Introduction to Biology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology offers students a comprehensive overview of fundamental biological principles, covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Through exploring the molecular and cellular basis of life, students gain an understanding of how living organisms interact with one another and their environments. This course provides a foundation for advanced study in the biological sciences and emphasizes scientific inquiry, experimentation, and the importance of biology in societal and environmental contexts.
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Discover Biology 6th Edition by Anu Singh
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is one of the features common to all known forms of life.Which of the following statements about DNA is true?
A) It forms the protective outer membrane of cells.
B) It is expressly produced for reproduction and is found only in eggs and sperm.
C) It is the blueprint that guides the growth,development,behavior,and reproduction of all organisms.
D) Its absence in viruses is the basis for classifying them as nonliving.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following groups of organisms is NOT included in the domain Eukarya?
A) Protista
B) Archaea
C) Fungi
D) Plantae
Answer: B
Q3) Some bacteria can sense direction using magnetic particles in their cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant protein found in animals is actinomyosin.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The uncharged component in the core of an atom is a(n)________.
Answer: neutron
Q3) You are given an unknown substance and asked to determine whether it is polar or nonpolar.The easiest way to do this would be to
A) determine whether the compound is held together by hydrogen bonds.
B) determine the number of electrons in the compound's outer shell.
C) mix the compound with an ionic substance to see whether its bonds can withstand the pressure.
D) determine whether the compound dissolves in water.
Answer: D
Q4) Most living organisms consist of more than 70 percent ________ by weight. Answer: water
Q5) Marinades that contain vinegar,wine,or yogurt are able to tenderize meat by breaking down collagen into smaller polypeptides because of their ________.
Answer: acidity,low pH
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) Nuclear pores allow the nucleus to pass through the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The part of the plasma membrane that is in contact with the external environment of the cell consists of ________ molecules.
A) hydrophobic portions of the constituent
B) hydrophilic portions of the constituent
C) neutral (uncharged)
D) nonpolar ends of the constituent
Answer: B
Q3) The magnification of a specimen by a light microscope is a result of
A) the bending of light as it passes through glass lenses.
B) the focusing of electron beams by magnets.
C) the reflection of light off a specimen.
D) using chemicals to physically enlarge cells.
Answer: A
Q4) In the chloroplast,pancake-like,membrane-bound structures known as ________ are arranged into stacks.
Answer: thylakoids
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) When the solute concentration outside a cell is equal to the solute concentration inside the cell,the cell is in a(n)________ solution.
Q2) Which of the following types of molecules could NOT easily diffuse across a plasma membrane?
A) sugar
B) water
C) oxygen
D) carbon dioxide
Q3) Protein-lined tunnels that span the small intercellular space separating adjacent cells and that allow the rapid and direct passage of ions and small molecules,including signaling molecules,are called ________.
Q4) You observe a vesicle moving toward the plasma membrane from inside a cell.Once it reaches and fuses with the plasma membrane,you will most likely see an example of A) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
B) pinocytosis.
C) phagocytosis.
D) exocytosis.
Q5) Water moves across a membrane from a hypotonic solution to a ________ solution.
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) Sugar molecules are more oxidized than carbon dioxide molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Comparative studies have repeatedly shown that smaller animals have faster metabolic rates than larger animals.However,human males are larger than human females,yet men have a higher average basal metabolic rate (BMR)than women.Which of the following statements explains this variation in the pattern?
A) Men typically weigh more than women;when standardized for body weight,the average BMR is identical for both genders.
B) The large average body size of men reduces the ratio of surface area to volume;body systems elevate their metabolic rates to compensate for the change.
C) Different tissues have different metabolic rates;the male body has a higher percentage of energy-consuming muscle than the female body.
D) Compared with women,men have larger digestive systems,ingest more food per meal,and metabolize food at a higher rate to maintain body weight homeostasis.
Q3) The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is called the ________.
