Introduction to Biology Review Questions
Course
Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles and concepts that govern living organisms. The course covers topics such as the structure and function of cells, genetics and heredity, evolution, biodiversity, ecology, and the interrelationships among organisms and their environments. Students will develop critical scientific skills through laboratory experiments, observations, and analysis, laying the groundwork for more advanced studies in biological sciences and related fields. This course emphasizes the relevance of biology to everyday life and highlights its role in addressing global challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 9th Edition by Peter Raven George B. Johnson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) From the time of the Greek Eratosthenes to the present day,scientists have been using the method of ___________ reasoning,in which general principles are applied to the analysis of specific cases.
A)inductive
B)deductive
C)conclusive
D)separative
Answer: B
Q2) Hypotheses which are consistent with the results of experimental testing are
A)accepted as scientific principles.
B)accepted without further question.
C)conditionally accepted.
D)modified and reworked until true.
E)rejected.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Nature of Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are 92 naturally occurring _______,each made up of atoms which contain a specific number of protons and a different arrangement of electrons.
A)minerals
B)elements
C)metals
D)molecules
Answer: B
Q2) Based on information provided,how is sulfer-35 being used in this experiment?
A)as a tag or label
B)as a reaction product
C)as a catalyst
D)as a reaction buffer
Answer: A
Q3) Based on information provided,which of the following best describes sulfer-35?
A)an atom
B)an isotope
C)an element
D)an anion
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Chemical Building Blocks of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specific amino acid sequence in a protein is its A)zero order structure.
B)primary structure.
C)secondary structure.
D)tertiary structure.
E)quaternary structurE.
Answer: B
Q2) Functional groups found in amino acids include all of the following except A)-NH<sub>2</sub>.
B)phosphate.
C)-COOH.
D)-OH.
E)alkyl (linked multiple carbons with hydrogens). Answer: B
Q3) Nucleic acids are created with A)phosphodiester bonds
B)peptide bonds
C)a phosphate and two fatty acids bonded to glycerol
D)sugar polymers
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure
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Q1) All _____ contain a plasma membrane.
A)animal cells
B)plants cells
C)nuclei
D)cells
Q2) The organelle involved in the oxygen-requiring process by which the energy in macromolecules is stored in ATP is the A)nucleus.
B)lysosome.
C)ER.
D)mitochondria.
E)chloroplasts.
Q3) Your research project involves characterizing the expression pattern of a nuclear pore protein.After using immunohistochemistry to fluorescently label the protein,you decide that you would like to capture the data as a 3-D image.Which microscope should you use?
A)phase-contrast microscope
B)fluorescence microscope
C)confocal microscope
D)scanning electron microscope
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Chapter 5: Membranes
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Q1) If you were to replace the phosphate group of a phospholipid with a fatty acid chain,you would have
A)glycerol.
B)a triglyceride.
C)cholesterol.
D)glycolipiD.
Q2) Which of the following is not a part of the sodium-potassium pump?
A)Three sodium ions bind to the cytoplasmic side of the protein.
B)Three sodium ions are translocated out of the cell.
C)Phosphate facilitates potassium ion binding to transport protein.
D)Two potassium ions are transported into the cell.
E)ATP binds to the protein which becomes phosphorylated (ADP is released).
Q3) While water continually orients phospholipids into a lipid bilayer,it does not fix the lipids permanently into position.Thus,the bilayer is considered to be _______ in nature.
A)static
B)fluid
C)fluctuating
D)charged
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Chapter 6: Energy and Metabolism
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Q1) The process of influencing the chemical bonds in a way that lowers the __________ needed to speed up a chemical reaction is called catalysis.
A)heat energy
B)free energy
C)activation energy
D)enzyme
Q2) Protein catalysts that speed up the various metabolic biological reactions in an organism are called A)substrates.
B)cofactors.
C)reactants.
D)products.
E)enzymes.
Q3) Enzymes catalyze chemical reactions by lowering the A)entropy.
B)free energy.
C)activation energy.
D)enthalpy.
E)calories.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) In muscle cells,fermentation produces not alcohol but A)ATP.
B)NADH.
C)pyruvate.
D)kinetic energy.
E)lactic acid.
Q2) The electron transport chain,a series of membrane-associated electron carriers,loses most of the energy by driving several transmembrane A)proton pumps.
B)electron pumps.
C)Na<sup>+</sup>/K<sup>+</sup> pumps.
D)active transport pumps.
E)water pumps.
Q3) Yeast cells under anaerobic conditions
A)die.
B)produce ethyl alcohol (ethanol).
C)produce oxygen.
D)switch to oxidative respiration.
E)push the glycolytic pathway backward.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Visible light not strongly absorbed by chlorophyls.
A)green
B)violet-blue
C)red
D)ultraviolet
E)yellow-orange
Q2) Sunburn is caused by which component of sunlight?
A)infrared rays
B)X rays
C)gamma rays
D)ultra violet rays
E)long wavelength rays
Q3) Embedded in the thylakoid membrane and protruding as knobs from the outer surface into the stroma,there are
A)enzymes that fix carbon dioxide.
