Introduction to Biology Test Questions
Course
Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles and concepts that underlie the study of living organisms. The course explores topics such as the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students gain a foundational understanding of how life operates at molecular, cellular, and ecosystem levels. Emphasis is also placed on the scientific method, critical thinking, and the relevance of biology to real-world issues, preparing students for further studies in the biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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25 Chapters
1631 Verified Questions
1631 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Can Science Cure the Common Cold
Introduction to the Scientific Method
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79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19878
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the scientific method used?
A) to answer specific questions about the natural world
B) to determine absolute truth
C) to distinguish good from evil
D) to establish moral codes
Answer: A
Q2) Why are correlations less convincing than controlled experimental results?
A) Correlations are subject to greater bias than experimental results.
B) Correlations cannot be observed outside the laboratory.
C) Correlations cannot be statistically significant.
D) Correlations do not eliminate as many alternative hypotheses.
Answer: D
Q3) Which microbiologists contributed to the germ theory of disease?
A) Warren and Marshall
B) Pasteur and Koch
C) Watson and Crick
D) Jacob and Monod
Answer: B
Q4) What type of reasoning takes the form of "if/then" statements?
Answer: Deductive
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Chapter 2: Science Fiction, Bad Science, and
Pseudoscience:
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the cohesion of water important for biological systems?
A) It helps to moderate the temperature of cold-blooded animals.
B) It helps transport water from the roots to the leaves of a plant.
C) It prevents chemical reactions from occurring in body systems.
D) It prevents salts from dissolving inside the plasma membrane.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is an element?
A) water
B) methane
C) hydrogen
D) carbon dioxide
Answer: C
Q3) What type of electric charge do protons carry?
A) negative
B) positive
C) neutral
D) no charge
Answer: B
Q4) What are the smallest units into which an element can be broken down?
Answer: atoms
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Chapter 3: Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better
Performance and Health
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of vitamins in the human body?
A) Vitamins are sources of stored energy.
B) Vitamins help enzymes function properly.
C) Vitamins act as hormones that trigger cells to take up glucose.
D) Vitamins are the basis of the plasma membrane.
Answer: B
Q2) In commercial food manufacturing, what is the purpose of hydrogenation?
A) to make an unsaturated fat more saturated
B) to reduce the amount of "empty calories" in a carbohydrate
C) to convert fatty acids into amino acids
D) to convert vitamins into minerals
Answer: A
Q3) Which organelle is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?
A) chloroplast
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) centriole
D) mitochondrion
Answer: A
Q4) What is the compartment in a eukaryotic cell where DNA is stored as chromatin?
Answer: nucleus
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Chapter 4: Body Weight and Health: Enzymes,
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During glycolysis, what molecule is formed when NAD picks up a hydrogen atom along with its electron?
A) NADP
B) NADPH
C) NADH
D) H O
Q2) What 3-carbon molecules are produced when a 6-carbon glucose is broken down during glycolysis? (two words)
Q3) Why are eating disorders that severely restrict food intake very dangerous?
A) Menstruation can cease, which may cause sterility.
B) The risk of stroke can increase.
C) They can cause Type 1 diabetes.
D) They can lead to high blood pressure.
Q4) Which component of fat can be metabolized for the production of ATP?
A) amino acids
B) monosaccharides
C) nucleic acids
D) glycerol
Page 6
Q5) What are the two molecules produced by cellular respiration?
Q6) What weight classification would include a person with a BMI of 23?
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Climate Change
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which human activity has directly contributed to global warming?
A) burning of coal
B) building of greenhouses
C) planting of trees
D) development of solar energy
Q2) According to the graph, which wavelengths of light are best absorbed by the chlorophyll pigments found in green leaves?
A) 520 nm
B) 560 nm
C) 620 nm
D) 680 nm
Q3) When can photorespiration occur in plants?
A) when stomata are closed
B) when oxygen levels inside the leaf are low
C) when the plant is undergoing transpiration
D) during the Calvin cycle
Q4) What does the glucose molecule supply to cells?
Q5) In plant leaves, what are the tiny pores that allow carbon dioxide to enter and oxygen to exit?
Q6) Inside which specialized organelle does photosynthesis occur? Page 8
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Page 9
Chapter 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the places in the cell cycle where proteins survey the cell to make sure that conditions for a favorable cell division have been met?
Q2) Which organs are often analyzed for cancer cells to determine whether the tumor has metastasized?
A) liver
B) lymph node
C) pancreas
D) ovary
Q3) What is the surgical removal of cells, tissue, or fluid that will be analyzed for cancerous cells?
Q4) What term describes nucleotides in opposing strands of DNA that bind to each other?
A) semiconservative
B) complementary
C) conjoined
D) sister chromatids
Q5) What are specialized cells (egg cells and sperm cells, for example) used for sexual reproduction?
