Introduction to Biology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts and principles that govern life and living organisms. This course covers the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecological interactions, and the diversity of living forms. Students will explore biological processes at the molecular, cellular, and organismal levels, gain insight into the scientific method, and learn how biology relates to current issues in health, environment, and society. The course is designed to build a strong foundation for further studies in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imagine you're a biology instructor lecturing to a group of students interested in ecology,the branch of biology that studies interactions between organisms and their environments.The students complain bitterly that they're not interested in atoms and molecules because these are irrelevant to their interests.As a responsible instructor aiming to provide a complete and meaningful education,you would state:
A)"You need to study atoms and molecules because the organization of life is hierarchical; this implies that, to understand the complex (ecology), you first need to understand the simpler underlying levels."
B)"You need to study atoms and molecules because life exists at the level of the atom."
C)"You need to study atoms and molecules because they're important for many things."
D)"You need to study atoms and molecules because all biologists, regardless of their specific interests, should know about them."
E)"You need to study atoms and molecules because it's in the book."
Answer: A
Q2) The scientist who demonstrated that the Earth moves around the sun was
Answer: Copernicus
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks: Chemistry, water, and Ph
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of atoms coming out of a chemical reaction must equal the number of atoms going into a chemical reaction.This follows the principle of:
A)the law of conservation of energy.
B)chemical bonding.
C)atomic theory.
D)the law of conservation of mass.
Answer: D
Q2) You have a substance and begin a set of experiments in which you break it down into other substances through chemical reactions.After a few successive reactions,you discover a set of products that can't be broken down further,no matter what type of chemical reaction you attempt.These substances are:
A)protons.
B)elements.
C)neutrons.
D)electrons.
E)isotopes.
Answer: B
Q3) A(n)________ has a higher pH than a(n)________.
Answer: base; acid
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before DNA was established as the genetic material,proteins were considered the most likely molecules to serve this role.In part this belief was based on the fact that there are 20 building blocks (20 different kinds of amino acids)for proteins versus 4 building blocks (4 different nucleotides)for DNA.If proteins stored a code,there would be a far greater number of code words possible for a protein of a given number of amino acids than for a DNA molecule of the same number of nucleotides.For example,there are 16 different sequences (4²)possible for a DNA two nucleotides long and 400 (20²)different sequences possible for a protein two amino acids long.For a sequence three nucleotides or three amino acids in length,the number of distinct DNA sequences is ________,and the number of distinct protein sequences is ________.
A)64; 8,000
B)800; 8,000
C)30; 800
D)64; 800
E)20; 420
Answer: A
Q2) Keratin is an example of a ________ protein.
Answer: structural
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organelles of a eukaryotic cell are suspended in its ________.
Q2) The cytoskeleton is composed of:
A)microtubules, intermediate filaments, and cilia.
B)microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules.
C)microfilaments, microtubules, and lysosomes.
D)microfilaments, cilia, and intermediate filaments.
E)microfilaments, mitochondria, and intermediate filaments.
Q3) The function of the nucleus is to:
A)contain the DNA.
B)contain the cytoplasm.
C)produce proteins.
D)add sugars to proteins.
E)organize the cytoskeleton.
Q4) List the sequence of organelles a protein would pass through as it moves through the endomembrane system to the exterior of the cell.
Q5) Animal cells need oxygen most directly to:
A)produce ATP.
B)secrete enzymes.
C)produce DNA.
D)produce protein.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 1985 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded to Michael Brown and Joseph Goldstein for their work on cholesterol metabolism.Brown and Goldstein investigated the cause of remarkably high levels of circulating cholesterol found in certain families.Just as remarkable was the high incidence of heart disease in these families.What Brown and Goldstein found was not what might be expected-these individuals did not make too much cholesterol.Instead,most of these people had defects in receptor-mediated endocytosis (RME).What could possibly link high cholesterol levels in the blood and defective RME in these patients?
A)Cholesterol was being secreted from cells by RME at too high a rate and therefore accumulated in the blood.
B)Cholesterol was not transported into cells by RME and therefore accumulated in the blood.
C)Cholesterol was being secreted by facilitated diffusion at too high a rate and therefore accumulated in the blood.
D)Cholesterol was not transported into cells by active transport proteins and therefore accumulated in the blood.
E)Cholesterol was not transported into cells by facilitated diffusion and therefore accumulated in the blood.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Q1) When you digest the starch in plants into glucose,some energy is lost as heat.This increases the ________ of the universe.
