Introduction to Biology Solved
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Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles that govern living organisms and life processes. Students will explore topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. The course emphasizes the scientific method, critical thinking, and real-world applications of biological concepts. Laboratory experiences are integrated to reinforce theoretical knowledge and develop essential skills in observation, analysis, and experimentation. This course serves as a foundational entry point for further studies in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook Principles of Biology 1st Edition by Robert Brooker
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discovery-based science and hypothesis testing are the two major scientific approaches that help us understand biology.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Little scientific evidence is necessary when formulating a theory.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A researcher at sea discovers an island that contains a large number of boa constrictors and few other species.In order to determine why so many boa constrictors dominate the habitat the researcher would need to focus at the level of a(n)
A)cell.
B)organ.
C)organism.
D)population.
E)ecosystem.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life I: Atoms, Molecules, and Water
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Q1) Using the periodic table as a tool,identify the atomic characteristic that would most quickly and efficiently identify any single element.
A)number of shells
B)number of neutrons
C)number of protons and electrons
D)number of neutrons and electrons
Answer: C
Q2) If orange juice has a pH of 4 then it can be described as A)having a H<sup>+</sup> concentration is 4.
B)an acidic solution.
C)an alkaline solution.
D)an acidic solution with a H<sup>+</sup> concentration of 4.
E)None of these choices are correct.
Answer: B
Q3) Isotopes are different forms of the same element.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: The Chemical Basis of Life II: Organic Molecules
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Q1) ________ is a polymer of glucose.
A)Triglyceride
B)Cellulose
C)DNA
D)Protein
E)RNA
Answer: B
Q2) All amino acids within a protein are either polar charged or polar uncharged.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Glycogen is to animal cells as ________ is to plant cells.
A)lipid
B)cellulose
C)starch
D)protein
E)sugar
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: General Features of Cells
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Q1) The flagellum is composed of a 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules called the axoneme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you tear your Achilles tendon you are damaging ECM-rich ________ tissue.
A)epithelial
B)hepatic
C)nervous
D)muscle
E)connective
Q3) What organelle and function pair can best explain their ability to divide?
A)Chloroplasts and peroxisomes because they both have their own DNA.
B)Mitochondria and chloroplasts due to their association with endosymbiosis theory.
C)Ribosomes and mitochondria as each is a result of regression theory.
D)Peroxisomes and lysosomes are both derived from engulfed bacteria.
Q4) Fluorescence microscopy enables researchers to label and visualize a particular type of cellular protein or organelle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Membrane Structure, Transport, and Cell
Junctions
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Q1) How does a macrophage (immune cell)consume a bacteria?
A)Phagocytosis
B)Endocytosis
C)Exocytosis
D)Receptor-mediated endocytosis
E)Pinocytosis
Q2) Ion gradients across the membrane drive numerous cellular functions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The movement of sucrose and H<sup>+</sup> into the cell by the same membrane protein reflects the actions of what type of transporter?
A)Voltage-gated channel.
B)Mechanosensitive channel.
C)Uniporter.
D)Symporter.
E)Antiporter.
Q4) Unlike animals,plants lack a cell junction where small molecules can move from one cell to another cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Energy, Enzymes, and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) In addition to ATP,what are the end products of glycolysis?
A)CO<sub>2</sub> and NADH
B)CO<sub>2</sub> and pyruvate
C)H<sub>2</sub>O,NADH,and citrate
D)NADH and pyruvate
E)CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O
Q2) Substrate phosphorylation occurs when protons pass through ATP synthase and combine with oxygen to make water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The equation,C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> + 6O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\)6CO<sub>2</sub> + 6H<sub>2</sub>O (ATP + Heat),describes what process?
A)photosynthesis
B)anaerobic metabolism
C)glycolysis
D)cell fermentation
E)cell respiration
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
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Q1) When NADP<sup>+</sup>
A)accepts electrons in the light reaction,it is reduced to form NADPH.
B)donates electrons in the light reaction,it is oxidized to form NADPH.
C)donates electrons in the light reaction,it is reduced to form NADPH.
D)donates electrons in the light reaction,it is hydrolyzed to form NADPH.
E)accepts electrons in the light reaction,it is oxidized to form NADPH.