Q4) Almost all the chemical reactions that occur in cells are catalyzed by ________.
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) Which of the following substances is NOT a respiratory poison?
A) rotenone
B) carbonic anhydrase
C) cyanide
D) carbon monoxide
Q2) In C<sub>4</sub> plants,carbon fixation and the workings of rubisco are spatially separated.Carbon fixation occurs in the ________ cells,and then rubisco adds CO<sub>2</sub> to RuBP in ________ cells.
Q3) When CO<sub>2</sub> levels are low and O<sub>2</sub> levels are high,photosynthesis can be inefficient,because rubisco will add
A) CO<sub>2</sub> to ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP)instead of O<sub>2</sub>.
B) O<sub>2</sub> to RuBP instead of CO<sub>2</sub>.
C) CO<sub>2</sub> to O<sub>2</sub>,forming sucrose instead of glucose.
D) CO<sub>2</sub> to a molecule that contains four carbons.
Q4) In warm and dry conditions,when CO<sub>2</sub> levels fall and O<sub>2</sub> levels rise,photorespiration occurs as a result of plants closing their ________.
Q5) Organisms that require oxygen to extract energy from food are ________.
Q6) The innermost membrane in a chloroplast is the ________ membrane.
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) An unduplicated chromosome contains
A) two sister chromatids.
B) a single molecule of double-stranded DNA combined with a large number of proteins.
C) the cell's karyotype.
D) its own spindle poles.
Q2) The attachment of microtubules to the centromeres of chromosomes sets the stage for the positioning of the chromosomes at the metaphase plate;the attachment of the microtubules occurs during the mitotic phase called ________.
Q3) Chromosomes are lined up at the middle of the cell during the phase of cell division called
A) metaphase.
B) anaphase.
C) telophase.
D) interphase.
Q4) The procedure that enables a young woman to freeze her eggs when she is single and save them for later use,up to age 50,is called ________.
Q5) Chromosomes become visible during the mitotic stage called ________.
Q6) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who has already had children develops skin cancer from overexposure to the sun.Is it likely that her children have inherited this cancer from her?
A) No,because somatic mutations are not passed on to the next generation.
B) No,because any cancer that develops after a person is an adult cannot have a genetic component.
C) Yes,because almost all cancers are caused by inherited mutations.
D) Yes,because the woman's children have exactly the same genes as their mother.
Q2) For proper cell division to occur,the activity of proto-oncogenes must be balanced by the activity of ________ genes.
Q3) Chemotherapy and radiation therapy target only abnormally large cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Normal cellular genes that can be mutated into cancer-causing genes are known as
A) oncogenes.
B) growth factors.
C) proto-oncogenes.
D) viral proteins.
Q5) A disease that starts with a single cell that loses its ability to control cell division is
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) The first reaction in the chain of enzyme-catalyzed chemical reactions that convert the amino acid tyrosine into eumelanin or pheomelanin is orchestrated by an enzyme encoded by the C gene.This enzyme is called ________.
Q2) Environmental factors can alter the effects of genes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is a basic summary of one of Mendel's laws?
A) All beneficial human genetic traits are dominant,and harmful traits are recessive.
B) The pattern of inherited characteristics of organisms is not predictable.
C) The separation of alleles for one gene does not affect the separation of alleles for other genes.
D) Recessive alleles cause the death of the gamete.
Q4) Most traits are under the control of more than one gene.
A)True
B)False
Q5) New alleles arise as a result of independent assortment during meiosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) Which of the following decreases the probable variation between individuals?
A) independent assortment of chromosomes
B) crossing-over
C) genetic linkage
D) random fertilization of gametes
Q2) Translocation occurs when homologous chromosomes exchange equal pieces of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The X and Y chromosomes are called sex chromosomes while the other chromosomes are called ________.
Q4) During cell division,a piece of a chromosome breaks away and is added to the end of its homologue.The homologue with the addition is an example of A) duplication.