B)proton channels that synthesize ATP.
C)chlorophyll a and b.
D)P<sub>680</sub> and P<sub>700</sub>.
E)specialized bundle sheath cells.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synaptic signaling requires which of the following to be released into the synaptic gap?
A)hormones
B)internal receptors
C)genes
D)neurotransmitters
E)lipids
Q2) You are planning to perform some protein-protein interaction studies to identify a receptor for a steroid hormone you have been working on.With which of the following types of cell extracts should you begin?
A)plasma membrane
B)extracellular
C)cytoplasmic
D)nuclear
Q3) Tight and anchoring _______ cause cells to adhere tightly to each other.
A)cells
B)proteins
C)signals
D)junctions
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Page 11
Chapter 10: How Cells Divide
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytoplasmic organelles are partitioned between two daughter cells.
A)G<sub>1</sub>
B)S
C)G<sub>2</sub>
D)M
E)C
Q2) Eukaryotic chromosomes are composed of a complex of 60% protein and 40% DNA.The name of this chemical complex is a A)histone complex.
B)chromatin.
C)histamine complex.
D)chromatiD.
E)centromerE.
Q3) In the human,the body cells (non-sex cells)contain two sets of chromosomes totaling A)2.
B)22.
C)44.
D)46.
E)23.
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Chapter 11: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reduction division that separates two haploid complements from each other is called A)mitosis. B)meiosis.
C)syngamy.
D)haploid division.
E)binary fission.
Q2) The homologous chromosomes (homologues)pair up during meiosis I.Each homologue pairs along its entire length.This process is called A)syngamy.
B)synapsis.
C)meiosis.
D)mitosis.
E)crossing over.
Q3) A process in which pairs of homologous complex chromosomes line up side by side. A)chiasma
B)homologue
C)kinetochore
D)synapsis
E)synaptonemal
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Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Knight followed up on attempts of English farmers to improve varieties of agriculture with his studies on garden peas.When he crossed two true breeding varieties,he found out a number of things about an inherited trait.Which of the following about inherited traits is false?
A)An inherited trait can be masked in some generations but may show up in future.
B)An inherited trait may show up in some offspring only.
C)An inherited trait may be represented more often than the others.
D)An inherited trait is always present in every generation.
Q2) The totality of the alleles present in an organism.
A)genotype
B)heterozygote
C)homozygote
D)phenotype
Q3) In a heterozygous individual the allele being expressed is
A)recessive.
B)masked.
C)redundant.
D)dominant.
E)epistatic.
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes Mapping and the MeiosisInheritance
Connection
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Q1) A genetic _____ contains the distances between the gene loci measured in terms of the frequency of recombination.
A)map
B)profile
C)construct
D)clone
Q2) If a XY individual had a deletion of the SYR gene,they would A)develop as a female.
B)have both male and female characteristics.
C)have ambiguous genitalia.
D)develop as a male.
Q3) The most common condition of trisomy,in which three copies of a chromosome are present instead of the normal two,is of chromosome A)X.
B)13.
C)15.
D)18.
E)21.
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Chapter 14: Dna: the Genetic Material
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Q1) In 1952,Hershey and Chase confirmed Avery's (1944)results that
A)proteins were the repositories for hereditary information.
B)DNA was the repository for hereditary information.
C)RNA was the repository for hereditary information.
D)proteins and DNA were the repositories for hereditary information.
E)transformation in bacterial cells induced changes in the host's somatic cells.
Q2) The lagging strand is replicated with stretches of Okazaki fragments and that is why its synthesis is considered to be
A)discontinuous.
B)continuous.
C)primed.
D)never stopping.
E)semiconservativE.
Q3) The chemical bond connecting one nucleotide with the next one along the nucleic acid chain is called a
A)C = C bond.
B)hydrogen bond.
C)hydrophobic bond.
D)phosphodiester bonD.
E)peptide bond.
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Chapter 15: Genes and How They Work
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Q1) Gene ________ refers to the combined processes of transcription and translation.
A)expression
B)replication
C)modification
D)regulation
Q2) The coded order of nucleotides in a DNA specifies the order of specific amino acids to be assembled into a polypeptide chain.This code is therefore called the ________ code.
A)mitochondrial
B)ribosomal
C)DNA
D)genetic
Q3) Prokaryotes have one type of RNA polymerase.Eukaryotes have ____ types of RNA polymerase.
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)16
E)64
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Control of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DNA-binding proteins of almost all regulatory proteins employ one of a small set of shapes that enable them to fit into the major groove of DNA.These shapes are called A)structural motifs.
B)DNA prints.
C)operons.
D)repressors.
E)transcriptional domains.
Q2) Regulatory proteins shut off transcription by binding to a site immediately in front of the promoter and often even overlapping the promotor.This site is referred to as the A)suppressor site.
B)operator site.
C)repressor site.
D)regulatory site.
