Telomerase will speed up the rate of cell proliferation.
B)Telomerase ensures that the ends of the chromosomes are accurately replicated and eliminates telomere shortening.
C)Telomerase shortens telomeres and thus delays cellular aging.
D)Telomerase would have no effect on cellular aging.
Q3) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which structure is responsible for stabilizing DNA in its single-stranded form?
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) Which of the following molecules must move across the membrane after being synthesized from a DNA sequence and is then translated by a ribosome?
A)mRNA
B)DNA
C)rRNA
D)tRNA
Q2) Knockout mice have been genetically altered to knock out specific genes.How are these mice most often used in research?
A)to study DNA replication in the defective genes (those that have been altered)
B)to determine the role of proteins coded for by those genes that are knocked out
C)to examine defects in DNA structure in those regions that have been altered
D)to study the effect of radiation on DNA
Q3) Which of the following findings violated the central dogma?
A)the discovery of RNA viruses that synthesize DNA using reverse transcriptase
B)the discovery that the Archaea and Bacteria are more distantly related than are Archaea and Eukarya
C)the discovery of ribozymes
D)the discovery of DNA as the unit of genetic inheritance
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Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the steps in initiation of translation?
A)binding of the large ribosomal subunit to the small ribosomal subunit
B)binding of tRNA carrying formyl methionine to the start codon and small ribosomal subunit
C)recognition and binding of mRNA by the small ribosomal subunit
D)formation of a polypeptide bond
Q2) Which molecule or reaction supplies the energy for polymerization of nucleotides in the process of transcription?
A)the interaction between RNA polymerase and the promoter
B)the phosphate bonds in the nucleotide triphosphates that serve as substrates
C)the energy released when hydrogen bonds are broken as the DNA molecule is unwound
D)ATP only
Q3) Which of the following is part of a DNA molecule?
A)sigma
B)the holoenzyme
C)initiation factors
D)promoters
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) According to the lac operon model proposed by Jacob and Monod,what is predicted to occur if the operator is removed from the operon?
A)The lac operon would be transcribed constitutively.
B)Only lacZ would be transcribed.
C)Only lacY would be transcribed.
D)Galactosidase permease would be produced,but would be incapable of transporting lactose.
Q2) Imagine that you've set up a genetic screen to identify E.coli mutants that cannot metabolize the amino acid tryptophan.Beginning with a master plate containing many colonies,you prepare replica plates on medium with glucose or tryptophan as the only energy source.You would look for colonies that _____.
A)cannot grow on either type of media
B)can grow on both types of media
C)can grow only on the plates with tryptophan
D)can grow only on the plates with glucose
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19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Twenty-five years ago,when Oshima and colleagues discovered that a mutation in the GAL4 gene led to the inability to synthesize all five enzymes required for galactose catabolism (breakdown),they couldn't be blamed for wanting to apply a bacterial model to explain this finding.What they expected,but did not find,was _____.
A)for all five genes to constitute an operon
B)five widely separated genes,each containing a GAL4 binding site in its regulatory region
C)for chromatin decondensation to play an important role in regulating the genes of galactose catabolism
D)for transcription to be important in regulating the genes of galactose catabolism
Q2) Not long ago,it was believed that a count of the number of protein-coding genes would provide a count of the number of proteins produced in any given eukaryotic species.This is incorrect,largely due to the discovery of widespread _____.
A)chromatin condensation control
B)transcriptional control
C)alternative splicing
D)translational control
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) Which of the following is a correct difference between a gene library and a gene clone?
A)A gene library contains many different cloned DNA sequences;a gene clone contains one type of DNA sequence.
B)A gene library contains one type of cloned DNA sequence;a gene clone contains many different DNA sequences.
C)A gene library is a much longer DNA sequence than a gene clone.
D)A gene library is a much shorter DNA sequence than a gene clone.
E)A gene library is sequence information stored in a computerized database;a gene clone is an actual sequence of DNA.