B) inversion.
C) translocation.
D) deletion.
Q5) A chart that shows genetic relationships within a family over several generations is called a ________.
Page 12
Q6) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype ________.
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Housekeeping genes
A) prevent repressors from binding the promoter.
B) prevent operators from expressing genes.
C) are expressed by most of the cells in an organism.
D) break down a cell's DNA.
Q2) Scientists discovered that Otzi,the 5,200-year-old frozen Copper Age man found in the Alps in 1991,had a variable DNA sequence called K.What caused the variations in this DNA sequence?
A) mutations
B) diet
C) injuries he sustained
D) his frozen condition
Q3) All cells in an organism contain a full copy of that organism's DNA.Your ears do NOT produce digestive enzymes because
A) stomach cells have extra DNA.
B) ear cells have nonfunctional DNA.
C) some DNA is deleted from cells where it is not needed.
D) different genes are expressed in different parts of an organism.
Q4) When compared,the nucleotide sequences of different individuals are________.
Q5) The "rungs" in the DNA "ladder" consist of ________ pairs.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) The series of bases in mRNA that can specify a single amino acid is called a(n)________.
Q2) Which of the following would be found only in RNA?
A) deoxyribose and uracil
B) ribose and thymine
C) ribose and uracil
D) deoxyribose and thymine
Q3) The bases present in an RNA molecule are
A) C,T,A,and G.
B) U,A,C,and G.
C) G,C ,U,and T.
D) U,C,T,and A.
Q4) Each tRNA molecule has a site at one end that ________ and a site at the other end that ________.
A) acts as a promoter;acts as a terminator
B) binds to a codon;binds to an anticodon
C) binds to an amino acid;binds to a promoter
D) binds to an amino acid;binds to a codon
Q5) Most molecules of RNA are ________-stranded.
Q6) For translation to begin,mRNA must first bind to a ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unipotent stem cells can generate all the cells of the organ of their origin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Stem cells display two unique characteristics: the ability to ________ and ________.
A) produce vaccines;produce insulin
B) cut DNA into smaller pieces;accept recombinant plasmids
C) express genes;synthesize proteins
D) differentiate into a variety of cell types;divide repeatedly
Q3) Deliberately transferring a gene from one species to another is an example of
A) constructing a gene library.
B) genetic engineering.
C) the polymerase chain reaction.
D) cloning.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an example of humans changing the DNA of an organism?
A) treating a patient with a medication that cures an infection
B) adding a disease-resistant gene to a crop plant
C) modifying bacteria to produce human insulin
D) gene therapy
15
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Q1) In genetic drift,the events that affect the survival and reproduction of individuals in a population occur
A) primarily by chance.
B) in a predictable way.
C) rapidly and in close succession.
D) in close association with geological processes.
Q2) Flounder (a type of fish)generally match the color of the sandy bottoms of the bodies of water they inhabit.Their color functions like camouflage,making them difficult for predators to detect.This is an example of A) speciation.
B) adaptation.
C) continental drift.
D) guided mutation.
Q3) The fossils of organisms that existed when the continents were connected are distributed across ________ continents than the fossils of organisms that evolved after the continents separated.
Q4) Cliff swallows in southwestern Nebraska are experiencing a new natural selection pressure;the swallows that are less agile are more likely to be killed by ________.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) A ________ species may exist when an organism's range loops around a geographic barrier.Neighboring populations in the range mate,but populations on opposite sides of the barrier cannot mate.
Q2) The great diversity of life on Earth is caused by ________,the formation of new species.
Q3) Sympatric speciation can occur in the absence of geographic isolation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Adaptive evolution
A) is large-scale movement of a single species over a new geographic area.
B) occurs when a more adapted species causes the extinction of a less adapted one.
C) is the process by which natural selection improves the match between an organism and its environment over time.
D) is an increase in the adaptiveness of many species that have already evolved.