Q2) How might a plant cope with the fact that the Calvin cycle uses more ATP than NADPH,yet produces roughly the same amount of both energy intermediates in photosystems I and II?
A)Electron flow rate can be increased,increasing both ATP and NADPH production.
B)Plants often increase the amount of NADP reductase,thereby increasing NADPH production to match ATP output.
C)Photosynthesis can revert from a noncyclic to cyclic electron flow,producing more ATP than NADPH.
D)Increase the electrochemical gradient for H<sup>+</sup> across the thylakoid membrane,producing more ATP but not NADPH.
E)More pigment can be rapidly created for greater photosynthetic capacity,producing equal amounts of ATP and NADPH.
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Chapter 8: Cell Communication
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Q1) If epinephrine increases glycogen metabolism in muscle cells it would have the same function in brain cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) G-protein coupled,enzyme-linked,and ligand-gated ion channel receptors are similar in that they
A)associate with a protein bound to GDP or GTP.
B)are all linked to protein kinase activation.
C)change their conformation when bound to a hormone.
D)bind similar hormones.
E)open ion channels.
Q3) The process through which cells can detect and respond to signals in their extracellular environment is
A)sensory response.
B)reception.
C)cell communication.
D)cell sensation.
E)transduction.
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acid Structure, DNA Replication, and
Chromosome Structure
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Q1) If there is 28% adenine,then there must be 28% cytosine for the DNA composition of a particular organism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many replication forks are there at an origin of replication?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q3) Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that can synthesize DNA from an RNA template.What DNA sequence is produced from an RNA molecule with the sequence 5'AUUGACGGU3'?
A)3'UAACUGCCA5'
B)5'TTTCTGCCT3'
C)3'TAACTGCCA5'
D)5'ATTCAGCCT3'
E)3'TUUCTGCCU5'
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Chapter 10: Gene Expression at the Molecular Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many nucleotides are contained in a single codon?
A)1
B)3
C)4
D)6
E)9
Q2) What basic features of transcription is NOT shared by both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A)Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic genes have a promoter site.
B)RNA polymerase transcribes genes in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
C)Gene transcription involves initiation,elongation,and termination in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
D)The complexity of protein components involved in transcription is similar for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
E)The initiation of transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes involves the interactions of more than one protein.
Q3) In eukaryotes,40S and 60S combine to form a 100S ribosome.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Gene Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The general transcription factor TFIID
A)recognizes the enhancer.
B)recognizes the TATA box.
C)recognizes the silencer.
D)transcribes mRNA.
E)is a silencer.
Q2) MicroRNAs (miRNAs)
A)are long RNA molecules.
B)silence the expression of specific mRNAs.
C)silence the expression of any mRNA present in the cytoplasm.
D)are cut by an enzyme called transcriptase.
E)are found only in animals.
Q3) Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes require a promoter region for gene transcription.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Small effector molecules directly bind the DNA they regulate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Mutation, DNA Repair, and Cancer
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Q1) Larger genes are usually more likely to incur a mutation than smaller genes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most oncogenes encode proteins that function in cell growth signaling pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The timing of a mutation during development has negligible effects on the severity of the genetic defect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Study the mutations below and determine which is the most likely to lead to cancer.
A)A mutation that increases the affinity of Rb for E2F
B)A mutation that prevents the phosphorylation of Rb
C)A mutation that prevents E2F from associating with DNA
D)A mutation that caused the cyclin-dependent kinase that interacts with Rb to be overactive
E)All of these are mutations that would lead to cancer
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14
Chapter 13: The Eukaryotic Cell Cycle, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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Q1) A cell undergoing meiosis that contains sister chromatids may be either haploid or diploid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) At prometaphase,the sister chromatids are organized into a single row in the center of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following mutations will not alter the amount of genetic material on the chromosomes?
A)duplication
B)inversion
C)simple translocation
D)deficiency
E)inversion and simple translocation
Q4) Sexual life cycles include both haploid and diploid stages.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) In humans,freckles are inherited via a simple Mendelian pattern.A male is heterozygous for freckles,and he has freckles.If he marries a woman who is also heterozygous for freckles,______ percent of their children will be freckled and __________ percent of their children will be heterozygous.