Q2) One predicted aspect of climate change is that climates,including precipitation and temperature,over most of the Earth will become more variable.Which of the following is a good crop genetic engineering strategy if this is true?
A)only plant crops that are genetically engineered
B)genetically engineer most crops to withstand very long droughts
C)genetically engineer several genotypes within single crop types
D)genetically engineer the fastest growing crops possible
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Chapter 20: Genomics
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Questions
Q1) Refer to the paragraph on the Venter et al.paper.Why was it necessary to modify the standard sequence assembly algorithms when analyzing DNAs from many different pooled species?
A)Sequencing techniques had improved sufficiently that obtaining accurate repetitive sequences was no longer a technical challenge.
B)Sequence-read lengths of repetitive DNA had increased sufficiently by the time of the Venter et al.work that they were almost as long as the sequences from nonrepetitive DNA were.
C)DNAs from abundant organisms would occur frequently in the sample,making them look like repetitive DNAs.
D)DNAs from the largest organisms would occur infrequently in the sample,making them look like repetitive DNAs.
Q2) Refer to the paragraph on the Venter et al.paper.Why would any sequence assembly program be written so as to ignore repeated sequences?
A)These sequences are too unreliable to consider.
B)These sequences are too hard to obtain to justify the effort.
C)These sequences are too short to be useful for assembly.
D)These sequences are difficult to place within an assembly.
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) The predominant mechanism driving cellular differentiation is the difference in gene
A)expression
B)sequences
C)order
D)replication
Q2) Communication within and between cells of an embryo can include all of the following except _____.
A)increased concentration of signaling molecules
B)changes in binding to regulatory sequences
C)changes in gene transcription
D)changes in gene sequences
Q3) When is a cell considered differentiated?
A)when a cell first becomes irreversibly committed to a particular fate
B)when a cell begins its pattern formation
C)when a cell manufactures proteins that are specific to a particular cell type
D)when a cell is part of recognizable tissues or organs
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23
Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) Gastrulation is an important event in early embryonic development.Which of the following is Not a result of this process?
A)formation of three embryonic cell layers
B)movement and alignment of many embryonic cells
C)determination of cell types as a result of cell-cell interactions
D)formation of specialized plant tissues
Q2) During gastrulation in amphibians,the presumptive mesoderm moves into the interior of the embryo by following fibrils of fibronectin.Given what you know about gastrulation,you predict that the fibronectin is most likely secreted by which cells?
A)endodermal cells on the exterior of the embryo
B)mesodermal cells that develop on the inside of the blastocyst
C)ectodermal cells that line the inside of the blastocoel
D)endodermal cells that migrate to the inside of the blastocoel
Q3) What happens during gastrulation?
A)The neural tube forms.
B)The blastula forms.
C)The somites form.
D)The three embryonic tissue germ layers form.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) The monopterous gene in Arabidopsis encodes a protein that is similar in its function to which animal protein?
A)MyoD in frog embryos
B)Bicoid in fruit-fly embryos
C)keratin in human embryos
Q2) The auxin produced in Arabidopsis embryos and Bicoid protein produced in Drosophila embryos have what similar function?
A)Both are regulatory transcription factors that serve as cell-to-cell signals.
B)Both are cytoplasmic determinants they are loaded into eggs by cells in the mother or by female reproductive tissues.
C)Both trigger the transcription of homeotic loci genes that specify the types of structures produced at a certain position.
D)Both establish a concentration gradient that demarcates the anterior-posterior axis.
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Fossils of Thrinaxodon,a species that lived during the Triassic period,have been found in both South Africa and Antarctica.Thrinaxodon had a reptile-like skeleton and laid eggs,but small depressions on the front of its skull suggest it had whiskers and,therefore,fur.Thrinaxodon may have been warm-blooded.Thrinaxodon shows
A)that fossils found in a given area look like the modern species in that same area
B)that species must adapt to their environment
C)that mammals likely evolved from a reptilian ancestor
D)that Antarctica and South Africa separated after Thrinaxodon went extinct
E)that organisms have stable traits over time
Q2) If two organisms show a developmental homology,you would also definitely expect them to _____.
