Introduction to Biology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles that govern living organisms. The course explores key topics such as the structure and function of cells, genetics and inheritance, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life forms. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, critical thinking, and the relationship between biology and everyday life. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students will gain a solid foundation for further study in the biological sciences and an enhanced understanding of the natural world.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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28 Chapters
3839 Verified Questions
3839 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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101 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A set of people got regular potato chips.
78. 1,100 people between the ages of thirteen and thirty-eight were asked to watch a movie and eat potato chips.
A)Observation
B)Hypothesis
C)Prediction
D)Experiment
E)Control group
F)Experimental group
G)The variable
H)Assess results
I)Conclusion
Answer: E
Q2) In the peacock butterfly experiment,what was the conclusion?
A) predatory birds are not deterred from eating peacock butterflies with spots
B) predatory birds are deterred by peacock butterfly clicking sounds
C) peacock butterflies with spots mated more often than those without spots
D) predatory birds are deterred by the dark color of the peacock butterfly
E) peacock butterflies that made clicking sounds attracted more predatory birds
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) the bond between the NaCl
A)hydrogen
B)ionic
C)covalent
Answer: B
Q2) What type of bonds hold the two chains of DNA together in a DNA molecule?
A) hydrogen
B) polar covalent
C) nonpolar covalent
D) ionic
E) more than one of these
Answer: A
Q3) Fats are major components of the cell's
A) membranes.
B) cytoplasm.
C) proteins.
D) ribosomes.
E) mitochondria.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a biofilm?
A) a movie about biology
B) a slimy covering around a bacterium that allows it to stick to surfaces
C) a colony of prokaryotes and eukaryotes living together in a slime
D) a substance put on microscope slides that allow microscopic details to be better seen
E) a shiny substance that develops above an oil slick
Answer: C
Q2) A transport protein is analogous to a
A) wall partition.
B) subway train.
C) light switch.
D) voice identification device.
E) television receiver.
Answer: B
Q3) capsule
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Energy and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) lowers the activation energy of a reaction
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT related to the first law of thermodynamics?
A) energy flow is from a high concentration to a low concentration.
B) the amount of energy in the universe is constant.
C) energy cannot be created or destroyed.
D) energy can change from one source to another.
E) the energy of the universe has existed forever.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true about overactive alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)?
A) the effects are the same as the effects of underactive ALDH
B) people with overactive ADH can handle only small amounts of alcohol
C) it causes an excess accumulation of acetaldehyde
D) it is common in people of Asian descent
E) people with overactive ADH are more likely to become alcoholics
Q4) minimum amount of energy required to start a reaction
Q5) an excess of end-product molecules shuts down a metabolic pathway
Q6) often a vitamin or mineral that improves enzyme functioning
Q7) The process by which a lysosome expels its contents into the extracellular environment.
Q8) molecule that enters a reaction
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Chapter 5: Capturing and Releasing Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following selectively absorb some wavelengths of light and reflect others?
A) rainbows
B) carbohydrates
C) proteins
D) pigments
E) cell membranes
Q2) After a meal,
A) ATP production slows.
B) blood glucose levels remain constant.
C) insulin levels rise.
D) glycogen is used.
E) glucagon levels rise.
Q3) results in the formation of ATP,NADH,and CO?
Q4) oxygen
Q5) glucose
Q6) carbon dioxide
Q7) light
Q8) Water is split in this process.
Q9) formation of acetaldehyde is next to the last step in this pathway Page 7
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Page 8
Chapter 6: DNA Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the success rate for producing live births of cloned animals?
A) 1-2 %
B) 3-5%
C) 10-15%
D) 40-50%
E) 100%
Q2) Four of the five answers listed below are related to DNA replication.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) base pairing
B) hydrogen bonding
C) semiconservative
D) DNA ligase
E) glycolysis
Q3) Each DNA strand has a backbone that consists of alternating A) amino acids.
B) nitrogen-containing bases.
C) hydrogen bonds.
D) sugar and phosphate molecules.
E) types of sugars.
Q4) breakdown products of this mutagen binds irreversibly to DNA
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Chapter 7: Gene Expression and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following adds RNA nucleotides,one at a time,during transcription?
A) RNA polymerase
B) DNA polymerase
C) RNA nuclease
D) transfer RNA
E) ribosomal RNA
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the genetic code?
A) It is the same for almost all organisms.
B) There are 64 codons.
C) It has within it 5 stop codons.
D) Most amino acids have more than one codon that codes for it.
E) Each codon is made up of three nucleotides.