E)transcriptional control sitE.
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Chapter 17: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _________ from Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used in genetic engineering involving crop plant genes.
A)restriction endonucleases
B)DNA
C)T<sub>i</sub> vector
D)T<sub>i</sub> plasmid
Q2) Agrobacterium is more difficult to use in genetic engineering procedures conducted on cereals such as corn,rice,and wheat because
A)it does not infect these types of plants.
B)it does not contain the correct restriction enzymes necessary for insertion.
C)its plasmids have been altered to be used only in broadleaf plants.
D)it interferes with the nitrogen fixing capabilities of narrow leaf plants.
Q3) Viruses and bacterial plasmids are used as ______ to insert foreign DNA into host cells and create recombinant genomes.
A)clones
B)vectors
C)endonucleases
D)subunits
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19
Chapter 18: Genomics
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Q1) ________ are silent copies of genes that have been inactivated by mutations.
A)Pseudogenes
B)Clones
C)Exons
D)Introns
Q2) Recombination frequency between genes can used to generate a
A)genetic map.
B)physical map.
C)restriction map.
D)haplotype map.
Q3) Given an ideal sequencing reaction of approximately 500 successive nucleotides (excluding overlap),how many sequencing reactions would be needed to determine the complete human genome?
A)3.2 billion
B)12.5 million
C)12.8 million
D)6.4 million
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cellular Mechanisms of Development
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Q1) A fertilized egg is called a _____________.
A)zygote
B)ovule
C)oocyte
D)blastocyst
Q2) The main difference between therapeutic cloning and reproductive cloning is that A)in therapeutic cloning,embryonic stem cells are extracted from the blastocyst,while in reproductive cloning,the blastocyst is kept intact and implanted into a surrogate mother. B)somatic cell nuclear transfer is used for therapeutic cloning,while gametic cell nuclear transfer is used in reproductive cloning,the blastocyst is kept intact and implanted into a surrogate mother.
C)unlike cells used for reproductive cloning,cells grown for therapeutic purposes do not display genetic imprinting problems.
D)unlike cells used for reproductive cloning,cells grown for therapeutic purposes do not require the destruction of embryos.
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21
Chapter 20: Genes Within Populations
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Q1) For a gene with two alternative alleles,a (frequency p)and a (frequency q),the term in the algebraic form of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the heterozygote genotype frequency is
A)p<sup>2</sup>.
B)q<sup>2</sup>.
C)2pq.
D)(p+q)<sup>2</sup>.
E)2Aa.
Q2) The fitness of an individual may depend on all of the following factors except A)life span of the individual.
B)climate change.
C)offspring produced per mating.
D)frequency of individual's phenotype in population.
E)presence of many pleiotropic genes.
Q3) Migration and hybridization between individuals of adjacent populations causes gene _______.
A)blending
B)flow
C)mutation
D)dominance
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Chapter 21: The Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) All vertebrates contain a similar pattern of organs,indicating that they are related to one another.This represents which of the following lines of evolutionary evidence?
A)fossil record
B)homology
C)convergent evolution
D)biogeography
E)development
Q2) The wings of birds and butterflies are examples of structures that resemble each other and have similar function,but are the result of parallel evolution in separate lineages.These structures are called
A)analogous structures.
B)homologous structures.
C)vestigial structures.
D)embryonic structures.
E)homozygous structures.
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Chapter 22: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Two populations that inhabit the same area but remain genetically distinct can best be called A)species.
B)subspecies (races).
C)polymorphiC.
D)allopatric species.
E)sympatric species.
Q2) The __________ __________ model assumes that evolution occurs in spurts,between which there are long periods of stasis with little evolutionary change.
Q3) Many species might coexist in a particular environment by occupying different areas called A)biomes.
B)habitats.
C)territories.
D)domains.
E)ranges.
Q4) A _______ is a group of organisms that differs in one or more characteristics from other groups,and does not hybridize or intermate extensively if they occur together in nature.
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Chapter 23: Systematics and the Phylogenetic Revolution
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Q1) Characteristics between the branch points of a cladogram that are shared by all organisms above the branch point and are not present in any below it are called
A)homologous characters.
B)homoplastic characters.
C)ancestral characters.
D)derived characters.
E)novel characters.
Q2) Consider the cladogram associated with the question.If we designate species 1 as the outgroup,which species has the greatest number of ancestral character states?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
E)6
Q3) The behavior of parental care exhibited by dinosaurs is thought to be __________ to this behavior in crocodiles and birds because phylogeny shows these three groups share a common ancestor.
Q4) A ______________ group does not contain the most recent common ancestor.
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25
Chapter 24: Genome Evolution
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Q1) Arabidopsis thaliana and the pufferfish (Fugu rubripes)are examples of _________________ organisms whose genomes have been sequenced.
Q2) One possible explanation for why humans are humans and chimps are chimps despite the great similarities in their gene-coding sequences is
A)allelic control of development.
B)the vast differences in exons.
C)the vast differences in the introns.