A)100%,100%
B)75%,50%
C)75%,25%
D)50%,50%
E)100%,75%
Q2) The single-factor crosses performed by Mendel support the observation that
A)the two alleles for a given gene are distributed randomly among an individual's gametes.
B)the two alleles for a given gene are found within the same gamete.
C)if the recessive alleles for two different genes are on the same chromosome,they will never be found within the same gamete.
D)only the dominant alleles for a given trait are found in an organism's gametes.
E)if the dominant alleles for two different genes are on different chromosomes,they will never be found within the same gametE.
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Chapter 15: Genetics of Viruses and Bacteria
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Q1) Adenoviruses are a frequent cause of acute upper respiratory tract infections in humans.Adenoviruses have a genome composed of double-stranded DNA,they are non-enveloped and their capsid contains a "fiber" protein that is analogous in function to the spike glycoproteins of HIV.Latency of the adenovirus can occur in lymphoid tissues.Based on this information,which of the following would be the best type of drug to develop to combat adenoviruses in humans?
A)a drug that inhibits reverse transcriptase
B)a drug that binds to fiber protein receptors in human cells
C)a drug that can switch off latency
D)a combination of drugs that inhibit reverse transcriptase and that binds to fiber protein receptors in human cells
E)a combination of drugs that inhibit reverse transcriptase,binds to fiber protein receptors in human cells,and switches off latency
Q2) Which of the following characteristics do all viruses have in common?
A)they are all incapable of replicating their own nucleic acid
B)they all have DNA genomes
C)they all have a broad host range
D)they all infect eukaryotes
E)they all contain a capsid surrounded by a fatty envelope
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Chapter 16: Genetic Technology
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Q1) A small amount of DNA is collected from a crime scene.However,the amount of DNA collected is insufficient to perform the necessary experiments to link a suspect to the crime.Which method could be utilized to increase the amount of DNA?
A)microarray analysis
B)gel electrophoresis
C)polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
D)fluorescent labeling of DNA
E)DNA sequencing
Q2) Primers are used in both PCR and in DNA sequencing.What is the purpose of the primers?
A)to provide a 3'- OH for DNA polymerase to build a new DNA strand
B)to terminate synthesis of the growing DNA strand
C)to add nucleotides to a growing DNA strand
D)to separate the DNA template strands
E)to separate various-sized DNA products
Q3) The main purpose of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is to generate many copies of a region of DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Genomes, Repetitive Sequences, and
Bioinformatics
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Q1) Researchers are interested in the genomes of prokaryotic species for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A)bacteria cause many diseases that affect people,plants,and animals.
B)bacteria reveal modes of infection.
C)bacteria are more highly advanced than humans.
D)the origin of the first eukaryotic cell probably involved a union between an archaeal and a bacterial cell.
E)All of the choices are reasons for studying genomes of prokaryotic species.
Q2) Which pair of organisms would have the most homologous b-globin genes?
A)dolphin and bumble bee
B)catfish and crocodile
C)snake and mouse
D)frog and cheetah
E)human and chimpanzee
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE of highly repetitive sequences?
A)They play a vital role in transcription.
B)They play a vital role in translation.
C)They can be found millions of times in a eukaryotic genome.
D)They typically increase fitness of the organism.
Page 19
E)They typically decrease fitness of the organism.
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Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life
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Q1) The Carboniferous Period is known for
A)The formation of rich coal deposits.
B)The first examples of terrestrial gymnosperms.
C)The appearance of the first angiosperms.
D)A rapid increase in the diversity of marine invertebrates.
E)The appearance of the first true mammals.
Q2) Flowering plants originated during the A)Permian Period.
B)Tertiary Period.
C)Devonian Period.
D)Cretaceous PerioD.
E)Jurassic Period.
Q3) Genetic material (DNA and RNA)are found in three distinct organelles in eukaryotic cells.What are these organelles and which type of relationship may have lead to their formation?
A)Chloroplast,mitochondria,nucleus,endosymbiotic.
B)Chloroplast,lysosomes,nucleus,endosymbiotic.
C)Nucleus,Golgi body,endoplasmic reticulum,symbiotiC.
D)Mitochondria,chloroplast,nucleus,parasitic.
E)Lysosomes,mitochondria,chloroplast,parasitic.