Q5) Which of the following must take place for speciation to occur?
A) reproductive isolation
B) geographic isolation
C) polyploidy
D) hybridization
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) About 220 million years ago,mammals evolved from ____________________.
Q2) The Cambrian explosion resulted in the evolution of more than 17,000 species of an animal known as the trilobite.The shear number of trilobite fossils found in modern times suggests that trilobites were very abundant,perhaps the rulers of the seas.Today,no living descendants of this group exist.What happened?
A) Because trilobites evolved before the first mass extinction,it is possible that one or more of the five mass extinctions could have eventually wiped out the entire group.
B) In order to disappear from the planet entirely,trilobites must have undergone the process of adaptive radiation.
C) It is unlikely that trilobites could have survived the increase in atmospheric oxygen once the process of photosynthesis had evolved.
D) Being so plentiful,trilobites must have been the major food source for terrestrial dinosaurs.The extinction of the trilobite may have caused the mass extinction of dinosaurs.
Q3) Dinosaurs lived on Pangaea.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) There are currently three recognized domains;which of the following is NOT included within this system?
A) Archaea
B) Bacteria
C) Prokarya
D) Eukarya
Q2) Why is quorum sensing advantageous to bacteria when they are forming a biofilm?
A) Larger numbers of bacteria reduce the competition between the bacteria for resources.
B) Bacteria must produce components of a biofilm.It is a waste of energy if they produce those components when there are not enough bacteria present to produce a biofilm resistant to physical forces.
C) Enough weak bacteria need to be present so that they can be killed and used as nutrients for the strong bacteria.
D) It is easier for proper bacterial mating types to contact each other and sexually reproduce when there are larger numbers of bacteria present.
Q3) Some bacteria can cause pathology by releasing a(n)________ that kills adjacent tissues.
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) The cuticle predisposed plants for a terrestrial existence by improving water retention.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A major evolutionary development first seen in the gymnosperms that both protected the embryo and provided an initial source of nutrition was the ________.
Q3) Fertilization is the event occurring when a(n)
A) egg and sperm unite to first form a zygote and eventually an embryo.
B) pollen tube grows through the style and reaches the ovary.
C) pollen grain is transported by wind or insect to the female portion of the plant.
D) pollen grain is released from the male portion of the plant.
Q4) Without the symbiotic association between plant roots and mycorrhizae,the diversity and abundance of both animals and fungi would probably be much less.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sexual reproduction requires the fusion of special cells called ________.
Q6) Most plants produce flowers,which greatly improve the probability of ________.
Q7) Most protists are motile,using cilia,flagella,or ________ for propulsion.
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) Modern sponges produce spicules to deter predation,but as the earliest animals,they existed before any predators evolved;which of the following hypotheses regarding the formation of spicules is the least likely?
A) Spicules were probably absent in the earliest sponges and evolved later as predation began.
B) Spicules performed other tasks in early sponges,possibly structural support,and were later modified for defense.
C) Spicules were present in some sponge species and absent in others;predation became a selection pressure that eliminated some species entirely.
D) Much like the acquisition of cnidocytes by nudibranchs,some sponges incorporated the spicules they consume into their bodies rather than digesting them.
Q2) Sharks and the ray-finned fishes differ in several ways;the most significant difference is the composition of the skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An animal having radial symmetry,a complete gut,and mesoglea would be a(n)________.
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) Bogs and ponds form in the tundra during the summer because
A) there is abundant rainfall at that time.
B) the permafrost melts.
C) highly vascularized plants release moisture into the soil.
D) cool temperatures promote low evaporation of melted ice in upper soil layers.
Q2) Deserts form only near the equator.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Species that are accidentally or intentionally released into new geographic regions are called ________ species.
Q4) Problems arise during an El Niño event when
A) warm surface water,depleted of its nutrients,flows toward the South American coast.
B) displaced organisms crowd into adjacent habitats.