A)share structural homologies
B)share genetic homologies
C)share genetic and structural homologies
D)be evolutionarily closely related
E)be evolutionarily distantly related
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Refer to the paragraph on dark-eyed junco birds.The UCSD campus male junco population tails were,on average,36% white,whereas the tails of males from nearby mountain populations averaged 40-45% white.If this observed trait difference were due to a difference in the original colonizing population,it would most likely be due to _____.
A)mutations in the UCSD population
B)sexual selection
C)gene flow between populations
D)a genetic bottleneck
E)a founder effect
Q2) Refer to Figure 25.4.Male reproductive success,measured as the number of offspring surviving to adulthood (pupating),is found for two closely related beetle species and graphed above.Which of these statements would you expect to be true of sexual dimorphism in the two species?
A)Species A should have greater sexual dimorphism than species B.
B)Species B should have greater sexual dimorphism than species A.
C)Species A and B should have about equal amounts of sexual dimorphism.
D)Neither species should show any sexual dimorphism.
Q3) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Refer to Figure 26.1.Which of the following forms a monophyletic group?
A)A,B,C,D
B)C and D
C)D,E,and F
D)E,F,and G
E)all of the above
Q2) Refer to the paragraph about the formation of the Isthmus of Panama.The sister populations on opposite sides of the isthmus are true species under which species concept?
A)the morphospecies concept
B)the biological species concept
C)the phylogenetic species concept
D)both the morphospecies and phylogenetic species concepts
E)the morphospecies,biological species,and phylogenetic species concepts
Q3) The two populations are _____.
A)different subspecies,under the morphospecies concept
B)different species,under the biological species concept
C)different species,under the phylogenetic species concept
D)all of the above
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) How do mass extinctions differ from background extinctions?
A)Mass extinctions account for most species that have gone extinct in the history of life on Earth.
B)It is now recognized that mass extinctions but not background extinctions are generally caused by asteroid impacts.
C)During mass extinctions a large proportion of organisms that were alive at that time die out.
D)Background extinctions don't lead to great numbers of species lost.
Q2) The Permian period ends with a massive extinction event and then rapid speciation occurs as new animal and plant forms come into being.The most likely explanation for this is _____.
A)adaptive radiation.
B)ecological opportunity
C)lack of competition
D)morphological innovation
E)all but one of the above
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) To establish a link between a specific bacterium and a skin disease,researchers have shown that bacterium was present in sick persons but not in healthy individuals.They isolated the bacterium in a pure culture and demonstrated that experimental healthy animals injected with this culture became sick.What other experiment do researchers need to perform to be absolutely sure that the bacterium is responsible for the disease?
A)Demonstrate that the bacterium belongs to the pathogenic lineage.
B)Demonstrate that the bacterium is not able to live outside of humans or animals.
C)Isolate bacterium from an infected sick animal and demonstrate that it is the same bacterium as the one used for infection.
D)Demonstrate all of the above.
E)No experiments need to be done,because there are enough data to establish that skin disease is caused by the investigated bacterium.
Q2) What is the characteristic feature of the Chlamydiales phylum?
A)unusual flagella
B)formation of colonies
C)rod shape
D)parasitic life cycle
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imagine there are 25 different species of protists living in a tide pool.Some of these species reproduce both sexually and asexually,and some of them can reproduce only asexually.The pool gradually becomes infested with disease-causing viruses and bacteria.Which species are more likely to thrive in the changing environment?
A)the sexually reproducing species
B)the asexually reproducing species
C)Sexually and asexually reproducing species are equally likely to thrive.
D)cannot tell from this information - survival will depend on a variety of other factors
Q2) Which of the following protist lineages is appropriately paired with its supportive and/or protective structure?