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Chapter 19: An Introduction to Evolution and Population Genetics
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Q1) While hiking in Central Florida,you are lucky enough to see many swallowtail tiger butterflies.You observe that there are two types,or morphs,of the butterflies - a yellow morph and a black morph.What is a likely explanation for this?
A)The swallowtail tiger butterfly has undergone artificial selection.
B)The swallowtail tiger butterfly has undergone gene inversion for the gene that determines color.
C)The swallowtail tiger butterfly has more than one allele for the gene that determines color.
D)The swallowtail tiger butterfly has a single allele for the gene that determines color.
Q2) The term evolution is used to describe
A)heritable changes in characteristics of a population from one generation to the next.
B)any change in an individual that can be observed.
C)changes in the number of individuals in a population due to mating.
D)the ability of an individual organism to pass on what it has learned,through experience,to the next generation.
E)any change in an individual organism that occurs in somatic cells.
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Chapter 20: Origin of Species and Macroevolution
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Q1) A tick population in a rural,wooded area uses deer as its primary host species.Eventually,humans begin to move into the area,bringing their pets along with them.Certain individuals within the tick population start to use dogs as their primary hosts,and eventually start to prefer dogs over deer.Other individuals continue to use deer for their primary host.Could this difference in host preference lead to speciation? Why or why not? Select all that aplly.
A) Yes,because temporal isolation could occur due to differences in host quality.
B) No,because the ticks inhabit the same region and therefore experience the same mechanisms of evolution.
C) Yes,because the ticks' host preference may be inherited,leading to an accumulation of genetic differences between ticks that use deer and ticks that use dogs.
D) No,because one of the hosts will lead to higher fitness and the ticks that prefer the other host will be eradicated.
E) No,because speciation cannot occur without geographic separation.
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Chapter 21: Taxonomy and Systematics
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a principle used when constructing cladograms?
A)All species or higher taxa are placed on tips in a phylogenetic tree.
B)All species or higher taxa are placed on nodes in a phylogenetic tree.
C)Each cladogram branch point should have one or more shared derived characters that are common to all species above the branch point,unless the character is later modified.
D)All shared derived characters appear together only once in a cladogram unless they arose independently during evolution more than once.
Q2) A modern goal of systematics is to classify organisms based on similarity of form and function,regardless of their evolutionary relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Of the taxonomic groups listed below,which is the broadest (contains the most species)?
A)Order
B)Class
C)Family
D)Phylum
E)Kingdom
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Chapter 22: Microorganisms: The Archaea, Bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) The difference between an akinete and endospore is that
A)Akinetes are whole cells filled with food,whereas endospores are bodies produced inside of cells.
B)Akinetes are not capable of locomotion whereas endospores move freely.
C)Akinetes cannot resist stressful conditions whereas endospores can.
D)Endospores cannot resist stressful conditions whereas akinetes can.
E)Akinetes are reproductive structures whereas endospores are dormant,resistant structures.
Q2) Microcystis aeruginosa is a species of cyanobacteria.What CANNOT be true of this species?
A)It synthesizes organic molecules.
B)It is an obligate anaerobe.
C)Its cells contain an extensive thylakoid.
D)It uses ammonia to produce proteins.
E)It secretes mucilagE.
Q3) Most extremophiles are archaea.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Plants
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the life cycles of streptophyte algae and plants?
A)The diploid generation of streptophyte algae is unicellular whereas the diploid generation of plants is multicellular.
B)The diploid generation of streptophyte algae is multicellular whereas the diploid generation of plants is unicellular.
C)The haploid generation of streptophyte algae is multicellular whereas the diploid generation of plants is unicellular.
D)The haploid and diploid generations of both steptophyte algae and plants are unicellular.
E)The haploid and diploid generations of both streptophyte algae and plants are multicellular.
Q2) Alternation of generations means
A)One phase of the life cycle takes place on land and the other in water.
B)One phase of the life cycle is photosynthetic and the other is heterotrophic.
C)One phase of the life cycle is diploid and the other is haploid.
D)One phase of the life cycle is unicellular and the other is multicellular.
E)One phase of the life cycle is motile and the other is stationary.
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Chapter 24: Fungi
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Q1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is known to be used for
A)brewing and winemaking.