C) warm surface waters evaporate more rapidly,causing increased rainfall in every terrestrial biome.
D) ocean current systems reverse their flow directions and impede migrating marine fish and mammals.
Q5) The Earth's tropical areas are found at ________ latitudes than temperate areas.
Q6) A measure of the energy that producers are able to store as biomass is ________.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) A population will remain at a constant size when emigration equals immigration and A) food is not a limiting factor.
B) births equal deaths.
C) predators leave the area.
D) available space remains the same.
Q2) The rates of population growth and emigration are directly proportional.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Humans appear to be the only species not subject to limits on the size of its population.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The approximate number of humans on Earth in 2012 is 7 billion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When population size is high,the rate of deaths related to disease,starvation,predator,and accidents increases;because their rates vary with population size,these mortality factors are considered ________.
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Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) If both identical twins who were raised apart exhibit the same behavior,
A) it is most likely due to environmental influences.
B) the behavior is most likely a learned behavior.
C) the behavior is altruistic.
D) it is most likely due to genetic influences.
Q2) Male mice "record" the odor of their siblings during the first 3 weeks of life.When these mice reach sexual maturity,they avoid mating with their siblings.This is an example of
A) fixed behavior.
B) imprinting.
C) conditioning.
D) altruism.
Q3) Which of the following statements about behavior is FALSE?
A) It allows organisms to respond quickly to their changing environments.
B) It allows organisms to respond without using either their senses or motion.
C) It allows organisms to respond flexibly to their changing environments.
D) It allows organisms to coordinate their own activities with those of other organisms.
Q4) The entire genetic information of an individual is known as a(n)________.
Q5) Behaviors can evolve because behaviors are influenced by ________.
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) If a bird eats a monarch butterfly,the bird will vomit.Monarchs are brightly colored.This example demonstrates ________ coloration.
Q2) Which of the following animals would be most likely to simultaneously participate in seed dispersal and a gut inhabitant mutualism?
A) wolves
B) rattlesnakes
C) scorpions
D) deer
Q3) Which of the following patterns represents a competitive interaction?
A) +/-
B) +/+
C) o/+
D) -/-
Q4) When different species of birds compete to use an abandoned woodpecker cavity,the successful competitor directly prevents the use of that resource by all others.This is an example of ________ competition.
Q5) Communities always recover quickly from disturbances caused by humans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Coral reefs and swamps are among Earth's most productive ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Phosphorus is the only major nutrient with a sedimentary cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What best explains the low productivity of the open ocean?
A) The open ocean lacks sufficient light to support photosynthesis.
B) Nutrients rapidly sink to depths that sunlight cannot reach.
C) The open ocean is actually very productive,but its primary producers are consumed as quickly as they grow.
D) These regions are typically too cool to support significant primary production.
Q4) Eventually,all biomass produced by any organism is consumed by ________.
Q5) ________,caused by algal blooms triggered by excess nutrients in a lake,can result from excess decomposition followed by animals dying due to lack of oxygen.
Q6) Rainfall naturally has a neutral pH.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Wetlands are one of the few habitats to have escaped human-caused destruction;the worldwide distribution of wetlands has remained relatively stable for the past 200 years.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Atmospheric scientists anticipate a 1.1-6.4°C temperature increase by the end of the twenty-first century.What impacts would this change bring?
A) Some plant and animal species will migrate to cooler locations,whereas others will become extinct.
B) Increases in ocean evaporation and terrestrial rainfall will have a positive impact on the world's agricultural systems.
C) The frequency of severe weather will decrease.
D) The polar ice caps will increase in size.
Q3) The highest concentrations of environmental pollutants are typically found in the predators at the top of the food chain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Humans are changing the way many chemicals ________ through ecosystems.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) The smallest branches of arteries and veins merge with each other in a fine network of tiny tubes called a A) capillary bed.
B) cardiac bed.