D)the "junk" DNA contains important sequences.
E)differences in gene expression.
Q3) Gene swapping between different species,far more prevalent earlier in the history of life than now,is referred to as _________________ gene transfer.
Q4) Which one of the following statements about foreign DNA in the human genome is false?
A)Most of the foreign DNA in the human genome is ancient.
B)Most of the foreign DNA in the human genome exists as transposons.
C)Like the Drosophila genome,the human genome is constantly eliminating its foreign DNA.
D)Little new foreign DNA is entering the human genome.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Evolution of Development
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Q1) The evolution of flower symmetry is best explained by A)a new gene mutation.
B)the co-option of an existing gene for a new function.
C)homoplastic convergence.
D)gene duplication and divergence.
E)conserved genes.
Q2) The evolution of cauliflower and broccoli from wild cabbage is best explained by A)a single gene mutation.
B)the co-option of an existing gene for a new function.
C)homoplastic convergence.
D)gene duplication and divergence.
E)conserved genes.
Q3) The transformation of one body part into another caused by genetic mutation is called _________________.
Q4) The evolution of insect wing patterns is best explained by A)a new gene mutation.
B)the co-option of an existing gene for a new function.
C)homoplastic convergence.
D)gene duplication and divergence.
E)conserved genes.
27
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Chapter 26: The Tree of Life
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Q1) One of the theories about the origin of life is panspermia.Panspermia proposes that
A)extraterrestrials from extreme distances from Earth seeded the developing planet with primitive life forms,which eventually evolved into what we know today.
B)meteors and/or cosmic dust clouds carried various primitive life forms to the Earth,which eventually evolved into what we know today.
C)meteors and/or cosmic dust clouds carried various complex organic molecules to the Earth,which eventually evolved into what we know today.
D)extraterrestrials from extreme distances from Earth seeded the developing planet with complex organic molecules,which eventually evolved into what we know today.
E)spontaneous generation of life followed either an extraterrestrial visit or a meteor deposition of inorganic molecules.
Q2) Organelles such as the nucleus are not present in _________ organisms.
Q3) Endosymbiotic relationships between prokaryotes evolved into more complex cell types called ________,which possessed nuclear membranes and membrane-bound organelles.
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Chapter 27: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following statements about emerging viruses is false?
A)Emerging viruses are able to "jump" from one species to another.
B)Hantavirus,which causes a hemorrhagic-type fever,originates in deer mice.
C)Ebola is an emerging virus of unknown origins that can have a mortality rate in excess of 50%.
D)The emerging virus SARS is a completely new form of corona virus.
E)The stable genome of the SARS virus makes it an unlikely candidate for vaccine development.
Q2) The switch from a lysogenic prophage to a lytic cycle is called A)transformation.
B)induction.
C)latency.
D)phage conversion.
E)injection.
Q3) The infection cycle of HIV includes all of the following steps except A)attachment.
B)entry.
C)replication.
D)immediately killing the host cell.
E)viral DNA integrates into the host chromosomE.
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Chapter 28: Prokaryotes
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Q1) Some prokaryotes attach to other substrates by hairlike outgrowths,which are shorter than flagella.These are called A)endospores.
B)flagellin.
C)pili.
D)plasmids.
E)fission products.
Q2) Certain prokaryotes can withstand drying and hotter temperatures because of their ability to form
A)cell walls.
B)endospores.
C)flagella.
D)organelles.
E)plasmids.
Q3) Some species of prokaryotes play a vital role both in productivity and in nutrient _____________,providing substances essential to all other life forms.
Q4) Members of the genus ______________ are associated with scarlet fever,rheumatic fever,pneumonia,etc.
Q5) Genetic diversity in bacteria is created by mutation and ___________.
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) The life cycle of the brown alga Laminaria shares several features with the life cycle of most plants.Which one of the following is not shared?
A)meiosis
B)multicellular haploid stage
C)multicellular diploid stage
D)gametes produced by mitosis
E)spores produced by mitosis
Q2) The parasite that is responsible for causing malaria is called A)Streptococcus.
B)Chlamydomonas.
C)Plasmodium.
D)Entamoeba.
E)Giardia.
Q3) Some protist cell surfaces have ___________,including silica or calcium carbonate.
Q4) Mitochondria,chloroplasts,and ____________ are all thought to have arisen through endosymbiosis.
Q5) Typical asexually reproducing protists can reproduce ________ in times of stress.
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Chapter 30: Overview of Green Plants
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Q1) Select the best answer to complete the following statement.Stomata are openings used by plants for the passage of
A)only oxygen and carbon dioxide.
B)only carbon dioxide and pollen.
C)only carbon dioxide and water vapor.
D)carbon dioxide,oxygen,and water vapor.
E)only carbon dioxide and spores or gametes.
Q2) Among the bryophytes,which of the following contain distinct stemlike axis,small leaves,and rootlike rhizoids?
A)liverworts
B)hornworts
C)mosses
D)algae
E)cycads
Q3) Which of the following groups is most closely related to the tracheophytes?
