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Introduction to Biology offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles that govern living organisms. This course explores core concepts such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, physiology, and the diversity of life. Students will engage with the scientific method, learn about the molecular basis of life, and examine how organisms interact with their environments. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, laboratory skills, and real-world applications in fields like health, technology, and conservation. By the end of the course, students will have a solid foundation for further study in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Q1) Often found in extreme environments while having no nucleus,this domain is closer genetically to eukarya.
A)archaea
B)bacteria
C)eukarya
D)plantae
E)fungi
F)animalia
G)protists
Answer: A
Q2) Scientists perform ____ in order to ____ a given ____.
A) experiments; test; hypothesis.
B) tests; experiment; law.
C) tests; experiment; variable.
D) facts; test; variable.
E) hypotheses; try; experiment.
Answer: A
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Q1) the two units that combine in various ways to form lipids
Answer: J
Q2) Which of the following organisms can more likely break down cellulose?
A) a fungus
B) a cow
C) a human
D) a horse
E) a plant
Answer: A
Q3) How many electrons are in the innermost electron shell of a phosphorus atom?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 8
Answer: B
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Q1) DNA

Answer: F
Q2) Which of the following organelles is thought to have evolved from a bacterium?
A) nuclei
B) Golgi bodies
C) chloroplasts
D) mitochondria
E) more than one of these
Answer: E
Q3) Elephants are large animals because they
A) have bigger cells.
B) possess expandable cells.
C) are made of a greater number of cells.
D) have bigger cells and are made of a greater number of cells.
E) have bigger cells that are expandable and of greater number.
Answer: C
Q4) flagellum
Answer: A
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Q1) This process specifically moves water molecules across a differential permeable membrane.
Q2) Transporting a solute against its concentration gradient requires A) energy.
B) a gated channel.
C) exocytosis.
D) hypotonic and hypertonic differences across the cell membrane.
E) more than one of these.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true regarding coenzymes?
A) they are cofactors.
B) ATP is an example of a coenzyme.
C) NaCl is an example of a coenzyme.
D) They are often modified in chemical reactions.
E) They may carry electrons.
Q4) Pepsin is an enzyme that functions in the stomach.Its optimum pH would be A) between 1 and 2.
B) between 3 and 4.
C) above 6.
D) between 5 and 7.5.
E) above 8.5.

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Q1) Photosystems are mainly
A) a grouping of energy-trapping molecules.
B) enzymes for splitting water.
C) a cluster of ATP molecules.
D) a sugar assembly site.
E) assemblies of thylakoids.
Q2) Four of the five answers listed below are degradation processes for carbon compounds.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) Calvin-Benson cycle
B) Krebs cycle
C) fermentation
D) respiration
E) glycolysis
Q3) In C4 plants,which of the following events of photosyntesis takes place first?
A) carbon from carbon dioxide is fixed by an enzyme that does not use oxygen
B) carbon from carbon dioxide is fixed by rubisco
C) glucose is produced
D) glucose is converted into sucrose
E) RuBP splits into two PGA molecules
Q4) This process leads to the formation of glucose.
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Q1) In animal cells,____ is (are)usually a one-way path.
A) replication
B) translation
C) transcription
D) differentiation
E) replication and translation
Q2) Which of the following male organisms contain two identical sex chromosomes?
A) turtles
B) birds
C) chimpanzees
D) dogs
E) lizards
Q3) this mutagen has wavelengths of less than 320 nanometers
Q4) Which chromosomes are carried by a normal female butterfly?
A) ZO
B) ZW
C) WW
D) WO
E) ZWW
Q5) this mutagen causes the mispairing of bases in DNA replication
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Q1) a tRNA triplet complementary to a mRNA codon
Q2) What happens to ricin in the plant in which it is found?
A) it is hydrolyzed and the amino acids that result are used to make new proteins
B) it is complexed with carbohydrates to make a cell wall component
C) it is broken down into monosaccharides that are then used to generate ATP
D) it is hydrolyzed into fatty acids which are further hydrolyzed to make steroids
E) it is hydrolyzed and the nucleotides that result are used to make DNA and RNA
Q3) What type of mutation results in sickle cell anemia?
A) base- pair substitution
B) insertion
C) deletion
D) frame-shift
E) gene duplication
Q4) A single mutation involving the second letter of codon AUA would convert it to this codon.
Q5) sites for polypeptide assembly
Q6) guided and catalyzed by RNA polymerases
Q7) a mRNA code for one amino acid

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Q1) Which of these is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction?