B)food for reindeer.
C)causing lung disease.
D)being a hallucinogenic mushroom.
E)causing oak trees to shed their leaves prematurely.
Q2) High levels of the fungus Arthrobotrys anchonia were found in a local environment.What do you predict will be the consequence of this fungus?
A)Vegetation levels will decline drastically.
B)Since this is a major pollutant in sewage wastewater,an investigation into the source of the fungus must be undertaken.
C)Lichen populations will increase.
D)Nematode populations will decline.
E)Humans in the surrounding area will be vulnerable to pneumonia.
Q3) Reproduction by asexual spores in fungi allows dispersal to a new location but doesn't facilitate invasion of new KINDS of habitats.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Animal Diversity: Invertebrates
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Q1) Some vertebrates like frogs and humans do not have a conspicuous tail,yet even humans have the remnants of one known as the A)sacrum. B)lumbar.
C)fundus. D)coccyx.
Q2) Triploblastic animals are animals that
A)form three separate blastulas from a single embryo.
B)produce three eggs,each of which forms a single blastula.
C)form three blastopores in each blastula.
D)have a blastula composed of three cells.
E)have three germ layers.
Q3) A pseudocoelom is a cavity that develops into the coelom during embryonic development.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gastrulation is brought about by an invagination of the blastula.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Animal Diversity: Vertebrates
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Q1) Hagfish are classified as vertebrates,but they do not have a vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Marsupials are distinguished by A)a marsupium.
B)mammary glands.
C)opposable thumbs.
D)nails.
Q3) Sharks have cartilaginous skeletons because bone-forming ability had not yet evolved in vertebrates when they originated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A frog loses its ability to undergo buccal pumping.What must happen to compensate for this loss?
A)The pumping of blood from the atria to the ventricle must increase.
B)The exchange of gases through the skin must increase.
C)The pumping of blood from the ventricle to the body must increase.
D)The diffusion of wastes through the kidneys must increase.
E)The pumping of blood from the ventricle to the atria must increasE.
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Chapter 27: An Introduction to Flowering Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Experiments suggest that the KNOX protein is closely associated with what plant hormone during the induction of leaf primordia?
A)auxin
B)ethanol
C)abscisic acid
D)ethylene
E)gibberellic acid
Q2) A vascular bundle
A)contains xylem and phloem.
B)is not found in leaves.
C)is usually scattered in the stem of a eudicot.
D)is on the outer surface of a root.
E)is very distinct in the apical meristem.
Q3) In terms of adaptation and diversity,what stage of the alternation of generations in flowering plants is analogous to the production of hundreds of fertilized eggs from a pair of wood frogs?
A)gametophyte stage
B)sporophyte stage
C)embryogenic stage
D)gametogentic stage
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Chapter 28: Flowering Plants: Plant Behavior
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Q1) Plant hormones bind specific cellular receptor molecules that trigger gene expression responses.Which statement is correct concerning these responses?
A)Only cells lacking receptors can bind hormones.
B)Only cells in the meristem can respond.
C)Only cells that express the appropriate receptors can bind hormones.
D)Only cells that have been previously activated can bind hormones.
E)None of these choices is correct.
Q2) Several plants of the same type are grown individually under separate glass covers.One plant is attacked by a herbivore.This plant will be able to use __________ to induce defenses in _________ but not _________.
A)Jasmonic acid;nearby plants;itself
B)Systemin;nearby plants;itself
C)Jasmonic acid;itself;nearby plants
D)Auxin;itself;nearby plants
Q3) Select the reaction that is most likely to be a tropism.
A)Flowers blooming when it is warm
B)Production of aerenchyma
C)Plants bending away from a heat source
D)Induction of seed dormancy
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Flowering Plants: Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Potassium deficiency in plants is most common on light,sandy soils.This is likely because:
A)percolation of water through sandy soils leaches potassium from the soil.
B)roots grown in sandy soil can't absorb potassium.
C)potassium ions are too tightly bound to sand particles to be used by plants.
D)plants grown in sandy soil don't require potassium.
Q2) If scientists want to develop plants that can withstand cold conditions they would breed for the ability of the plant to increase solutes in cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The water potential of a flaccid cell you are studying is -1.5.What is its solute potential?