A)Bryophytes
B)Charophytes
C)Liverworts
D)Hornworts
E)Pterophyta
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) A division of fungi that lacks septa in their hyphae except when they form sporangia or gametangia is the A)ascomycetes.
B)zygomycetes.
C)chytridomycota (chytrids).
D)basidiomycetes.
E)none of these
Q2) Which one of the following statements comparing ascomycetes and basidiomycetes is false?
A)Both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes have secondary myceliA.
B)In both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes,the zygote is the only diploid stage.
C)In both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes,spores are the dispersal stage of the life cycle.
D)In both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes,only the fruiting bodies (ascocarp and basidiocarp)are conspicuous.
E)Although some ascomycetes are unicellular,all basidiomycetes are multicellular.
Q3) The symbiotic relationship between green algae or cyanobacteria and fungi produce __________________.
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33
Chapter 32: Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) In a _____ circulatory system,circulation of blood is more controlled-the blood is moved faster and more efficiently than in other types of circulatory systems.
Q2) Nearly all major animal body plans evolved by the _______ period.
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a vertebrate?
A)radial cleavage
B)indeterminate development
C)circulatory system present
D)diploblastic
E)coelomate
Q4) Which one of the following statements about molecular systematics and its role in the classification of animals is false?
A)Clades consist of monophyletic taxa sharing the same gene sequences.
B)Different molecules sometimes support different taxonomic relationships.
C)Molecular data suggests that arthropods and annelids are part of the same clade.
D)Molecular data suggests that a new group of "molting" animals,the Ecdysozoa,is monophyletic.
E)Combining data from many different molecules gives the best picture of phylogenetic relationships.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Noncoelomate Invertebrates
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Q1) Sponges;lack tissue organization.
A)Cnidaria
B)Nematoda
C)Platyhelminthes
D)Porifera
E)Ctenophora
Q2) Bilaterally symmetrical acoelomates.
A)Cnidaria
B)Nematoda
C)Platyhelminthes
D)Porifera
E)Ctenophora
Q3) The most prominent phylum of acoelomates,_____________,includes the free-living flatworms and the parasitic flukes and tapeworms.
Q4) Radially symmetrical polyps and medusae.
A)Cnidaria
B)Nematoda
C)Platyhelminthes
D)Porifera
E)Ctenophora
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Chapter 34: Coelomate Invertebrates
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Q1) Reproductive modes of echinoderms include all of the following except
A)breaking into parts and regenerating new animals from them.
B)breaking into equal parts which become two whole animals.
C)developing from trochophore larvae.
D)external sexual reproduction produces fertilized eggs.
E)fertilized eggs develop into free-swimming,bilaterally symmetrical larvaE.
Q2) A marine biologist's research involves the water vascular system of a species of sea star.Which of the following terms would not be used in a description of the water vascular system?
A)madreporite
B)ring canal
C)ampulla
D)tube foot
E)pedicellariae
Q3) Lack distinct arms but have a five-part body plan.
A)sea cucumbers
B)brittle stars
C)sea stars
D)sea urchins
Q4) The evolution of jointed appendages has made __________ very successful.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Vertebrates
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Q1) Which one of the following does not match a component of the amniotic egg with its primary function?
A)shell-porous,protective covering
B)chorion-exchange of respiratory gases;retention of water
C)amnion-encloses embryo within an oxygen-filled cavity
D)allantois-segregates nitrogenous wastes from embryo
E)yolk sac-provides food for the embryo
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the membranes of the reptilian amniotic egg?
A)ectoderm
B)chorion
C)amnion
D)yolk sac
E)allantois
Q3) Anthropoids or higher primates include all of the following except A)new World monkeys.
B)old World monkeys.
C)apes.
D)humans.
E)lemurs.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Plant Form
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Q1) A major distinguishing feature between monocot and eudicot stems is the organization of the ____________ system.
A)plant
B)conducting
C)vascular tissue
D)secondary
E)ground
Q2) Plant cells that give rise to two cells,one of which is free to differentiate into various kinds of cells that contribute to the plant body,are called
A)endodermal cells.
B)primary cells.
C)lateral cells.
D)parenchyma cells.
E)meristematic cells.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Vegetative Plant Development
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Q1) Which of these structures does not begin development during embryogenesis?
A)apical meristem
B)vascular tissue
C)floral primordia
D)leaf primordial
E)ground tissue
Q2) Which of the following fruits is most likely to be wind-dispersed?
A)acorn
B)dandelion
C)orange
D)coconut
E)spiny burgrass
Q3) The shoot apical meristem gives rise to all of these except A)leaves.
B)roots.
C)floral structures.
D)stems.
E)internodes.
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Chapter 38: Transport in Plants
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Q1) Turgor is most directly related to the plant cells'
A)total water potential.
B)pressure potential.
C)solute potential.
D)osmosis.
E)gravity potential.
Q2) Which of these factors does not have a direct or indirect effect on how much the stomates are open?