A)energy
B)order
C)entropy
D)potential
E)equilibrium
Q2) The first law of thermodynamics states that:
A)energy is required to bring molecules into a cell against a concentration gradient.
B)in energy-yielding reactions, matter goes from a more-ordered to a less-ordered state.
C)energy can be neither created nor destroyed.
D)all living organisms must eat to derive energy.
Q3) Entropy is the measure of ________ in a system.
A)energy
B)disorder
C)work
D)order
E)heat
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzymes used by the electron transport chain are located:
A)in the cytosol.
B)in the outer membrane of the mitochondrion.
C)in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion.
D)between the inner and outer membranes of the mitochondrion.
Q2) During electron transport,how many ATP molecules are produced per NADH molecule and FADH molecule?
A)three per NADH and three per FADH
B)two per NADH and two per FADH
C)three per NADH and two per FADH
D)two per NADH and three per FADH
Q3) The most important electron carrier in cellular respiration is ________.
Q4) Which of the following are electron carriers produced by the Krebs cycle?
A)ATP and FADH
B)ATP and CO
C)NADH and ATP
D)NADH and FADH
Q5) ________ means "sugar splitting."
Q6) ________ is the first product of the Krebs cycle.
Q7) The electron transport chain occurs in the ________ of the mitochondria.
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Q1) What advantage is it for some plants to use C and CAM photosynthesis?
A)They can conserve water and reduce photorespiration under hot, dry conditions
B)They can conserve water and produce four-carbon sugars instead of glucose
C)They can absorb carbon dioxide more efficiently when atmospheric CO levels are low.
D)They can use the Calvin cycle at night when conditions are cooler and more humid.
Q2) The ultimate source of energy for most life on Earth is:
A)heat from the Earth.
B)the metabolic processes found in all living things.
C)the sun.
D)oxygen.
Q3) If something is oxidized,it loses electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During the light reactions of photosynthesis:
A)H O is oxidized to oxygen and hydrogen ions.
B)ATP is used to produce H O.
C)ATP is used to produce NADPH.
D)CO is fixed into glucose.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of genes in the human genome is estimated to be:
A)20,000 to 25,000.
B)3 billion.
C)3 to 6 million.
D)1 million.
Q2) Chromosomes uncoil and new nuclei form during:
A)prophase.
B)metaphase.
C)anaphase.
D)telophase.
Q3) What is the advantage of chromatin coiling and condensing into tight structures before mitosis?
Q4) Which statement about binary fission is true?
A)It occurs during S phase of the cell cycle.
B)It is the cell division process of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
C)It is the cell division process of prokaryotic cells.
D)It is part of interphase.
Q5) The ________ of an organism is its complete collection of genetic information.
Page 11
Q6) List and briefly describe three differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell division.
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose a researcher claims to be able to make a hybrid animal that is a cross between a human and a rhesus monkey.The normal diploid number for humans is 46,and the normal diploid number for rhesus monkeys is 48.Based on normal meiosis,how many chromosomes would the human gamete have,and how many chromosomes would the rhesus monkey have? Given these numbers,how many chromosomes would you expect the hybrid embryo to contain?
Q2) A gamete from a human male contains:
A)23 autosomes and an X chromosome.
B)22 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome.
C)23 autosomes and either an X or a Y chromosome.
D)23 autosomes and a Y chromosome.
E)22 autosomes and either an X or a Y chromosome.
Q3) If a 2n cell has three chromosome pairs,how many different combinations of chromosomes are possible in gametes after meiosis?
A)16
B)32
C)8
D)64
E)36
Q4) ________ have both male and female reproductive parts.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Sample Questions
Q1) List two characteristics of the garden pea plant,Pisum sativum,that make it an ideal organism for genetic experiments.
Q2) In humans,freckles are dominant to no freckles,and unattached earlobes are dominant to attached earlobes.Two individuals who both have freckles and unattached earlobes have a child with no freckles and attached earlobes.What are the genotypes of the parents? (F = freckles; E = unattached earlobes)
A)FFEE x ffee
B)Ffee x FFEE
C)FfEe x FfEe
D)FFEE x FFEe
E)ffee x ffee
Q3) Characters such as height,weight,and skin color are controlled by many genes acting together.These are examples of:
A)multiple alleles.
B)codominance.
C)incomplete dominance.
D)polygenic inheritance.
Q4) In the Law of ________,Mendel stated that two genetic elements are separated in gamete formation.
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If more than one sperm fertilizes an egg,which of the following can result?