Q3) What,specifically,determines the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide of eukaryotes?
A) the DNA gene
B) the introns
C) the exons
D) the initial mRNA transcript
E) the tRNA anticodons
Q4) A RNA codon of GUA would be complementary to this tRNA anticodon.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following energy source fuels cell division in animal cells?
A) thymine nucleotides
B) ATP
C) kinetic energy of Golgi body movement
D) glycerol
E) fat deposits
Q2) What part of the cell cycle - in an actively dividing cell - does preparation for DNA replication take place?
A) G1
B) S
C) G2
D) prophase
E) telophase
Q3) sister chromatids are attached at centromeres
A)mitosis
B)meiosis
C)both mitosis and meiosis
D)neither mitosis or meiosis
Q4) period prior to mitosis
Q5) period in which metaphase occurs
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gene that produces multiple effects is called
A) co-dominant gene.
B) an X-linked gene.
C) an epistatic gene.
D) a pleiotropic gene.
E) an incompletely dominant gene.
Q2) To what disease do individuals heterozygous for cystic fibrosis have increased resistance?
A) hemophilia
B) Tay-Sachs
C) typhoid
D) diptheria
E) cholera
Q3) Tanya's son Micah has hemophilia A.Who else in Micah's family definitely has hemophilia A?
A) his mother
B) his father
C) his mother's father
D) his mother's mother
E) his brother
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Chapter 10: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT used or related to the creation of recombinant DNA?
A) ligases
B) restiction enzymes
C) plasmids
D) SNPs
E) sticky ends
Q2) Once a probe has hybridized with a gene of interest in a DNA library,how is the hybrid identified?
A) by its sticky tail
B) by its radioactive phosphate group
C) by using restriction enzymes
D) by centrifugation
E) by vector analysis
Q3) circular DNA isolated from bacteria that serve as gene vectors
Q4) molecule that needs primers,nucleotides,and a DNA molecule as a template in order to fulfill its function
Q5) technique of separating DNA fragments of different sizes
Q6) transferring normal or modified genes into the cells of a person with a genetic disorder
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is evidence that the continents are not static?
A) the jigsaw puzzle fit of continents like South America and Africa
B) fossils occur in identical rock formations on both sides of the Atlantic Ocean
C) magnetic poles of large rock formations point in different directions
D) at certain places beneath the ocean, the sea floor is spreading
E) all of these are evidence that the continents are not static
Q2) Why is it unlikely that we will find fossils of every extinct species?
A) Most dead organisms are eaten by scavengers.
B) Organic remains decompose.
C) Not all species have hard parts like bones or teeth.
D) Most fossils are buried too deep for us to find.
E) More than one of these is correct.
Q3) What percentage of yeast genes have homologous genes that can be found in humans?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 30
E) 40
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Chapter 12: Processes of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a condition of genetic equilibrium in a population?
A) no mutations in the population
B) the population is small
C) the population is isolated
D) mating is random
E) all of these ARE conditions of genetic equilibrium in a population
Q2) A major change in evolutionary patterns over long periods of time is best described as
A) macroevolution.
B) microevolution.
C) allopatric speciation.
D) directional selection.
E) sympatric speciation.
Q3) an example is flowering plants and their pollinators
Q4) this often sets the stage for adaptive radiation
Q5) quantifiable,heritable characteristics
Q6) lineage that rapidly diversifies into several new species
Q7) this type of isolation is most closely related to sexual selection
Q8) simultaneous loss of many species
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Chapter 13: Early Life Forms and the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first life-related and carbon-based molecule was synthesized in vitro by a German chemist.What was that molecule?
A) starch
B) fructose
C) acetaldehyde
D) urea
E) rubisco
Q2) What is the product of HIV reverse transcriptase?
A) single stranded DNA
B) double stranded DNA
C) single stranded RNA
D) double stranded RNA
E) more than one of these
Q3) Clay compounds were thought to be original sites for the formation of A) nucleotide strands.
B) fat globules.
C) short polysaccharides.
D) amino acid chains.
E) sugar-protein complexes.
Q4) Toxins from these can kill humans.
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Chapter 14: Plants and Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following plants are widely planted in cities because of their resistance to air pollution?
A) lycopods
B) ginkgos
C) cycads
D) conifers
E) grasses
Q2) In what part or parts of the plant life cycle does mitosis NOT take place?
A) from zygote to sporophyte
B) from spore to gametophyte
C) from gametophyte to gamete
D) from sporophyte to spores
E) Mitosis takes place in all of these parts of the life cycle.
Q3) Which of the following fungi form mushrooms?