A)temperature
B)carbon dioxide
C)relative humidity
D)light
E)chlorophyll
Q3) Water moves through a plant by each of the following methods except A)from cell to cell through plasmodesmatA.
B)through the Casparian strip.
C)through the spaces between cell protoplasts.
D)through vessel members.
E)from cell to cell across plasma membranes.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Nutrition and Soils
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Q1) The effects of elevated atmospheric CO<sub>2</sub> concentrations
A)have the potential to alter the nutritional status of plants.
B)have the potential to allow herbivores to eat less plant matter.
C)have no effect on nutrient levels found in plant leaves.
D)allow the plant to use O<sub>2</sub> more efficiently in photosynthesis.
E)cause an increase in Rubisco production.
Q2) A typical root pumps out H<sup>+</sup> to maintain a strong membrane potential of about
A)-12 V.
B)120 V.
C)60 Hz.
D)-160 mV.
E)pH 5.0.
Q3) Plants can remove harmful chemicals from the soil by the process of A)glandular secretion by leaves.
B)CO<sub>2</sub> activation.
C)phytoremediation.
D)fertilization.
E)root nodule formation.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Defense Responses
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the pathogen-specific response is true?
A)The pathways involved always trigger the hypersensitive response.
B)The pathogen is recognized by its avr gene product.
C)There is never a gene-for-gene response.
D)If the R gene product is not triggered,no disease will occur.
E)Avr and R gene pairs have been cloned in species pathogenized by microbes,fungi,and insects.
Q2) Systematic acquired resistance.
A)avr
B)HR
C)PR
D)R
E)SAR
Q3) The hypersensitive response.
A)avr
B)HR
C)PR
D)R
E)SAR
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Sensory Systems in Plants
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Q1) Removing the apical bud of a stem usually results in A)faster flowering.
B)a bushier plant.
C)stunted growth.
D)leaf abscission.
E)starch accumulation.
Q2) When Darwin covered the tip of a grass seedling with metal foil and then illuminated it from one side,what happened to the seedling?
A)It bent away from the directional light.
B)It did not respond to the directional light.
C)It grew toward the light,as expected.
D)It waved back and forth.
E)It wilted and died.
Q3) Which gaseous hormone stimulates the ripening of fruits?
A)abscisic acid
B)gibberellin
C)indoleacetic acid
D)ethylene
E)cytokinin
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) At a certain point in the flowering process,shoots become committed to making a flower.This is called A)apomixes.
B)bilateralism.
C)phase change.
D)competence.
E)floral determination.
Q2) Which of the following processes is not involved in determining when a plant will produce flowers?
A)water potential
B)temperature
C)light
D)promotive internal signals
E)inhibitory internal signals
Q3) The formation of the endosperm and the embryo in angiosperms is the result of A)alternation of generations.
B)outcrossing.
C)determinate growth.
D)double fertilization.
E)secondary growth.
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Chapter 43: The Animal Body and Principles of Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following are the fundamental embryonic tissues called the "germ layers"?
A)tissues,organs,and organ systems
B)mesoderm,muscle,and tissue
C)ectoderm,endoderm,and exoskeleton
D)mesoderm,endoderm,and ectoderm
E)mesoderm,exoderm,and hydroderm
Q2) Which of the muscle types have intercellular connections which allow coordinated contractions between them?
A)just cardiac muscle
B)just smooth muscle
C)cardiac and smooth muscle
D)cardiac and skeletal muscle
E)cardiac,smooth,and skeletal muscle
Q3) The tissue type that produces tough coverings that package organs is
A)loose connective tissue.
B)dense irregular connective tissue.
C)collagen.
D)dense regular connective tissue.
E)adiposE.
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Chapter 44: The Nervous System
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Q1) When comparing the outside to the inside of a typical living cell,which ion is the closest to electrochemical equilibrium?
A)Cl<sup>-</sup>
B)Na<sup>+</sup>
C)K<sup>+</sup>
D)Ca<sup>2+</sup>
Q2) In typical cell,which of the following has the highest electrochemical potential for movement?
A)the electrochemical potential for Na<sup>+</sup> to move into the cell
B)the electrochemical potential for Na to move out of the cell
C)the electrochemical potential for K to move into the cell
D)the electrochemical potential for K<sup>+</sup> to move into the cell
E)the electrochemical potential for Cl<sup>-</sup> to move into the cell
Q3) The parasympathetic effects of acetylcholine require the action of A)G proteins.
B)GABA.
C)AMPAR.
D)habituation.
E)synaptic integration.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Sensory Systems
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Q1) The middle ear consists of A)three ossicle bones.
B)the ear canal.
C)the ear drum.
D)the vestibular canal.
E)the tympanic canal.
Q2) In the vertebrate eye,the light is focused onto the A)pupil.
B)lens.
C)retina.
D)sclera.
E)iris.
Q3) In the ear,high frequency sounds tend to
A)displace the whole length of the basilar membrane with a maximum near the apex.
B)move only the basal portion of the basilar membrane.