Q6) What enzyme assists in DNA synthesis? (two words)
Page 10
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Chapter 7: Are You Only As Smart As Your Genes Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics
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71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the estimated influence of genes (as opposed to environment) on a trait called?
Q2) What does the highest point on a bell-shaped curve represent?
A) maximum amount of variation in a trait
B) heritability value of a trait
C) number of people in the population who are heterozygous
D) mean of the population
Q3) If DNA is like an instruction manual, what would be similar to the typographical errors that may result when the DNA manual is transcribed?
A) dominant alleles
B) recessive alleles
C) mutations
D) homologous chromosomes
Q4) What genotype would be found in an individual who is a carrier for a recessive genetic disorder but does not have symptoms of the disorder?
A) heterozygous
B) homozygous for the recessive allele
C) homozygous for the dominant allele
D) either homozygous for the recessive allele or heterozygous
Page 11
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Chapter 8: DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance and
Dna Profiling
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65 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a half-shaded circle represent on a pedigree chart?
A) a female carrier
B) a female who does not have an allele for the genetic disorder represented
C) a male who is affected by the genetic disorder represented
D) a male carrier
Q2) Why must DNA fragments be denatured during the polymerase chain reaction?
A) Taq polymerase breaks down when heated.
B) The repeated gene sequences are not present in double-stranded DNA.
C) The primer must bind to a single-stranded template to synthesize double-stranded DNA.
D) VNTRs have DNA sequences that vary in number.
Q3) Because the bones thought to belong to the Romanov family were highly decayed, what type of analysis was used by scientists to determine the gender of each deceased individual?
A) pelvic bone analysis only
B) DNA analysis of material that is specific to the Y chromosome
C) DNA analysis of material that is specific to the X chromosome
D) both pelvic bone analysis and DNA analysis
Q4) What pattern of inheritance occurs in the ABO blood system where there are three distinct alleles in human populations?
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Chapter 9: Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene
Expression, Mutation,
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nitrogenous base percentage is complementary to the 22% guanine found in a double-stranded DNA molecule?
A) 22% thymine
B) 22% cytosine
C) 44% adenine
D) 48% thymine
Q2) What molecule does a sequence of DNA typically code for?
A) protein
B) lipid
C) monosaccharide
D) nucleotide
Q3) Which amino acid always begins a polypeptide (protein) during translation?
A) valine
B) phenylalanine
C) methionine
D) arginine
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Page 13
Chapter 10: Where Did We Come From the Evidence for Evolution
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72 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are fossils from older species found deeper in the earth than those from more recent species?
A) Layers of sediments accumulate every year, covering older fossils in more layers.
B) Older species were more likely to burrow underground.
C) Modern species can swim better than older species.
D) Older species were more likely to be trapped in sediments and form fossils than modern species.
Q2) What is the role of fossils in supporting the theory of common descent?
A) Fossils of dinosaurs show that other types of life existed, but there is no evidence of relationships between them.
B) There have been many fossils of intermediate types discovered that provide strong support for the theory of common descent.
C) There are plenty of fossils to show that animals have evolved, but there are not enough fossils of human ancestors to suggest that humans are related to other animals.
D) Fossil evidence has been found to support the relationship between humans and other primates but only in Europe.
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Chapter 11: An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a population of organisms is evolving, what can you be sure is happening?
A) It's improving.
B) It's stable (no change).
C) It's getting bigger.
D) It's changing.
Q2) Which adaptation is constrained by the particular ancestral structure of the organism, resulting in a jury-rigged design?
A) antibiotic resistance in bacteria
B) anatomy that allows upright posture in humans
C) the wings of bats
D) ethanol tolerance in fruit flies
Q3) What is an allele?
A) a gene that has been changed by natural selection
B) a trait that has been influence by artificial selection
C) a gene that hasn't changed over time
D) a particular version of a gene
Q4) After four observations, Darwin made the inference that natural selection causes what process?
Q5) What traits increase fitness in a particular environment?
Q6) What is the raw material for evolution?
Page 15
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Chapter 12: Who Am I Species and Races
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You read that two populations of hyena are different subspecies. How would these populations compare?
A) They could produce fertile offspring together.
B) One group would be much larger than the other group.
C) Their mating behavior would be quite different.
D) They would have different diets.
Q2) True or false: Levels of ultraviolet light influence both folate and vitamin D production in humans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) True or false: Reproductive isolation is the only requirement for speciation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How would two unrelated individuals with the same color skin compare?
A) They would have similar alleles for melanin production.
B) They would have similar alleles for repetitive DNA segments.
C) They would have similar alleles for nose shape.
D) They would be no more likely to have similar alleles for any gene than any two random individuals.
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Chapter 13: The Greatest Species on Earth Biodiversity and Classification
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61 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which era did primitive bacteria first appear?