A) only half of the parent's genes are passed on to offspring
B) less genetic diversity in offspring
C) more rapid reproductive rate
D) none of these are disadvantages of asexual reproduction
E) all of these are disadvantages of asexual reproduction
Q2) Four of the five answers listed below are haploid.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) zygote
B) spore
C) egg
D) sperm
E) gametophyte
Q3) Asexual reproduction
A) produces the events of meiosis.
B) produces clones.
C) is more like meiosis than mitosis.
D) leads to increased variation in offspring.
E) involves episodes of crossing over.
Q4) the beginning of interphase
Q5) period prior to mitosis
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Q1) If two individuals both heterozygous for the same genes (e.g.,AaBb)mate and have offspring,how many different phenotypes will there be?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q2) In the figure above,how many plants would have white flowers and short stems?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 9
E) 16
Q3) If a 1n egg is fertilized by a n-l sperm,the resulting zygote will have
A) the chromosome number 2n-1.
B) a chromosome without its homologue.
C) a condition called monosomy.
D) a genetic disorder.
E) all of these conditions.
Q4) a range of small differences in a shared trait
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Q1) What types of eugenics will be possible with the use of genetic engineering?
A) super Olympic athletes
B) enhanced memory capacity
C) increased height
D) reduced incidence of baldness
E) all of these will be possible
Q2) What technology using bacteria is used to genetically engineer plants?
A) plasmid vectoring
B) DNA profiling
C) whole genome sequencing
D) SNPing
E) PCR
Q3) Which of the following procedures are possible with genetic engineering?
A) express a human gene in a bacterium
B) transfer a human protein into a sheep
C) transfer a human genome into a bacterium
D) express a human amino acid in a mouse
E) all of these
Q4) circular DNA isolated from bacteria that serve as gene vectors
Q5) making changes in an individual's genome
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Q1) Which of the following organisms is most likely to become fossilized?
A) a lake trout
B) a mountain goat
C) a tulip
D) a mushroom
E) all of these organisms are equally likely to fossilize
Q2) Which of the following fossils are we most likely to find?
A) fossils beneath the Empire State Building
B) fossils of flowers that produce one seed
C) jellyfish fossils
D) fossilized spores from mushrooms
E) fossils of animals living on steep slopes
Q3) What is the correct order of land mass formation starting with the oldest and moving towards the most recent?
A)Pangaea ????? Gondwana ????? Earth's crust
B)Earth's crust ????? Pangaea ????? Gondwana
C)Earth's crust ????? Gondwana ????? Pangaea
D)Gondwana ????? Earth's crust ????? Pangaea
E)Pangaea ????? Earth's crust ????? Gondwana
Q4) half life is 5,370 years

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Q1) Male songbirds sing to attract females to mate with.Different species of male songbirds sing different songs that will attract only the females of their species.This is an example of ___ isolation.
A) temporal
B) ecological
C) behavioral
D) mechanical
E) genetic
Q2) A female bowerbird being unable to recognize the mating ritual of a male toucan is an example of what type of isolating mechanism?
A) genetic
B) ecological
C) behavioral
D) mechanical
E) temporal
Q3) prairie grouse females choose males to mate with that have the most intricate dance and make the loudest thumping noise with their chests
Q4) the ear bones of mammals were adapted from the jaw bones of reptiles
Q5) lineage that rapidly diversifies into several new species
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Q1) Four of the five answers listed below are at least characteristics of some of the bacteria.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) heterotrophy
B) photosynthesis
C) chemosynthesis
D) Multi-cellular
E) no nucleus
Q2) Where do malaria-causing Plasmodium merozoites develop into gametocytes?
A) in the gut of a female mosquito
B) in the gut of a male mosquito
C) in the mosquito salivary glands
D) inside white blood cells
E) inside red blood cells
Q3) The bacterium E.coli
A) is a normal inhabitant of the mammalian gut.
B) has some mutant strains that produce toxins and cause disease.
C) is grown in laboratories around the world.
D) produces vitamin K.
E) has all of these characteristics.
Q4) This group of protozoans has no locomotor organelles.
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Q1) Which of the following will eventually produce a female gametophyte?
A) megaspore
B) microsporangium
C) microspore
D) megasporangium
E) female gametes
Q2) equisetum; homosporous; rhizomes present; aerial stems joined
Q3) In the life cycle of vascular plants,a gametophyte forms from a A) zygote.
B) sporophyte.
C) gamete.
D) spore.
E) zygote and a gamete.
Q4) The result of double fertilization in an angiosperm is A) two embryos.
B) an embryo and a megaspore
C) an embryo and endosperm.
D) an embryo and a pollen grain.
E) an embryo and a female gametophyte.