A)an autosomal dominant disorder
B)an autosomal recessive disorder
C)aneuploidy
D)polyploidy
Q2) Which of the following is a transfer of genes between non-homologous chromosomes?
A)duplication
B)crossing over
C)inversion
D)deletion
E)translocation
Q3) A person with only one allele for a recessive condition who does not have the condition is called a ________.
Q4) Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a recessive disorder resulting in a wasting away of the muscles.How would you design a study to determine if the disorder is X-linked or autosomal? How would you be able to determine if it is X-linked or autosomal?
Q5) ________ is the condition when an individual has three copies of chromosome 21.
Q6) Explain what causes aneuploidy.
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Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations will not be passed on to the next generation if they occur in ________ cells.
Q2) Errors never occur in DNA replication because the DNA polymerases edit out mistakes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is one mechanism by which a mutation can cause melanoma?
A)by causing the accumulation of Huntington protein in melanocytes, which keeps them moving through the cell cycle
B)by causing the accumulation of altered BRAF protein in germ-line cells
C)by the production of an altered BRAF protein that keeps melanocytes moving through the cell cycle
D)by preventing the BRAF protein from being able to repair damaged DNA
Q4) How are X rays used in the technique of X-ray diffraction?
A)The scattering of X rays by a purified form of a molecule reveals its structure.
B)DNA strands are separated by X-ray energy, revealing the order of bases.
C)Cells are broken open to release chromosomes by being bombarded with X rays.
D)The X rays are used to mutate DNA to determine the location of genes.
E)Enzymes are destroyed by X rays, revealing the order of steps in metabolism.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription, translation, and
Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following brings amino acids to the ribosomes?
A)exons
B)messenger RNA
C)transfer RNA
D)introns
E)ribosomal RNA
Q2) Which of the following is a component of an RNA nucleotide?
A)uracil
B)deoxyribose sugar
C)thymine
D)glycine
Q3) The process by which genetic information in DNA is copied into RNA is called translation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A portion of a gene has the following DNA sequence: GAAGGAGTAGCA,which when translated gives the amino acid sequence leucine-proline-histidine-arginine.Assume a mutation causes a C to be inserted into the sequence in between the second A and the second G.Predict how this would affect the protein produced when it is translated.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Q1) What is the most common way of introducing recombinant DNA into bacterial cells?
A)viral vectors
B)PCR
C)transformation
D)gel electrophoresis
Q2) The restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts between the G and the A of the sequence GAATTC.Which statement is true about this enzyme?
A)It will cut this sequence only in bacteriophage DNA.
B)It leaves sticky ends of sequence CTTA.
C)It will cut this sequence only in bacterial DNA.
D)It leaves sticky ends of sequence AATT.
Q3) "Golden rice" is a transgenic form of rice because it:
A)produces omega-3 fatty acids.
B)contains genes from a bacterium and a daffodil.
C)produces insulin.
D)produces cancer-fighting drugs.
Q4) It is not possible for a human gene to work in any other organism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define recombinant DNA.
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Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) You examine the fossilized remains of the winged animal.Impressions in the surrounding rock suggest that the wings may have been covered with tiny hairs,which suggests that the animal is likely to have been a mammal.When you examine the remains of the wings,which of the following observations would be most surprising?
A)The animal appears to have five digits in each forelimb.
B)Several of the digits ("finger" bones)are extremely long, and look as if they supported a thin membrane.
C)The animal's wings appear to be much larger than those of any known bat.
D)The animal appears to have two upper arm bones.
Q2) John Endler's experiment with guppies demonstrates which of the following in regard to evolution through natural selection?
A)Male guppies can change color depending on their environment.
B)There is one optimal set of traits for each species.
C)The reproductive success a trait imparts depends on the environmental context.
D)Bigger and brighter is always better.
Q3) The use of radioactive elements to date geological specimens is called ________.
Q4) The length of time that Darwin's round-the-world voyage took was about ________.
Page 19
Q5) Instead of being trained as a biologist,Charles Darwin actually received a ________ degree.
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Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The advantage a trait conveys depends on its environmental context.
B)A population will always evolve to fit current conditions.
C)All traits are simultaneously maximized in a population.
D)All traits currently in a population must have provided a reproductive advantage at some point in time.
Q2) Genetic drift has a much more significant effect on small populations than on large populations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A population is:
A)a group of organisms that can successfully interbreed in nature but do not interbreed with other such groups.
B)all the members of a species that live in a defined geographic region at the same time.