C)move only the apex portion of the basilar membrane.
D)move only the portion of the basilar membrane between the basal portion and the apex.
E)only move the tectorial membranE.
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Chapter 46: The Endocrine System
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Q1) The hormone stimulating the milk-ejection reflex is called
A)antidiuretic hormone.
B)oxytocin.
C)vasopressin.
D)parathyroid hormone.
E)aldosteronE.
Q2) Which of the following organs can be stimulated to produce hormones primarily by the concentration of certain molecules and ions in the blood,rather than neural control?
A)adrenal medulla
B)posterior pituitary gland
C)pineal gland
D)anterior pituitary gland
E)pancreas and adrenal cortex
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of glandular secretion?
A)salivating
B)sweating
C)spider spinning web
D)lactating
E)release of oxytocin
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Page 48
Chapter 47: The Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Which of the following animals have bone that contains no osteocytes?
A)dog
B)human
C)fish
D)frog
E)lizard
Q2) In arthropods,locomotion is accomplished by muscles that work against A)each other.
B)the exoskeleton.
C)a hydrostatic skeleton.
D)mineralized bones.
E)the pseudocoel.
Q3) The myosin heads form a cross bridge with the neighboring actin filaments.The energy for the cross-bridge cycle and muscle contraction is provided by A)pyruvate.
B)lactic acid.
C)ATP.
D)NADH.
E)glucosE.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: The Digestive System
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Q1) The epithelial wall of the small intestine is covered with tiny,finger-like projections called
A)ciliA.
B)flagella.
C)villi.
D)micovilli.
E)plexuses.
Q2) According to the diagram,which one of the following processes would occur the most after eating a meal of french fries and ice cream?
A)II
B)I
C)III
D)II and III equally
E)I and II equally
Q3) In humans,and other vertebrates,the digestive system consists of
A)a one-way tube with a separate mouth and anus and accessory organs.
B)a two-way tube with a separate mouth and anus.
C)a tube with a single opening that serves as mouth and anus.
D)a two-way tube with a separate mouth and anus and accessory organs.
E)a one-way tube with a separate mouth and anus and no accessory organs.
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Chapter 49: The Respiratory System
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Q1) ______________ are used for respiration by terrestrial insects.
A)Gills
B)Moist skin surfaces
C)Lungs
D)Tracheal tubes
Q2) Which of these animals has one-way flow through its lungs,whereas all the others have two-way flow?
A)birds
B)amphibians
C)mammals
D)reptiles
Q3) The primary advantage of gills for gas exchange in aquatic organisms versus the body surface is that _________.
A)gills are located near the mouth
B)gills contain a countercurrent exchange system
C)gills have a much greater diffusion surface area
D)gills increase resistance to movement
Q4) During exhalation,the diaphragm ________.
A)contracts
B)relaxes
Page 51
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Chapter 50: The Circulatory System
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Q1) The cardiovascular center of the vertebrates receives information on all of the following except
A)blood pressure.
B)blood volume.
C)oxygen content of blood.
D)carbon dioxide content of the blooD.
E)blood glucose level.
Q2) If your blood had a higher than normal concentration of proteins,which of the following would likely be true?
A)You would have edemA.
B)You would have liver disease.
C)The net reabsorption of interstitial fluid in the capillaries would be low.
D)The net reabsorption of interstitial fluid in the capillaries would be high.
E)Insulin levels would increasE.
Q3) Which of the following statements about red blood cells is incorrect?
A)Red blood cells are also called leukocytes.
B)Red blood cells are shaped liked biconcave discs.
C)Red blood cells contain hemoglobin.
D)Red blood cells develop from stem cells.
E)Aged red blood cells are removed from the blood by the liver and spleen.
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Chapter 51: Osmotic Regulation and the Urinary System
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Q1) The kidneys of which one of the following are so highly efficient that it never has to drink water and can obtain all of its water from its food?
A)camel
B)gerbil
C)kangaroo rat
D)pocket mouse Perognathus
E)desert lizard
Q2) According to the figure,which letter corresponds to the lowest tubular fluid osmolarity?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) Blood volume and osmolarity are kept within normal limits by A)effectors.
B)positive feedback loops.
C)negative feedback loops.
D)countercurrent multipliers.
E)secreting extra amounts.
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Chapter 52: The Immune System
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Q1) Immunity gained by the transfer of antibodies across the placental barrier is called
A)passive immunity.
B)acquired immunity.
C)humoral immunity.
D)cell-mediated immunity.
E)auto immunity.
Q2) The antibodies that bind to antigens on a cell and cause the aggregation of complement proteins to ultimately burst the cell are
A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgD.
D)IgM.
E)IgE.
Q3) Virus-infected cells secrete a class of proteins called ________ that play a key role in body defense.
A)interferon
B)cytokines
C)antigens
D)interleukin-4
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Page 54
Chapter 53: The Reproductive System
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Q1) Males are generally considered sterile if their sperm count per milliliter of semen is under
A)1 million.