Q5) gametophyte is the dominant part of their life cycle
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Q1) In amphibians,what function does the cloaca serve?
A) urination
B) defecation
C) reproduction
D) locomotion
E) all of these except locomotion
Q2) The first known hominin species to leave Africa was
A) Homo sapiens
B) Homo erectus
C) Homo habilis
D) Australopithecus afarensis
E) Homo neanderthalensis
Q3) Which of the following primates are included in the group called "hominins"?
A) monkeys
B) humans
C) apes
D) gorillas
E) more than one of these
Q4) having parts arranged around a central axis
Q5) lived from about 4 million to 1.2 million years ago
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Q1) Feces from Canadian geese can
A) soil shoes.
B) stain clothes.
C) pollute bodies of water.
D) cause infections.
E) cause all of these.
Q2) Factors that affect the growth of a population regardless of the number of individuals in that population.
Q3) What invention about 11,000 years ago led to a boom in the human population?
A) the wheel
B) agriculture
C) the printing press
D) the steam engine
E) all of these
Q4) Killifish and pike-cichlids raised in natural conditions will
A) control the size of the guppies that live with them.
B) function as predators to guppies.
C) determine the growth rate of guppies.
D) control the evolution of size and color of the guppies.
E) do all of these.
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Q1) The niche of a lichen in an ecosystem is
a. a producer.
b. a consumer.
c. a detritivore.
d. a decomposer.
e. more than one of these.
Q2) Animals obtain minerals such as phosphorus
A) primarily dissolved in drinking water.
B) by inhalation.
C) by eating meat.
D) by eating plants.
E) by eating meat and by eating plants.
Q3) second trophic level
Q4) primary consumers
Q5) organism situated at the base of the energy pyramid
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Q1) when newly formed,it is deep,clear,few nutrients,and low primary productivity
Q2) Approximately,what percentage of the fish evaluated for their conservation status were found to be threatened?
A) 15%
B) 25%
C) 30%
D) 47%
E) 53%
Q3) Which of the following is a tree with needle-shaped leaves that are adaptations that minimize water loss?
A) cacti
B) conifer
C) broadleaf evergreen
D) deciduous angiosperms
E) mesquite
Q4) The surface ocean currents will circulate __________ in the Northern Hemisphere and __________ in the Southern Hemisphere.
Q5) Promoting sustainability requires us to recognize the __________ of our lifestyle.
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Q1) tissue that forms a padding between joints
Q2) Which of the following is the largest organ?
A) brain
B) lungs
C) liver
D) stomach
E) skin
Q3) Which of the following does NOT happen when body temperature rises above normal?
A) sweat glands secrete more sweat
B) endocrine gland secretion of hormones that stimulate activity slow
C) smooth muscle in blood vessels constrict
D) skeletal muscles in the chest contract more frequently
E) all of these happen when body temperature rises
Q4) Controls body functioning through hormones
Q5) Continued research involving __________ cells may provide cures for many diseases in the future.
Q6) composed of stratified squamous cells
Q7) Removes carbon dioxide and wastes; receives and delivers oxygen
Q8) holds body parts together
Q9) cells are unbranched with tapered ends Page 21
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Q1) protein that makes up the thin filaments of muscle
Q2) During exercise,which pathway produces the most energy?
A) lactate fermentation
B) anaerobic respiration
C) aerobic respiration
D) use of stored ATP
E) all of these produce the same amount of energy
Q3) How many pairs of ribs do male and female humans have?
A) 12 in males and 13 in females
B) 12 in males and 11 in females
C) 12 in males and 12 in females
D) 14 in males and 12 in females
E) 14 in males and 14 in females
Q4) When muscles contract,the opposing muscle will
A) pull.
B) push.
C) contract.
D) relax.
E) shorten.
Q5) found in all vertebrates

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Q1) Which of the following is a unique feature of the diaphragm?
A) It is the only smooth muscle in the human body.
B) It is the only smooth muscle that can be voluntarily controlled.
C) It is only found in humans.
D) It is the only skeletal muscle that is under involuntary control.
E) None of these are unique features.
Q2) a genetic disorder in which blood fails to clot properly
A)hemophilia
B)anemia.
C)emphysema..
D)atherosclerosis
E)hypertension
Q3) The human respiratory surface consists of
A) the walls of alveoli and pulmonary capillaries
B) the walls of alveoli and pulmonary capillaries and their basement membranes
C) the walls of bronchioles, alveoli, and capillaries
D) the walls of bronchioles, alveoli, capillaries, and their basement membranes
E) the walls of alveoli
Q4) the windpipe
Q5) structure not found in the human respiratory system
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Q1) ____ is a particularly dangerous strain of a residential bacteria because it doesn't respond to antibiotic treatment.