A) Precambrian
B) Paleozoic
C) Mesozoic
D) Cenozoic
Q2) The evolution of which trait allowed plants to grow taller?
A) seeds
B) vascular tissue
C) flowers
D) photosynthesis
Q3) What was the first antibiotic, discovered as a result of a laboratory accident?
Q4) According to the most current classifications, which group is the most different from all the others?
A) bacteria
B) fungi
C) animals
D) archaea
Q5) What organisms form mats of long, thin chains of cells and are important in decomposition?
Q6) What process is performed by both algae and plants? Page 17
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Page 18
Chapter 14: Is the Human Population Too Large Population
Ecology
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69 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19891
Sample Questions
Q1) Which project would be conducted by an ecologist?
A) a research project testing new pollution filters for cars
B) a study of squirrels and their interactions with other animals
C) observations of toad embryos' development in a Petri dish
D) a project to genetically modify a wheat plant in order to increase production
Q2) True or false: Most developed countries have passed through a demographic transition and currently have low population growth rates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What does a completely columnar population pyramid represent?
A) proportionally more young than middle-aged or elderly people
B) equal proportions of young, middle-aged, and elderly people
C) proportionally more middle-aged and elderly than young people
D) proportionally more middle-aged than elderly and/or young people
Q4) What is the steep and sudden decline in a population size as birth rates plummet and death rates soar?
A) carrying capacity
B) a "boom and bust" cycle
C) demographic momentum
D) a population crash
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Chapter 15: Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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72 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What phenomenon results from the runoff of fertilizers from agricultural and residential areas causing the aquatic algae in bodies of water to grow prolifically?
A) competitive exclusion
B) habitat fragmentation
C) eutrophication
D) overexploitation
Q2) Ants from the genus Pseudomyrmex live in bull's horn acacia trees, Acacia cornigera. The ants will attack any predators of the tree. In return, the ants live protected in the thorns of the tree and eat the nectar and protein-rich secretions of the tree. What term describes this relationship?
A) parasitism
B) mutualism
C) competition
D) commensalism
Q3) What process resulted in the loss of heath hens in North America?
A) competitive exclusion
B) an extinction vortex
C) a mutualism
D) the negative effect of heterozygosity on fitness
Page 20
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Chapter 16: Where Do You Live Climate and Biomes
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72 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What factors are found in both tropical and temperate forests?
A) rainy and dry seasons
B) seasonal changes in temperature
C) enough precipitation to support large trees
D) the same species of trees
Q2) Hypothetically, how could scientists lower Earth's temperature in order to combat global warming?
A) by moving ice from the Arctic to the tropical oceans
B) by forcibly melting more glaciers and polar ice caps
C) by reflecting more light from land masses
D) by decreasing the reflectance of cities
Q3) What factor most influences the dry deserts of Nevada?
A) the hot desert sun
B) the Pacific Ocean
C) overgrazing by livestock
D) the rain shadow from a California mountain range
Q4) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.
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Chapter 17: Organ Donation: Tissues and Organs
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54 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cellular component of blood helps in clotting?
A) red blood cells
B) white blood cells
C) plasma
D) platelets
Q2) The liver filters which of the following from the blood?
A) toxins
B) chyme
C) hepatocytes
D) glycogen
Q3) During thermoregulation, how does an endotherm respond to a high body temperature?
A) Blood vessels near the skin dilate.
B) Blood vessels near the skin constrict.
C) The brain shuts down to prevent damage.
D) Blood glucose levels increase to stimulate metabolism.
Q4) What tissue type protects the body from water loss?
Q5) What example of homeostasis includes the maintenance of constant internal body temperature?
Q6) What connective tissue is made from substances secreted by osteocytes?
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Chapter 18: Binge Drinking: the Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the functional units of the kidneys?
Q2) How many alcoholic drinks can generally be metabolized in one hour?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q3) What description applies to accessory organs?
A) They aren't included in organ systems.
B) They secrete enzymes required for digestion.
C) They don't contain connective tissue.
D) They assist other organs in the circulatory system.
Q4) Which enzyme in saliva breaks down sugars? (two words)
Q5) True or False: Drinking any amount of alcohol always has negative effects on the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Clearing the Air: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Systems
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54 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pathway correctly traces a drop of blood through the vascular system?
A) right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body, right atrium
B) left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle, body, left atrium
C) right ventricle, lungs, right atrium, left ventricle, body, left atrium
D) left ventricle, lungs, left atrium, right ventricle, body, right atrium
Q2) True or false: The presence of known carcinogens in ETS supports the argument that ETS can cause lung cancer in nonsmokers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the purpose of the respiratory pigments that are specialized proteins in blood?
A) They contain metal ions.
B) They occur only in insects.