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Chapter 30: Flowering Plants: Reproduction
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Q1) Flowers that have all four floral parts are said to be:
A)perfect.
B)complete.
C)whorled.
D)finite.
E)infinitE.
Q2) A basic difference between self-pollination and cross-pollination is:
A)the method of pollen delivery.
B)whether insects are involved in pollination.
C)where the pollen came from.
D)whether the pollen germinateD.
E)how often pollination occurs.
Q3) Double fertilization is important to the reproductive process because it produces:
A)both the zygote and the endosperm.
B)a reaction that keeps the plant from dying.
C)a double portion of endosperm.
D)nutrition for the seeD.
E)None of these is truE.
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Chapter 31: Animal Bodies and Homeostasis
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Q1) The energy expenditure of a mammal at rest under controlled conditions is referred to as its
A)basal metabolic rate.
B)standardized metabolic rate.
C)baseline metabolic rate.
D)activated metabolic rate.
E)total metabolic ratE.
Q2) All of the following are methods used to exchange heat with the environment except A)radiation.
B)conduction.
C)convection.
D)evaporation.
E)diffusion.
Q3) Homeostasis refers to the property of maintaining particular physiological variables such as body temperature and solute concentrations absolutely constant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Neuroscience I: Structure, Function, and
Evolution of Nervous Systems
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Q1) The multi-purpose fluid that bathes the the central nervous system is called the A)cerebrospinal fluid.
B)interstitial fluid.
C)lymph.
D)blooD.
E)arachnoid fluid.
Q2) In a neuron at rest,the membrane is most permeable to A)potassium.
B)sodium.
C)chloride.
D)calcium.
E)magnesium.
Q3) Activities like playing a musical instrument regularly can affect the size of brain regions involved in performing these activities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Overall brain size across mammals (e.g. ,an elephant vs.a bat)is a good predictor of behavioral complexity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Neuroscience II: Sensory Systems
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Q1) You turn on the shower and check the water temperature with your hand.Your brain is able to monitor increasing temperature because the thermosensitive neurons in your skin
A)transmit action potentials to different brain regions as the water warms up.
B)transmit bigger action potentials to the brain as the water warms up.
C)gradually adapt to the stimulus.
D)transmit action potentials at a greater rate when the water warms up.
E)integrate temperature information.
Q2) In the dark,the Na<sup>+</sup> channels in the outer segments of rod cells are
A)open.
B)closed.
C)primarily affected by inhibitory neurotransmitter input.
D)important in making the cell hyperpolarized in this resting state.
Q3) Where do you predict that the highest density of mechanoreceptors in the skin would be located?
A)in the hands and face
B)at the joints of the the limbs
C)on the dorsal side of the body
D)on the soles of the feet
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Muscular-Skeletal Systems
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Q1) Imagine you have extracted myosin molecules from both fast and slow twitch muscle fibers and are measuring the rate at which these proteins hydrolyze ATP.What would these relative rates of ATP hydrolysis be?
A)fast twitch fiber > slow twitch fiber
B)slow twitch fiber > fast twitch fiber
C)slow twitch fiber = fast twitch fiber
Q2) The type of muscle that typically surrounds hollow tubes and organs like the stomach is
A)smooth muscle.
B)skeletal muscle.
C)cardiac muscle.
D)striated muscle.
E)voluntary musclE.
Q3) You would expect to find higher myoglobin levels in oxidative muscle fibers than in glycolytic muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Q1) Which hormone increases the absorption of glucose by the body's cells?
A)insulin
B)glucagon
C)adrenocorticotropin
D)leptin
E)adrenaline
Q2) "Gluconeogenesis" is the process in which
A)glucose levels are increased in the blood through the breakdown of carbohydrates.
B)glucose levels are decreased in the blood through the breakdown of carbohydrates.
C)glucose levels are increased in the blood by synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources.
D)glucose levels are decreased in the blood by synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources.
E)amino acids are generated for processes like building muscle tissuE.
Q3) All sugars are absorbed via secondary active transport.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Circulatory Systems
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Q1) Which component of the blood is most important for clotting?
A)plasma
B)leukocytes
C)erythrocytes
D)platelets
E)All of the choices listed for this question are important for clotting.