B)10 million.
C)20 million.
D)50 million.
E)100 million.
Q2) There were exceptions to the generality that amphibians lay eggs that develop in the water.These exceptions showed extreme variation but they did have one thing in common.What is it?
A)They all develop in some sort of pouch.
B)They all develop in environments where there are no lakes.
C)They all develop in an environment with adequate moisture.
D)They all develop in a camouflaged environment.
E)They all develop more slowly than eggs developed in water.
Q3) The only mammals that lay eggs are called
A)monotremes.
B)placentals.
C)marsupials.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Animal Development
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Q1) In mammals,egg activation is characterized by all of the following except A)prevention of entry of other sperm by changes in the egg membrane.
B)stimulation of the egg chromosomes to complete the second meiotic division.
C)one of the two nuclei is extruded from the egg as a second polar body.
D)cytoplasmic movements triggered around the point of sperm entry.
E)the cleavage of sperm nuclei.
Q2) Which of the following animals undergoes rotational cleavage?
A)echinoderms
B)annelids
C)amphibians
D)mammals
E)reptiles
Q3) There is a protective layer between the granulosa cells and the egg's plasma membrane or zona pellucida.This layer is made of a A)glycoprotein.
B)glycolipid.
C)protein.
D)lipoprotein.
E)saturated fatty acid.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Behavioral Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animal behavioral researchers have identified some specific _________ that control behaviors.
A)environments
B)instincts
C)taxis
D)conditions
E)genes
Q2) In which of the following examples has communication not occurred?
A)A bird signs from the top of a tree in its territory keeping other birds of the same species from trespassing.
B)A queen bee emits a chemical that keeps worker bees from becoming reproductive.
C)A waggle dancing bee feeds some of the nectar she is carrying to bees attending her dance;they now know what type of flowers she has visited.
D)A bird signs from the top of a tree in its territory attracting a female of the same species to it.
E)A bird gives an alarm call when a hawk approaches,but no other birds are in the area.
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Chapter 56: Population Ecology
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Q1) A species whose population growth is not well described by the logistic growth equation is likely to have all of the following traits except
A)first reproduction is early in life.
B)it has a long life span.
C)it provides little parental care.
D)semelparous reproduction.
E)it produces many,small young.
Q2) A group of population members all of the same age is called a _________.
A)deme
B)species
C)cohort
D)tribe
Q3) The statistical study of populations including sex ratio,age structure,and predicting growth rates is called __________.
A)ethology
B)demography
C)population genetics
D)biometrics
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Chapter 57: Community of Ecology
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Q1) A relationship in which both members benefit is called
A)predation.
B)parasitism.
C)mutualism.
D)commensalism.
E)sympatric.
Q2) In this relationship,one organism serves as a host to another organism,usually to the host's disadvantage.
A)predation
B)parasitism
C)mutualism
D)commensalism
E)symbiotic
Q3) Aposematic,or warning coloration,serves to protect an animal or plant by signaling to potential ________ to stay away.
A)competitors
B)predators
C)mates
D)rivals
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Dynamics of Ecosystems
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Q1) Organisms that break down organic matter are called
A)detritivores.
B)omnivores.
C)herbivores.
D)carnivores.
Q2) What feature do the carbon and nitrogen cycles have in common?
A)a large atmospheric component
B)involvement in global climate change
C)often a limiting nutrient
D)mostly local cycling
E)many microbes involved in cycling
Q3) All of the following factors except one affect species richness.Select the exception.
A)loss of keystone species
B)moderate physical disturbance
C)primary productivity
D)habitat heterogeneity
E)species diversity cline
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Chapter 59: The Biosphere
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Q1) Which term from the five listed is used as a descriptor of a zone found in freshwater habitats?
A)neritic zone
B)abyssal zone
C)pelagic zone
D)littoral zone
E)intertidal zone
Q2) Which one of the following statements about El Niño is false?
A)Occurrence of El Niño is irregular and unpredictable.
B)The immediate effect of El Niño is a weakening in the east-to-west trade winds.
C)Weakening in the trade winds results in more upwelling along the Peru-Ecuador coast.
D)El Niño results in the movement of weather systems from the western Pacific eastwarD.
E)El Niño events in the Pacific can influence weather as far away as Africa.
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Chapter 60: Conservation Biology
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Questions
Q1) Why might the different species of whales fail to recover even though hunting has been banned?
A)loss of genetic diversity
B)loss of habitat
C)introduction of invasive species
D)increasing predation
E)increased disease spread due to edge effects
Q2) Which one of the following pairings of conservation concern and an organism illustrating the consequences of that concern is incorrect?
A)Zebra mussel-non-native species
B)Cod-overexploitation
C)American redstart-deterioration of habitat
D)Hawaiian birds-edge effect
E)Flying foxes-keystone species
Q3) Habitat loss for a species can be the result of all of the following except
A)habitat destruction.
B)pollution of the habitat.
C)human disruption of a habitat.
D)agriculture.
E)ecosystem services.
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