C) circulatory bridge.
D) circulatory junction.
Q2) Ammonia is produced by the metabolism of A) fatty acids.
B) glucose.
C) proteins.
D) carbohydrates.
Q3) Individual cells that are deeply embedded in a large animal are surrounded by ________,which provides nutrients,delivers hormones,and carries away wastes.
A) a plasma membrane
B) interstitial fluid
C) blood plasma
D) a capillary
Q4) Ectotherms depend more on heat from their environment than on ________ heat from internal chemical reactions.
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Not all parts of the food that humans ingest are used by our bodies.Fiber,consisting mostly of cellulose,for instance,is excreted without providing nutrition.Which of the following statements explains why fiber is NOT used as a nutrient in humans?
A) The human gut is unable to break it down;thus,it cannot be absorbed across the intestinal cells' membranes.
B) Fiber is an amino acid but not one of the essential amino acids,so we do not need to absorb it as a nutrient.
C) The fiber content of human foods is so low that it is not worthwhile for our bodies to expend energy to extract its nutrients.
D) The fiber is digested into such small molecules that they become nutritionally insignificant.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT occur in the colon?
A) absorption of minerals
B) breakdown of fats and carbohydrates
C) absorption of water
D) vitamin production by prokaryotic organisms
Q3) In Third World countries,vitamin ________ are more common and lead to various diseases and disorders.
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Which statement accurately describes the pathway an oxygen molecule follows as it moves through the lung to the blood?
A) It travels from an alveolus to a bronchiole to a capillary to a red blood cell to hemoglobin.
B) It travels from a bronchiole to an alveolus to a capillary to hemoglobin to a red blood cell.
C) It travels from a bronchiole to an alveolus to a capillary to a red blood cell to hemoglobin.
D) It travels from a bronchiole to an alveolus to a red blood cell to a capillary to hemoglobin.
Q2) In comparison to the air in the alveoli,inhaled air has a
A) higher concentration of carbon dioxide and a lower concentration of oxygen.
B) higher concentration of both carbon dioxide and oxygen.
C) higher concentration of oxygen and a lower concentration of carbon dioxide.
D) lower concentration of both carbon dioxide and oxygen.
Q3) Bubbles slowly form in a glass of cold water as it warms because the solubility of dissolved gases is inversely proportional to the ________ of a solution.
Q4) Red blood cells are produced in the ________.
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) Which of the following statements about gonadotropins is FALSE?
A) They maintain the function of reproductive organs and glands.
B) Their activity becomes important during puberty.
C) They are found only in females.
D) They are produced by the pituitary gland.
Q2) In response to a dangerous situation,your body has produced epinephrine and norepinephrine.As the danger dissipates,how might the pancreas respond?
A) The pancreas releases glucagon to stimulate the synthesis of glycogen.
B) The pancreas releases hormones that signal the adrenal gland to stop producing epinephrine and norepinephrine.
C) The pancreas releases insulin to stimulate the liver to take up leftover glucose from the fight-or-flight response.
D) Adrenaline signals the pancreas to start releasing calcium.
Q3) A single hormone can have different effects on different tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The hormone-producing tissues of animals make up the ________ system.
Q5) A(n)________ is a specialized organ in which hormones are produced.
Q6) In human females,the release of an egg from its follicle is called ________.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) The cerebrum has four major lobes: the parietal lobe,the frontal lobe,the temporal lobe,and the ________ lobe.
Q2) The flow of ions across an axon's plasma membrane generates an electrical impulse known as the ________.
Q3) A resting neuron is negatively charged inside relative to the outside.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a reflex arc?
A) After reading all the possible answers to this question,you choose answer A.
B) The pupils of your eyes increase in diameter when you walk into a dark room.
C) A cell in your body releases insulin in response to the intake of food.
D) On a hot day,your body releases sweat.As the sweat evaporates,your body cools.