A)Diatoms have an intricate,chalky,chambered calcium carbonate shell.
B)Parabasalids have an internal support rod,made of cross-linked microtubules,that runs the length of the cell.
C)Alveolates have tough plates in the cell wall that are made up of cellulose.
D)Euglenoids cover themselves with tiny pebbles.
E)Dinoflagellates are surrounded by a glass-like,silicone dioxide cell wall.
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31
Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Molecular phylogenies show all land plants are a monophyletic group.This suggests that _____.
A)there were many different transitions from aquatic to terrestrial habitats
B)wind-pollinated plants arose first
C)land plants have undergone a diversification since they first colonized terrestrial habitats
D)there was a single transition from aquatic to terrestrial habitats
Q2) Which of the following lines of evidence would most support your assertion that a particular plant is an angiosperm?
A)It produces seeds.
B)It retains its fertilized egg within its archaegonium.
C)It lacks gametangia.
D)It undergoes alternation of generations.
E)It produces gametes by mitosis rather than meiosis.
Q3) Which group of seedless vascular plants was the first to develop roots?
A)club mosses
B)horsetails
C)ferns
D)whisk ferns
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Which of these fungal features supports the phylogenetic conclusion that fungi are more closely related to animals than plants?
A)Fungi are able to change their body shape continuously throughout their life.
B)Zygomycetes have flagellated gametes.
C)Fungi store polysaccharides as starch.
D)The cell walls of fungi are made of chitin.
Q2) Predict what you would see if you were looking at a new species of Zygomycetes.
A)a zygote enclosed in a tough outer coat
B)flagellated spores
C)susceptibility to fungicide
D)multicellularity
E)its ability to form an association with plant roots
Q3) Long,branching fungal filaments are called _____.
A)roots
B)ascus
C)septa
D)mycelia
E)hyphae
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33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) Most fish deposit fertilized eggs,but some sharks keep the fertilized egg inside the female until she gives birth to a relatively well-developed pup.These sharks would thus be characterized as _____.
A)live-bearing
B)ovoviviparous
C)oviparous
D)viviparous
Q2) The digestive system of most animals is lined with cells through which nutrients are absorbed.What is the embryonic origin of these cells?
A)endoderm
B)ectoderm
C)mesoderm
Q3) What do biologists cite as the primary benefit of the evolution of a coelom in animals?
A)the hydrostatic skeleton,allowing greater range of motion
B)a more efficient digestive system,in the form of a tube-within-a-tube
C)cephalization and the formation of a cerebral ganglion
D)the subsequent evolution of segmentation
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Which of the following attributes is true for both arthropod exoskeletons and mollusk shells?
A)They completely replace the hydrostatic skeleton.
B)They are secreted by the mantle.
C)They help retain moisture in terrestrial habitats.
D)They are comprised of the polysaccharide chitin.
Q2) You find a multi-legged animal in your garden and want to determine if it is a centipede or a millipede.You take the animal to a university where a myriapodologist quickly tells you that you've found a centipede.Which of the following may have allowed her to make this distinction?
A)segmentation
B)poison-filled glands
C)the total number of legs
D)egg-laying
E)molting
Q3) On which body segment are arthropod wings attached?
A)head
B)abdomen
C)thorax
D)evenly split between the abdomen and thorax
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Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) What is the best evidence currently available that tetrapod limbs evolved from fish fins?
A)These structures are located in similar places on these animals.
B)Molecular genetic evidence reveals regulatory enzymes that are homologous in fish and tetrapods.
C)There are enough transitional species available to make the link obvious.
D)Fish and tetrapods have many similarities including reproductive and feeding tactics that support the link.
Q2) What would be the result(s)if a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked?
A)The organism would have trouble respiring.
B)The organism would have trouble feeding.
C)The organism would have trouble moving.
D)The organism would have trouble respiring and feeding.
E)The organism would have trouble feeding and moving.