Q2) While shopping at your local drugstore,you stop at the blood pressure machine.It measures your blood pressure as 115/75 (good-that's healthy!).This number means that
A)arterial pressure is 115 mm Hg when the ventricles contract and 75 mm Hg in between ventricular contractions.
B)arterial pressure is 75 mm Hg when the ventricles contract and 115 mm Hg in between ventricular contractions.
C)arterial pressure is 115 mm Hg when the atria contract and 75 mm Hg in between atrial contractions.
D)your sinoatrial node generates a 115 mV signal and your atrioventricular node generates a 75 mV signal.
E)your sinoatrial node generates a 75 mV signal and your atrioventricular node amplifies this to a 75 mV signal.
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Systems
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Q1) What is the correct sequence of structures through which air passes through on the way into the mammalian lung?
A)pharynx \(\rarr\) larynx \(\rarr\) trachea \(\rarr\) bronchi \(\rarr\) bronchioles \(\rarr\) alveoli
B)larynx \(\rarr\) pharynx \(\rarr\) trachea \(\rarr\) bronchi \(\rarr\) bronchioles \(\rarr\) alveoli
C)pharynx \(\rarr\) trachea\(\rarr\) larynx \(\rarr\) bronchi \(\rarr\) bronchioles
\(\rarr\) alveoli
D)bronchi\(\rarr\) bronchioles \(\rarr\) pharynx \(\rarr\) larynx \(\rarr\) trachea \(\rarr\) alveoli
E)alveoli \(\rarr\) bronchioles\(\rarr\) bronchi \(\rarr\) trachea \(\rarr\) larynx \(\rarr\) pharynx
Q2) The respiratory pigment you would find in a blue crab or octopus is
A)hemocyanin.
B)hemoglobin.
C)hemophilin.
D)ferritin.
E)calmodulin.
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Chapter 38: Excretory Systems and the Homeostasis of Internal Fluids
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Q1) Diabetes mellitus results from a disorder of glucose uptake by systemic cells and can result in a number of symptoms including high levels of blood glucose and the presence of glucose in the urine .Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for the presence of glucose in the urine?
A)The reabsorption capacity of the kidney for glucose is exceeded.
B)A lack of sodium in the filtrate blocks the function of the Na<sup>+</sup>/glucose symport protein.
C)High levels of glucose interfere with ADH function.
D)The high levels of glucose induce a "dehydrated" state that promotes production of a large amount of dilute urine.
E)None of the choices given are a logical explanation for this observation.
Q2) The osmoregulatory and ionoregulatory problems facing a saltwater fish are
A)loss of water and loss of ions.
B)loss of water and gain of ions.
C)gain of water and loss of ions.
D)gain of water and gain of ions.
E)buildup of urea in tissues.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Endocrine Systems
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Q1) This hormone does not play a role in the female reproductive system.
A)estradiol
B)progesterone
C)gonadotropin-releasing hormone
D)follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones
E)insulin
Q2) In a mammal that you are studying,blood sodium levels are decreasing sharply.To correct this problem,which hormone might you try to administer?
A)cortisol
B)aldosterone
C)estrogen
D)antidiuretic hormone
E)testosterone
Q3) Which of these gland-hormone pairs is mismatched?
A)pancreas-insulin
B)anterior pituitary-growth hormone
C)thyroid-thyroid hormone
D)adrenal-parathyroid hormone
E)ovaries-progesterone
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Chapter 40: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Q1) What is true of the corpus luteum?
A)Secretions of the corpus luteum stimulate LH and FSH secretion.
B)Secretions of the corpus luteum prepare the uterus for implantation of the embryo.
C)Secretions of the corpus luteum induce maturation of primary oocytes.
D)The major hormone secreted from the corpus luteum is estradiol.
E)The major hormone secreted from the corpus luteum is LH.
Q2) All types of internal fertilization require
A)specialized anatomical structures.
B)a penis in the male.
C)transfer of a spermatophore to the female reproductive tract.
D)a terrestrial environment.
Q3) Mesoderm gives rise to
A)epidermis.
B)respiratory tract.
C)digestive tract.
D)skeletal muscle.
E)peripheral nervous system.