Q5) When the difference in charge across a neuron's cell membrane decreases,the cell is depolarizing.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The center of the human retina has a region called the ________ where cones are most densely packed.
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Chapter 31: Skeletons,Muscles,and Movement
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Q1) One reason cats survive falls from heights better than humans do is that
A) they stiffen their bodies as they fall.
B) their skeletons are made of cartilage.
C) they twist their bodies so as to land only on their hind feet.
D) relative to body weight,their skeletons are stronger than human skeletons.
Q2) An increase in the width of an individual muscle fiber is known as ________.
Q3) A hydrostat generates energy as it creates pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In human embryos,the skeleton starts out as cartilage and is later replaced by bone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Short-distance sprinters probably have more slow muscle fibers than fast muscle fibers in their legs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Red meat contains more of the oxygen-carrying pigment ________ as compared with white meat.
Q7) The blue whale reduces drag with its streamlined shape and also its ________.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: The Immune System
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Q1) Which of the following statements about an adaptive response to an invasive single-celled pathogen or virus is FALSE?
A) The host immune system must be able to recognize the difference between its own cells and those of the pathogen.
B) A successful response requires the production of antibodies.
C) The presence of antibodies stimulates the production and release of soluble antigen.
D) Phagocytes will engulf and digest some of the pathogen.
Q2) After their activation following an encounter with antigen,B cells undergo cloning and become either effector or memory cells.Effector cells
A) produce the specific complement molecules that ultimately bind to antibody.
B) produce and secrete free soluble antibodies into the blood and lymphatic circulations.
C) produce and release soluble antigens.
D) seek out and destroy infected T cells.
Q3) A variety of strategies have been utilized for the preparation of vaccines,but regardless of the method used to prepare it,one feature shared in common by all vaccines is that each contains one or more ________ from the targeted pathogen.
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Two methods for preventing pregnancy are abstinence and ________.
Q2) In humans,development from zygote to completion is ________ weeks.
Q3) In fruit flies,morphogens
A) are composed of nucleic acids.
B) switch genes on and off.
C) are receptor proteins.
D) exist only in the eggs.
Q4) Which of the following does NOT affect development in animals?
A) morphogens
B) hemoglobin
C) genes
D) hormones
Q5) Land animals are more likely to undergo fertilization outside their bodies because gametes require dry environments in order to fuse and develop.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Diploid eggs can develop into embryos without fertilization in a process called
Q7) In oogenesis,the final steps of meiosis do NOT occur until ________ takes place.
Q8) Morning sickness is caused by the hormone ________.
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Chapter 34: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) Fungi can clog tracheids and vessels,which causes a plant's ________ system to wilt.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT contain ground tissue?
A) stems
B) roots
C) leaves
D) guard cells
Q3) Like other organisms,plants are composed of proteins,lipids,carbohydrates,and nucleic acids.Based on this,which of the following would be a macronutrient?
A) zinc
B) copper
C) iron
D) carbon
Q4) A flowering plant with leaves containing parallel veins is most likely a dicot.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The basic plant body consists of a root system and a ________ system.
Q6) Flowers are an example of a plant organ.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) How might the observation that the percentage of plant species with red foliage is greatest among high-elevation plants be explained?
A) Atmospheric composition at high elevation reduces the strength of the wavelengths that normally support photosynthesis.
B) High-elevation soils have above-average concentrations of iron,which accumulate to produce iron oxide within the foliage.
C) The red wavelengths exacerbate dehydration at high elevation,so mountain plants reflect it from their surfaces.
D) Red pigments absorb ultraviolet radiation,which is more intense at high elevation.
Q2) Groups of perpetually young,undifferentiated cells from which new cells arise are called
A) seeds.
B) meristems.
C) root caps.
D) phloem.
Q3) The growth of a plant zygote into an embryo occurs within the ________.
Q4) The addictive chemical in tobacco called ________ is toxic to herbivores.
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