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36
Chapter 35: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are a physician,and you suspect your patient has a viral infection that has never been seen in humans.The infection is localized in the cells along the lining of the small intestine.The cells in this area are regularly sloughed off and replaced with new cells;that is,these cells are constantly dividing.When you isolate this new virus and incubate it in culture,you discover that it does not replicate well in cultures that have slowly dividing cells,but it does much more damage in cultures that have actively dividing cells.What do these findings suggest about this new virus?
A)It is a double-stranded RNA virus.
B)It is a negative-sense,single-stranded RNA virus.
C)It is a double-stranded DNA virus.
D)It is a single-stranded DNA virus.
Q2) A virus that has a single strand of RNA which it transcribes into complementary DNA is a _____.
A)reverse transcriptase
B)protease
C)retrovirus
D)RNA replicase virus
E)nonenveloped virus
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are the youngest wood and the youngest bark in a tree trunk?
A)Youngest wood is in the center of a tree;youngest bark is the outside of the bark.
B)Youngest wood is in the center of a tree;youngest bark is the inner part,next to the vascular cambium.
C)Youngest wood is toward the outside,near the vascular cambium;youngest bark is the outside of the bark.
D)Youngest wood is toward the outside,near the vascular cambium;youngest bark is the inner part,next to the vascular cambium.
Q2) You find a plant unfamiliar to you and observe that it has vascular bundles scattered throughout the stem cross section.What do you conclude about the plant?
A)It is probably an herbaceous eudicot.
B)It will probably get annual rings of wood.
C)It is probably a monocot.
D)It could be either a young eudicot or a monocot.
Q3) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) If you cut a stalk (petiole)of celery and place it in a beaker of water that has food coloring dissolved in it,colored water will move up the stalk and into the leaf blades.This provides evidence against which of the following theories of xylem transport?
A)pressure flow
B)root pressure
C)capillarity
D)proton pump
E)cohesion-tension
Q2) Formation of menisci,such as occur in a tube filled with water,is an important factor in plant water movement.A meniscus is created by _____.
A)the downward pull of gravity on the water column in the tube
B)downward pressure from the atmosphere on the topmost layer of water molecules
C)the water molecules along the walls of the tube being pulled upward by adhesion
D)the topmost layer of water molecules being pulled downward by the hydrogen bonds to the water molecules below
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which elements are responsible for the greater part of plant wet weight?
A)carbon,nitrogen,oxygen
B)carbon,nitrogen,phosphorus
C)carbon,oxygen,hydrogen
D)carbon,hydrogen,potassium
E)carbon,nitrogen,potassium
Q2) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
Q3) What major benefits do plants and mycorrhizal fungi receive from their symbiotic relationship?
A)Plants receive enzymes and fungi receive nitrogen and phosphorus.
B)Plants receive increased root surface area,and fungi receive digestive enzymes.
C)Plants receive photosynthetic products in exchange for living in root nodules.
D)Plants receive nitrogen and phosphorus,and fungi receive photosynthetic products.
Q4) What kind of climate is most often associated with epiphytic plants?
A)warm
B)humid
C)sunny
D)all of the above
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antisense gene sequences can be used to block the transcription of specific genes in a cell or group of cells.Suppose you took a cutting from a plant and treated it with an antisense gene that would block the transcription of an enzyme involved in auxin production.What would happen to your cutting?
A)Photosynthesis would decrease.
B)It would grow to be very tall and thin.
C)Adventitious root growth would be greatly reduced.
D)It would not be able to initiate a hypersensitive response.
E)All of the above answers apply.
Q2) Refer to Table 39.1.Plant B is a short-day flower.Why did it fail to flower?
A)It sensed a nine-hour night.
B)It sensed a nine-hour day.
C)Flowering was inhibited by the excess of far-red light.
D)There was not enough blue-light exposure to trigger flowering.
Q3) Refer to Table 39.1.How would Plant A be classified? Assume all plants are able to produce flowers.