A) club fungi
B) sac fungi
C) zygote fungi
D) yeast fungi
E) more than one of these
Q4) seed plant with seeds that do not contain endosperm
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Animal Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) This arthropod is the vector for Lyme disease.
A) spider
B) tick
C) wasp
D) mosquito
E) mites
Q2) Birds are the only modern amniotes with A) wings.
B) feathers.
C) a four-chambered heart.
D) ectothermic metabolism.
E) more than one of these.
Q3) From which of the following did humans evolve?
A) chimpanzees
B) monkeys
C) gorillas
D) orangutans
E) none of these
Q4) having parts arranged around a central axis
Q5) had apelike forearms but fingers like modern humans
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Chapter 16: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) the number of individuals a given area can sustain
Q2) During phase "1",the size of the population of deer grow slowly because
A) predators eat fawns as they are born.
B) the number of breeding individuals is small.
C) the temperatures are relatively extreme.
D) the amount of food available is relatively scarce.
E) all of these occur.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a factor in a life history?
A) rate of development
B) age at first reproduction
C) population density
D) life span
E) all of these are factors in a life history
Q4) What percentage of married women worldwide use family planning methods?
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
E) 60
Q5) the birth rate minus the death rate
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Chapter 17: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pollutants is associated with thyroid cancer?
A) nitrate
B) nitrous oxide
C) ammonia
D) phosphate
E) more than one of these
Q2) Structure of communities may be affected by
A) temperatures.
B) sunlight intensity.
C) humidity.
D) condition of the soil.
E) all of these.
Q3) a zebra grazing on savanna grass
Q4) Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
A) methane
B) nitrogen gas
C) carbon dioxide
D) nitrous oxide
E) chlorofluorocarbon
Q5) organism situated at the base of the energy pyramid
Page 20
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Chapter 18: The Biosphere and Human Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which coastal region is where seawater and freshwater mix?
A) hydrothermal vents
B) coral reef
C) seamounts
D) coral reefs
E) estuary
Q2) What is an undersea mountain called?
A) seamount
B) sea caste
C) trench
D) estuary
E) none of these
Q3) As summer comes to the tundra,what will occur?
A) A long growing season will begin.
B) The surface layer will thaw and pools of water will form.
C) The permafrost thaws out.
D) Birds will begin their southerly migration.
E) more than one of these.
Q4) the most species rich biome
Q5) some of the dominant plants are CAM plants
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Animal Tissues and Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) tissue that makes up deep skin layers
Q2) Keeping internal conditions within tolerable limits is called
A) maintenance.
B) anatomy.
C) physiology.
D) homeostasis.
E) equilibrium.
Q3) Which of the following substances protects us from harmful UV light energy?
A) keratin
B) collagen
C) elastin
D) myosin
E) melanin
Q4) From what structure did vertebrate lungs originally evolve?
A) fish gills
B) fish guts
C) fish lungs
D) fish throats
E) fish kidneys
Q5) Transports nutrients to cells and wastes from cells
Page 22
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Chapter 20: How Animals Move
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which skeleton moves in response to muscular contraction?
A) endoskeleton
B) exoskeleton
C) hydrostatic skeleton
D) all of these
E) none of these
Q2) stores calcium
Q3) has marrow composed of adipose tissue
Q4) What is a disadvantage to having an exoskeleton?
A) muscles do not work effectively
B) the body tissues are unprotected by it
C) it does not grow with the animal
D) it prevents the possibility of flying
E) more than one of these is a disadvantage to an exoskeleton
Q5) connection between two cranial bones
Q6) threadlike components of muscles that are made up of sarcomeres
Q7) skeleton of clams
Q8) During contraction,muscle fibers will __________ in length but __________ in thickness.
Q9) outer bony layer of long bones Page 23
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Page 24
Chapter 21: Circulation and Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arteries carry
A) blood away from the heart.
B) blood towards the heart.
C) only oxygen-rich blood.
D) only oxygen-poor blood.
E) a combination of more than one of these.
Q2) All of the following are true of hypertension EXCEPT
A) it may be caused by diet.
B) it usually develops after a person has a stroke.
C) it may be genetic.
D) it refers to chronically high blood pressure.
E) it usually does not have any symptoms.
Q3) The driving force for heart contraction is
A) contraction of the atria.
B) contraction of the ventricles.
C) closing of the AV valves.
D) opening of the AV valves.
E) closing of the aortic valve.
Q4) the windpipe
Q5) structure not found in the human respiratory system
Page 25
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Chapter 22: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood and tissue fluids of healthy people
A) contain different normal flora than found on the skin.