C)all the different species that live in a defined geographic area at the same time.
D)a group of different species that share common features.
Q4) ________ characters are continuously variable.
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Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Q1) What causes geographic isolation for one kind of organism may not be isolating for another kind of organism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A natural population of organisms that can produce fertile offspring belong to the same ________.
Q3) Describe the difference between homologous and analogous structures in organisms,and give an example of each.
Q4) Speciation can never occur unless populations become separated by a geographic barrier.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A population of mountain-dwelling salamanders migrates and splits into two populations separated by a valley they can not cross.The speciation process that may occur is:
A)allopatric.
B)temporal.
C)behavioral.
D)sympatric.
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Q1) The end of the ________ era was marked by a transition into an explosion of life-forms rather than an extinction event.
A)Precambrian
B)Mesozoic
C)Paleozoic
D)Jurassic
Q2) Photosynthesis was first performed by bacteria about 3.4 billion years ago.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Early mammals differed from reptiles in many respects,including:
A)the number of legs used for walking.
B)feeding their young milk.
C)eating other organisms for food.
D)internal versus external fertilization.
Q4) Which group of vertebrates possessed an anatomical feature that made evolution of the limbs of all tetrapods possible?
A)reptiles
B)sharks
C)amphibians
D)lobe-finned fish
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) Homo erectus was able to migrate great distances from Africa.A good hypothesis for why he was able to do so is that he possessed:
A)a larger brain than Homo sapiens.
B)lower metabolic requirements than ancestors.
C)the ability to walk much like modern humans.
D)tools more advanced than those used by Neanderthals.
Q2) The missing label indicated by a "4" in the figure should be:
A)Australopithecus afarensis.
B)Australopithecus africanus.
C)Homo ergaster.
D)Homo neanderthalensis.
Q3) Which of the following characteristics of a fossil suggests that the species belonged to the hominin group?
A)large canine teeth and thinner tooth enamel
B)a protruding lower face
C)small canine teeth and thicker tooth enamel
D)prominent brow ridges
Q4) The first wave of modern human migration reached Europe and northern Asia.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The core of some viruses is carbohydrate in nature.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Plasmodium falciparum is a protozoan that:
A)can switch between plant and animal lifestyles.
B)is closely related to fungi.
C)causes malaria.
D)causes intestinal distress.
Q3) Which phrase most accurately describes the genome of most viruses?
A)surprisingly complex, with tens of thousands of genes
B)surprisingly complex, with around 1 million genes
C)the same as most bacteria, with hundreds of genes
D)relatively simple, with around a dozen genes or fewer
Q4) Most bacteria present in the human intestines are pathogenic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When bacteria undergo binary fission,they produce identical daughter cells.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Methanogens are in the ________ category of extremophile. Page 24
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) In which group are smuts and rusts found?
A)basidiomycetes
B)ascomycetes
C)zygomycetes
D)chytrids
Q2) For fungi that produce mushrooms,the majority of the organism is located:
A)above ground.
B)in fruiting bodies.
C)in spores.
D)underground.
Q3) A fungus is examined microscopically and found to have a "lollypop-shaped" sporangium.This fungus must belong to:
A)chytrids.
B)basidiomycetes.
C)zygomycetes.
D)ascomycetes.
Q4) A mycelium is characteristic of yeasts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The spore-releasing structure found in the zygomycetes is called a ________.
Page 26
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Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) A hermaphrodite is an organism that:
A)generally reproduces asexually.
B)does not require males for sexual reproduction.
C)possesses both male and female sex organs.
D)can select the sex of its offspring.
E)usually stores sperm in female structures for months after copulation.
Q2) Which statement about nematodes is most accurate?
A)They are mainly parasites.
B)They are mainly crop pests.
C)They all have straight, flattened bodies.
D)They fit into numerous ecological roles including detritivores.
E)They have exoskeletons made of cellulose.
Q3) Animals that do not have a backbone are called ________.
Q4) Sponges,cnidarians,and flatworms all lack which characteristic found in most other animal groups?
A)tissues
B)a coelom
C)symmetry
D)the blastula embryo
E)motility
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) Besides cell walls,features often found in plant cells but not in animal cells are:
A)spindle-shaped centrioles.
B)water-filled central vacuoles.
C)mitochondria.
D)nuclei.
E)cell membranes.
Q2) The missing label indicated by a "1" corresponds to the:
A)cell wall.
B)central vacuole.
C)cell membrane.
D)chloroplast.