A)long day
B)short day
C)day-neutral
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an ovary contains 50 ovules,what is the minimum number of pollen grains that must land in order to form 50 mature seeds?
A)25
B)50
C)100
D)It is impossible to tell.
Q2) Refer to the paragraph on whitebark pine seed dispersal by Clark's nutcracker.To conclude that the Clark's nutcracker is a mutualistic seed disperser,not just a predator,you would need to determine that _____.
A)if the birds are not present,whitebark pine cannot spread
B)the birds eat all the seeds they cache
C)seeds in the caches can germinate to produce seedlings
D)bears and squirrels do not eat any of the seeds
Q3) The flowering hormone is made in _____ and alters development of _____.
A)flowers;leaves
B)flowers;root meristem
C)leaves;apical meristem
D)leaves;flowers
E)roots;flowers
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the mammalian brain compares the actual temperature of the body to the preferred temperature of the body,which general component is being used?
A)sensor
B)effector
C)integrator
D)stimulating sweat glands to increase evaporation
E)both constriction of skin blood vessels to decrease heat loss and stimulation of sweat glands to increase evaporation
Q2) If an organism was discovered that had no epithelial tissues,it would require adaptations to maintain homeostasis in which of the following areas?
A)The organism would require adaptations in its skeleton for structure.
B)The organism would require adaptation in its circulatory system for transport of blood.
C)The organism would require adaptations in its nervous system for sensing external stimuli.
D)The organism would require adaptations that would prevent water loss from the body in a terrestrial environment.
E)The organism would required adaptations in its muscular system for movement.
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Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) What is the function of the shark rectal gland?
A)It is involved in osmoregulation.
B)It is responsible for excretion of undigested residue.
C)It secretes a hypotonic solution.
D)It concentrates electrolytes necessary for homeostasis in a hypertonic environment.
Q2) Freshwater fish reside in hypotonic environments.They do not drink water,and they excrete large volumes of hypotonic urine in an effort to osmoregulate.How do they obtain an adequate supply of electrolytes?
A)The rectal gland is specialized to produce the dilute (hypotonic)urine and conserve ions.
B)Chloride cells transport additional electrolytes into the circulation of these organisms.
C)Gill lamellae take up additional electrolytes from freshwater.
D)There is an increase in Na /K -ATPase activity across the basolateral membrane.
Q3) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) You are most likely to observe coprophagy in which of the following animals?
A)carnivores
B)herbivores
C)fluid feeders
D)suspension feeders
Q2) Three groups of cyclists consumed three different types of diets:
High-carbohydrate,a diet mixed in carbohydrates,fat,and protein,or a diet higher in protein and fat.The average time each group could spend cycling over a 6-hour period is shown in the above graph.
How could an athlete or trainer use the data to improve performance?
A)Endurance is entirely related to diet.
B)Maintaining elevated blood sugar improves performance.
C)An early and dramatic drop in blood glucose is associated with improved endurance.
D)Diet is not at all related to endurance.
Q3) The electron micrograms in Figure 43.2 are images of mouthparts of different animals.Which of the mouthparts are specialized for crushing and grinding?
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Which of the following mechanisms play(s)a role in regulating heart rate?
A)chemical messengers in the blood,such as epinephrine
B)nerves originating from the medulla (lower part of the brain)
C)pacemaker cells within the heart
D)chemical messengers in the blood,such as epinephrine;nerves originating from the medulla (lower part of the brain);and pacemaker cells within the heart
E)chemical messengers in the blood,such as epinephrine,and pacemaker cells within the heart
Q2) How has the avian lung adapted to the metabolic demands of flight?
A)Airflow through the avian lung is bidirectional.
B)There is more dead space within the avian lung so that oxygen can be stored for future use.
C)Countercurrent circulation is present in the avian lung.
D)Gas exchange occurs during both inhalation and exhalation.
Q3) Atria contract _____.