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Chapter 41: Immune Systems
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Q1) During inflammation,blood vessels are constricted to prevent leakage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
A)macrophage;class II MHC protein
B)B cell;immunoglobulin
C)B cell;IL-2
D)helper T cell;CD4
E)cytotoxic T cell;CD8
Q3) Which of the following is NOT involved in nonspecific defenses?
A)natural killer cells
B)monocytes
C)neutrophils
D)mast cells
E)B cells
Q4) The first stage of a specific immune response is the proliferation of B cells and T cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Animal Behavior
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Q1) What is the process through which many animals develop irreversible species-specific behavior patterns?
A)altruism
B)habituation
C)operant conditioning
D)associative learning
E)imprinting
Q2) Adaptive explanations for behaviors seek to get at ultimate causes for those behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What would you expect to observe in a species with a promiscuous mating system?
A)Intrasexual selection is very strong,with larger females.
B)Intrasexual selection is very strong,with larger males.
C)A female mates with a different male in every breeding season.
D)Males remain with females to help raise young.
E)Females interfere with any attempts by males to mate with other females.
Q4) Polyandry is the most common mating strategy.
A)True
B)False
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Ecology and the Physical Environment
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Q1) The global patterns of atmospheric circulation and precipitation occur because of A)the cooling of the land.
B)rising masses of warm air and sinking masses of cool air.
C)the greenhouse effect.
D)global differentials in sea surface temperature.
E)winds blowing off of the world's major mountain chains.
Q2) How do corals react when water temperatures are too high?
A)They migrate to areas with lower water temperatures.
B)They slow down their shell-building processes.
C)They expel their symbiotic algae.
D)They reproduce in large numbers.
E)They produce more pigment.
Q3) The northern boundary of the distribution of wild madder is defined by A)areas that never drop below freezing.
B)the 20<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> Celsius isotherm.
C)the presence of pollinating insects.
D)areas that do not go below 4.5<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> Celsius.
E)the frequency of low-intensity fires.
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Chapter 44: Population Ecology
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Q1) What total fertility rate would be most likely to cause the human population size to be 5 billion in the year 2100?
A)0
B)2.8
C)1.2
D)1.5
E)2.3
Q2) Several butterfly species that are edible to birds have very similar color patterns to the generally inedible monarch butterfly.This is best described as an example of what?
A)Müllerian mimicry
B)Batesian mimicry
C)camouflage
D)intimidation
E)aposematic coloration
Q3) Herbivory by rabbits on a grass species has an overall beneficial effect on the grass.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Community Ecology
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Q1) In succession,the ability of one species to make the area more suitable for another species is called
A)tolerance.
B)climax succession.
C)inhibition.
D)facilitation.
E)mutualism.
Q2) What information is used to mathematically calculate species diversity? Select all that apply.
A) Number of species in the community.
B) Relative abundance of species in the community.
C) Spatial distribution of species in the community.
D) Frequency of disturbance in the community.
E) Stability of the community over time.
Q3) A forest community consists of not only the trees and shrubs,but also the animals and microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) Animal biomass exceeds plant biomass in most ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What do you think would result if aquatic species of nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria suffered dramatic population decreases?
A)Algae populations would decline,but run off from industrial fixation would continue to provide enough nutrients to prevent their collapse.
B)Both the aquatic and terrestrial populations of autotrophs would collapse,with the end result that all life would cease to exist.
C)Algae populations would increase because they would have less competition for sunlight after the nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria were eliminated.
D)There would be no change in aquatic autotroph populations because nitrogen fixation by cyanobacteria is negligible.
Q3) Most of the Earth's phosphorus is trapped in sedimentary rocks.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Q1) According to the IUCN's data,a smaller percentage of bird than coral reef-dwelling fish species are endangered.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Captive breeding could potentially save all rare species.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The United States contains at least one biodiversity hot spot.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The range of the grizzly bear in the 48 contiguous United States is now less than 1% of what it was in 1800.What has been proposed to help maintain genetic variation in the remaining populations of this species?
A)protected corridors between all of the remaining populations
B)regular exchange of bears between isolated populations
C)preserving more small patches of forest
D)cloning of the most genetically diverse remaining females
E)establishment of new parks in Colorado and New Mexico
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