B) contain the same normal flora as found on the skin.
C) contain twice as many bacteria and yeast as found on the skin.
D) contain only protozoa as part of the normal flora.
E) are generally sterile and contain no microorganisms.
Q2) A person in puberty is more likely to have acne because they
A) sweat more.
B) produce more saliva.
C) have more surface flora.
D) produce more sebum.
E) do more than one of these.
Q3) What is true about the normal flora that inhabit our body surfaces?
A) most are harmful
B) they competitively exclude more harmful species
C) some produce vitamin C
D) they become even more beneficial if they invade tissues
E) all of these are true except that most are harmful
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Chapter 23: Digestion and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Referring to the above diagram,what structure is labeled "D"?
A) the appendix
B) the cecum
C) a polyp
D) a portion of the small intestine
E) the colon
Q2) During the reabsorption process,how much of the water in the tubules is returned to the blood?
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 99%
E) 100%
Q3) Kidney stones
A) are four times more likely to occur in men than women.
B) usually do not cause symptoms.
C) cause extreme pain when they enter the ureter.
D) are formed when solutes that are dissolved in the urine come out of solution.
E) fit all of these descriptions.
Q4) promotes bone health and enhances calcium absorption
Page 27
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Chapter 24: Neural Control and the Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pleasurable feeling one gets from taking Ecstacy is related to the neurotransmitter,
A) endorphin.
B) acetlycholine.
C) dopamine.
D) serotonin.
E) epinephrine.
Q2) In order to establish a membrane potential,the cytoplasmic fluid is ____ compared to the interstitial fluid
A) more positively charged
B) more negatively charged
C) hypertonic
D) hypotonic
E) none of these
Q3) Potassium ion channels open
A) as the action potential passes down the axon.
B) when the threshold potential is reached.
C) during the resting potential.
D) when the action potential reaches the axon terminal.
E) when neurotransmitters attach to dendrite receptors.
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) diabetes type 1
Q2) Specialized islet cells that secrete hormones are found scattered throughout the A) adrenal cortex.
B) liver.
C) thymus.
D) adrenal medulla.
E) pancreas.
Q3) Which gland is associated with seasonal affective disorder (SAD)?
A) pineal
B) pituitary
C) thyroid
D) parathyroid
E) thymus
Q4) Fight or flight is induced by this hormone.
Q5) Melatonin is produced in this gland.
Q6) Cushing's syndrome
Q7) This gland plays a central role in the immune response.
Q8) The gland at letter "B" is the __________.
Q9) target cell
Q10) Seasonal affective disorder Page 29
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four of the five answers listed below are related by a similar effectiveness.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) the Pill
B) tubal ligation
C) vasectomy
D) douching
E) IUD
Q2) In sperm formation,when does mitosis take place?
A) after the formation of the haploid immature sperm
B) between formation of the primary and secondary spermatocyte
C) between formation of the secondary spermatocyte and the immature sperm
D) between the male germ cell and the primary spermatocyte formation
E) after the mature sperm is formed
Q3) Gastrulation produces
A) hollow balls of cells.
B) embryos with germ layers.
C) solid balls of cells.
D) maternal messages.
E) yolk.
Q4) a surge of this hormone encourages the primary oocyte to complete meiosis I
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Chapter 27: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The movement of materials already in the phloem is described as A) translocation.
B) declining pressure flow.
C) cohesion-tension.
D) active transport.
E) transpiration.
Q2) The tissue found in the center of a root is
A) xylem.
B) endodermis.
C) cortex.
D) phloem.
E) pith.
Q3) What feature in animals is analagous to plant meristem cells?
A) ectoderm cells
B) a gastrula
C) blastocyst stem cells
D) mesoderm cells
E) none of these are analogous to plant meristem cells
Q4) The description of phloem is at letter _____.
Q5) This tissue gives rise to the xylem and phloem of an older tree.
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Chapter 28: Plant Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of plant hormones?
A) they are active in an adult plant body
B) they are signaling molecules
C) they produce effects only at high concentrations
D) they are produced only in certain regions of the plant
E) all of these are NOT true of plant hormones
Q2) When you prune the tips off of branches,the plant tends to become more shrubby,this is due to
A) apical dominance release.
B) removal of auxin.
C) increased levels of cytokinin.
D) the development of lateral shoots.
E) a combination of all of these factors.
Q3) A flower is sweet smelling and reflects UV light.This flower is likely ___ pollinated.
A) bee
B) hummingbird
C) bat
D) fly
E) wind
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Page 33