A)just prior to the beginning of diastole
B)during diastole
C)immediately after systole
D)during systole
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Why do Na ions enter the cell when voltage-gated Na channels are opened in neurons?
A)because the Na concentration is much higher outside the cell than it is inside
B)because the Na ions are attracted to the negatively charged interior
C)because the Na ions are actively transported by the sodium-potassium pump into the cell
D)because the Na concentration is much higher outside the cell than it is inside,and the Na ions are attracted to the negatively charged interior
E)because the Na concentration is much higher outside the cell than it is inside,and the Na ions are actively transported by the sodium-potassium pump into the cell
Q2) In multiple sclerosis the myelin sheaths around the axons of the brain and spinal cord are damaged and demyelination results.How does this disease manifest at the level of the action potential?
A)Action potentials move in the opposite direction on the axon.
B)Action potentials move more slowly along the axon.
C)Action potentials are entirely negated.
D)All of the above occurs in multiple sclerosis.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) When a neurobiologist is interested in determining if an animal can see in color what structures are they looking for in the eye?
A)opsins
B)electroreceptors
C)pupil
D)lens
Q2) Refer to the paragraph on the venom of marine core snails.What is the adaptive value of this toxin?
A)It would cause muscle spasms in the prey.
B)It would result in paralysis of the skeletal muscle of the prey.
C)It would stimulate digestive tract smooth muscle to cause nausea and vomiting of the prey.
D)Either it would result in paralysis of the skeletal muscle or it would stimulate digestive tract smooth muscle to cause nausea and vomiting;or it would result in both paralysis of the skeletal muscle and stimulation of the digestive tract smooth muscles to cause nausea and vomiting.
Q3) Acidic amino acids taste sour.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) What is the only type of chemical signal that is not intended to alter the physiology of the animal producing that signal?
A)neural
B)paracrine
C)neuroendocrine
D)pheromones
E)only neural and neuroendocrine signals
Q2) Which of these glands is located within the abdominal cavity?
A)thyroid
B)adrenal
C)parathyroid
D)pancreas
E)all of the above
Q3) Removing which of the following glands would have the most wide-reaching effect on bodily functions of an adult human?
A)adrenal glands
B)pituitary gland
C)thyroid gland
D)ovaries (in female)or testes (in male)
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Refer to the paragraph on the orangutan breeding program.Which of the following hormones would you use if you want to induce ovulation in a few days?
A)estradiol (estrogen)
B)progesterone
C)luteinizing hormone (LH)
D)human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Q2) What makes sexually reproduced offspring genetically different from their parents?
A)genetic recombination during meiosis
B)genetic recombination during mitosis
C)crossing over during mitosis
D)Sexual reproduction does not produce genetically different offspring.
Q3) In an animal that switches between sexual and asexual reproduction,when is sexual reproduction more likely to occur?
A)when conditions for survival are favorable
B)when conditions for survival are unfavorable
C)none of the above
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Lymphocytes are formed in what organ(s)?
A)spleen
B)thymus
C)bone marrow
D)spleen and bone marrow
E)thymus and bone marrow
Q2) How does the immune system of vertebrates utilize a chemical concentration gradient?
A)The immune system produces thousands of histamines that act solely to create a histamine diffusion barrier.
B)The immune system generates a gradient of reactive oxygen intermediates to increase the amount of toxic radicals and peroxides to combat invading pathogens.
C)The immune system releases chemical signals called chemokines,which create a chemical gradient that leukocytes use in migrating toward the infection site.
D)The vertebrate immune system does not use chemical gradients.
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Based on Figure 50.4,and knowing what you know about cattle,what is the most logical conclusion?
A)Cattle distribution is primarily affected by temperature.
B)Tsetse flies somehow negatively affect cattle.
C)Cattle distribution is primarily affected by grass distribution.
D)Cattle somehow affect the reproduction of the tsetse fly.
Q2) According to the latest hypotheses,why do evergreens predominate in cold environments?