C) They increase the efficiency of carbon dioxide transport.
D) They turn the blood blue when oxygen is bound.
Q4) Where can most of the oxygen in the blood be found?
A) bound to hemoglobin
B) in white blood cells
C) combined with carbon dioxide
D) dissolved in the plasma
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Chapter 20: Vaccination: Protection and Prevention or Peril
Immune System,
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68 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where would you be most likely to encounter E. coli bacteria?
A) in bulging canned foods
B) on the surface of the skin
C) in unpasteurized milk
D) in the walls of the lungs
Q2) What is an immune system cell that binds to an antigen?
A) antibody
B) immunoglobulin
C) T cell
D) macrophage
Q3) A strategy currently in clinical trials to treat Alzheimer's disease is to infuse patients with antibodies, which then target the pathological protein produced in the disease, leading to its removal. What type of immune reaction applies to this technique?
A) an autoimmune response
B) active immunization
C) passive immunization
D) cell-mediated immunity
Q4) Some RNA viruses, such as HIV, require what enzyme (two words) to convert the viral RNA genome into a DNA version?
25
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Chapter 21: Human Sex Differences: Endocrine, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is exhibiting symptoms that include lethargy, weight gain, and abnormal blood levels of calcium. Where does the patient potentially have a tumor?
A) pancreas
B) thyroid gland
C) thymus
D) hypothalamus
Q2) Marble bone disease is a disease in which bone increases in mass and becomes abnormally hard. This disorder is most likely caused by the inactivity of which part of the body?
A) bone marrow
B) osteoblasts
C) osteoclasts
D) vertebrae
Q3) Why does skeletal muscle have a striated appearance?
A) dark color of myosin
B) dense array of microtubules
C) dense packing of ATP molecules
D) regular arrangement of myofibrils
Q4) Which type of skeleton protects a human's soft internal organs?
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Chapter 22: Is There Something in the Water Reproductive and Developmental Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is a woman more likely to experience bladder infections than a man?
A) The urethra and vagina are separate openings into the body.
B) The urethra is shorter in a woman than in a man.
C) The urethra is longer in a woman than in a man.
D) The acidity of the urine makes women more susceptible to infections.
Q2) True or false: Hermaphrodites are organisms that are genetically male but physically resemble both males and females.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of evidence shows that endocrine disruptors in the water supply can cause human reproductive problems?
A) correlative
B) definitive
C) statistically significant
D) entirely absent
Q4) Which method of birth control prevents follicle development?
A) diaphragm
B) birth control pill
C) female condom
D) intrauterine device
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Chapter 23: Study Drugs: Brain Boost or Brain Drain Brain
Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are higher brain functions, such as creativity and analytical skills, centered?
A) corpus callosum
B) hypothalamus
C) spinal cord
D) cerebrum
Q2) An individual has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS), which is a disease that leads to deterioration of the myelin sheath that covers some neurons. What is a likely physical symptom of this disease?
A) inability to control muscle movements
B) progressive memory loss
C) feeling of euphoria
D) inability to concentrate in chaotic situations
Q3) Which parts belong to the central nervous system?
A) sensory neurons
B) interneurons
C) motor neurons
D) effectors
Q4) What system is composed of the spinal cord and brain?
Page 28
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Chapter 24: Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of roots do monocot plants often exhibit?
A) no roots at all
B) one large taproot
C) fibrous, broadly spread roots
D) roots that extend deep into the ground
Q2) What modified plant part would include a white potato as an example?
A) stem
B) root
C) leaf
D) flower
Q3) Which statement relates to secondary growth in plants?
A) Monocots can undergo true secondary growth to increase the width of their stems.
B) Cork, cork cambium, and vascular cambium make up the bark of a woody plant.
C) Xylem cells make up the wood of a tree, whereas phloem cells are located in the bark of a tree.
D) True secondary growth in coconut palm trees makes them woody yet incredibly flexible.
Q4) What is the practice farmers use when they plant a single crop over a large area of land?
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Chapter 25: Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can plants change rates of transpiration?
A) by changing the size of stomata openings
B) by making a cellulose plug in the xylem tubes
C) by promoting flowering
D) by reducing cohesion
Q2) What is the response of a plant to the proportion of light and dark in a day?
Q3) A greenhouse manager wants to encourage long-term, productive flowering instead of short-term, rapid flowering in annual garden plants that are for sale. Which action would accomplish that goal?
A) pruning away early flowers
B) limiting water and fertilizer
C) moving the plants to the shadiest part of the greenhouse
D) allowing any flowers to become fruits and seeds
Q4) Through what process do deciduous plants drop their leaves?
A) thigmotropism
B) gravitropism
C) abscission
D) photoperiodism
Q5) What is the tendency of a plant's uppermost bud to limit the growth of lower buds? (two words)
Page 30
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