A) C. tetani
B) MRSA (methicillin resistant S. aureus)
C) C. diphtheria
D) E. coli
E) H. pylori
Q2) In adaptive immune responses,which of the following is NOT capable of acting as an antigen-presenting cell?
A) T cell
B) macrophage
C) dendritic cell
D) B cell
E) all of these are capable
Q3) Worldwide,how many people currently have AIDS?
A) 33 thousand
B) 3 million
C) 33 million
D) 33 billion
E) 3 thousand
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT contained in gastric fluids?
A) acid
B) mucus
C) pepsin
D) salivary amylase
E) all of these are contained in gastric fluids
Q2) Referring to the above diagram,which structure is responsible for storing bile?
A) F
B) G
C) H
D) I
E) J
Q3) Excess energy is stored in ___ mainly in ___.
A) chemical bonds---adipose tissue
B) chemical bonds---carbohydrates
C) carbon atoms---adipose tissue
D) carbon atoms---carbohydrates
E) hydrogen bonds---water
Q4) the process that occurs first in urine formation
Q5) the process that returns glucose to the blood
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Q1) Which of the following happens when you focus on an object close up?
A) the ciliary muscles contract and the lens flattens
B) the ciliary muscles relax and the lens bulges
C) the ciliary muscles contract and the lens bulges
D) the cilliary muscles relax and the lens flattens
E) more than one of these occur when you focus on an object close up
Q2) Which of the following can be an effect of Ecstacy?
A) reduced anxiety
B) more sensitive to your environment
C) bleeding from all of your body openings
D) death
E) all of these can be effects of Ecstacy
Q3) When sodium ions flow into the axon cytoplasm,
A) the membrane potential reverses.
B) the cytoplasm becomes more positively charged.
C) the interstitial fluid becomes more negatively charged.
D) an action potential is generated.
E) all of these things happen.
Q4) blurry vision caused by a cloudy lens
Q5) works with the pituitary to maintain homeostatic control
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Q1) thyroid gland
Q2) This hormone induces protein synthesis and cell division in young animals.
Q3) Phthalates mimic ____ in the human body.
A) testosterone
B) insulin
C) glucose
D) estrogen
E) iodine
Q4) hypothalamus
Q5) The main regulator of calcium blood levels is
A) the parathyroid glands.
B) the thyroid glands.
C) the hypothalamus.
D) the anterior pituitary gland.
E) the posterior pituitary gland.
Q6) This gland plays a central role in the immune response.
Q7) The gland at letter "D" is the __________.
Q8) thymus gland
Q9) posterior lobe of pituitary
Q10) Calcitonin is produced at letter _____. Page 28
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Q1) Of the following,which is the most common STD in the United States?
A) chlamydia
B) genital herpes
C) trichomoniasis
D) HIV-AIDS
E) gonorrhea
Q2) Which of the following bacterial-caused STDs is resistant to all currently used antibiotics?
A) gonorrhea
B) chlamydia
C) siphilis
D) trichomoniasis
E) genital herpes
Q3) What is the fate of most of a woman's mature eggs?
A) they are fertilized
B) they are stored for future use
C) they die
D) they are reset back to primary oocytes
E) they stay immature
Q4) The organ at letter ________ is the male counterpart to the female ovary.
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Q1) Cells rich in chlorophyll and thus the sites of photosynthesis are in layers represented by the letter _____.
Q2) leaves can be modified into various structures including carnivorous plant traps
Q3) The oxygen needed by plants for metabolism is ultimately derived from
A) aerobic respiration.
B) photosynthesis.
C) anaerobic respiration.
D) the atmosphere.
E) lightning discharges.
Q4) Mycorrhizae are
A) roots.
B) bacteria.
C) fungus roots.
D) isolated plants.
E) small animals found in agricultural soils.
Q5) pericycle
Q6) This tissue is for pliable support.
Q7) also known as runners
Q8) palisade mesophyll
Q9) spongy mesophyll Page 31
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Q1) Four of the five answers listed below are haploid.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) gametophyte
B) zygote
C) sperm
D) egg
E) gamete
Q2) What occurs in monocot seed germination that does NOT occur in eudicot seed germination?
A) starch hydrolysis
B) the cotyledon does not emerge from the seed
C) the embryonic root emerges last
D) meristem cells do not start dividing until the seedling is fully established
E) all of these things occur in both monocot and eudicot seed germination
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a fruit?
A) tomatoes
B) strawberries
C) sweet potatoes
D) pineapple
E) apples
Q4) ovary

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