A)Evergreens begin photosynthesizing in early spring,even before the snow melts. B)Evergreens do not shed their leaves and thus do not need as many soil nutrients. C)Evergreens photosynthesize all year round.
D)Evergreens begin photosynthesizing in early spring,even before the snow melts.Evergreens do not shed their leaves and thus do not need as many soil nutrients. E)Evergreens do not shed their leaves and thus do not need as many soil nutrients.Evergreens photosynthesize all year round.
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52
Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Why should a female barn swallow choose a male with long tail feathers?
A)The long tail feathers may indicate superior flying ability.
B)The male will be able to provide her with more food during courtship.
C)The female will be less likely to compete with the male for food because he will be foraging in different parts of their territory.
D)The male may be able to better protect her from predators.
E)The female's offspring might grow more rapidly and survive better.
Q2) A pied kingfisher in its first year of life helps in the feeding of three full siblings who would not have made it without the helper's efforts.What is its indirect fitness in its first year?
A)0)25
B)0)50
C)0)75
D)1)00
E)1)50
Q3) In Figure 51.2,do the data support the hypothesis that females need spring-like light conditions to produce mature follicles?
A)yes
B)no
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) In Figure 52.3,which of the lines represents the highest per-capita rate increase (r)?
A)line A
B)line B
C)line C
D)line D
Q2) In Figure 52.4,which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity?
A)arrow A
B)arrow B
C)arrow C
D)Carrying capacity cannot be found in the figure because species under density-dependent control never reach carrying capacity.
Q3) Looking at Figure 52.14,what is contributing significantly to stabilizing population size over time?
A)no migration
B)low migration
C)high migration
D)none of the above
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) What is the main difference between asymmetric competition and symmetric competition?
A)One species is outcompeted completely in asymmetric competition.
B)Competition is barely measurable in symmetric competition.
C)The fitness reduction is roughly equal between each species in symmetric competition.
D)None of the above answers applies.
Q2) What is the main difference between a disturbance and a disturbance regime?
A)A disturbance regime includes defining the predictable frequency and severity of the disturbance.
B)A disturbance regime includes defining the length of the disturbance.
C)A disturbance regime is a more specific type of disturbance.
D)They are essentially the same thing.
Q3) In Figure 53.10,what can be stated about species diversity and latitude?
A)As latitude increases,diversity decreases.
B)As latitude decreases,diversity decreases.
C)Species diversity is independent of latitude.
D)Species diversity and latitude cannot be compared using this figure.
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of the following statements about secondary production is true?
A)Endotherms have higher metabolic rates compared to ectotherms and therefore have higher secondary production.
B)Ectotherms have higher metabolic rates compared to endotherms and therefore have higher secondary production.
C)Endotherms use less internal energy for metabolism and therefore have higher rates of secondary production.
D)Ectotherms use less internal energy for metabolism and therefore have higher rates of secondary production.
Q2) Upon looking at Figure 54.10,what can be concluded?
A)Residents in colder climates use more energy per person.
B)Residents of industrialized countries use more energy per person.
C)Residents of more populated countries use more energy per person.
D)English-speaking countries tend to use more energy per person.
Q3) Figure 54.3 represents net primary productivity in what way?
A)organized by biome
B)organized by geography
C)organized by region
D)randomly organized
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28455
Sample Questions
Q1) The main factor that leads to the loss of biodiversity is _____.
A)habitat fragmentation
B)habitat destruction
C)industrialization
D)transportation
Q2) According to Figure 55.5,what is the least likely explanation for the data after 1985?
A)emigration
B)immigration
C)introduction of new individuals to the population
D)increased resources in the area
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding species diversity is false?
A)More than 99 percent of the species known to science are now extinct.
B)As much as 20 percent of the world's biodiversity will be lost during the next 50 years.
C)Through agriculture,humans have actually increased the number of plant species.
D)About 85 mammal species and 113 species of birds have become extinct in the last 400 years.
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