Q3) In some areas of the world where there are large numbers of pines,everything is covered in the spring with a yellow dust that turns out,upon examination,to be pine pollen.Why must conifers produce so much pollen,and why do we not see as much pollen produced by a field of flowers?
Q4) Some species of mosses have pollen that does not have to move through water to reach an egg.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) The two basic divisions of the "body" of an angiosperm plant are ________ and ________.
Q2) Angiosperm flowers always self-pollinate because they have both male and female reproductive structures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Secondary woody growth is characteristic of:
A)monocots.
B)dicots.
C)both monocots and dicots.
D)non-flowering seed plants.
Q4) Which plant tissue contains cells called tracheids?
A)meristematic tissue
B)phloem
C)xylem
D)ground substance
Q5) The male gametophyte generation develops largely within pollen grains of angiosperms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Body Support and Movement: the
Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) In the levels of organization,the tissue level is between the cellular and organ levels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The endocrine system sends signals using chemical messengers called ________.
Q3) A 25-year-old friend tells you her mom was diagnosed with advanced osteoporosis.Your friend seems dispirited,feeling resigned to the same fate.Using the material you learned about the skeletal system,what supportive advice can you give your friend for ways she can guard against her risk of osteoporosis?
Q4) Homeostasis is maintained mostly by positive feedback.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A prescription medication lists a rare side effect of impairing the movement of smooth muscle.This medication could potentially affect the: A)heart.
B)walls of the small intestine.
C)muscles that move your arms and legs.
D)muscles that move the eyeballs.
Q6) Bone and cartilage are examples of ________ tissues.
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Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Q1) The part of the brain indicated by a "1" corresponds to the: A)thalamus.
B)hypothalamus.
C)medulla oblongata.
D)cerebellum.
Q2) Why are sensory receptors often called transducers?
Q3) Proprioceptors provide us with:
A)sight.
B)hearing.
C)the sense of touch.
D)information about the position of the joints.
Q4) Which statement best describes how one neuron stimulates another?
A)Sodium ions jump across to the next neuron's membrane.
B)The neurons are physically connected, so the action potential continues movement.
C)Calcium ions diffuse across the synapse.
D)Neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across the synapse.
Q5) Motor neurons,which tell muscles to move,leave the spinal cord through the
Q6) Which part of the brain is probably most involved with dreaming?
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Q1) Human growth hormone is composed of 191 amino acids.This would place it in which class of hormone?
Q2) Alpha cells of the pancreas make insulin. A)True
B)False
Q3) Small amounts of testosterone are made in the ovaries and adrenal glands of females.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which hormones stimulate the kidneys to retain sodium and excrete potassium?
Q5) The endocrine gland indicated by a "2" corresponds to the: A)pineal.
B)thyroid.
C)adrenal cortex.
D)thymus.
E)pancreas.
Q6) Cortisol is part of the body's stress response. A)True B)False
Q7) What gland and hormone control the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex? Page 32
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Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Q1) Lymphatic tissue closely associated with the bloodstream as well as lymphatic circulation is found in the:
A)tonsils.
B)spleen.
C)thymus.
D)bone marrow.
E)intestine.
Q2) Stomach acid is one of our natural defenses against bacteria in food.
A)True
B)False
Q3) CD4 and CD8 T cells are likely to become active when they:
A)interact with B-cells.
B)travel through the spleen.
C)travel through lymph nodes.
D)are attracted by the inflammatory response.
E)dock with a dendritic cell with a matching antigen.
Q4) Macrophages and dendritic cells can both be antigen presenting cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Inflammation is a type of ________ immune response.
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Q1) List the pathway a single red blood cell would follow from the superior vena cava to the lungs.
Q2) The tiny air sacs of the lungs are called:
A)bronchi.
B)trachea.
C)alveoli.
D)bronchioles.
Q3) Which chamber of the heart receives blood from the lungs?
A)left ventricle
B)right ventricle
C)left atrium
D)right atrium
Q4) Which of the following best describes High-Density Lipoproteins (HDLs)?
A)HDLs are transport proteins that carry lipids from tissues to the liver.
B)HDLs are transport proteins that carry lipids from the liver to tissues.
C)HDLs are large versions of the cholesterol molecule.
D)HDLs are critical components to the oxygen-carrying ability of red blood cells.
Q5) Discuss the effects of holding one's breath for more than a minute.
Q6) Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Q1) Which type of muscle is involved in peristalsis in the intestine?
A)cardiac
B)skeletal
C)smooth
D)voluntary
Q2) Most digested food is absorbed into the blood by the villi of the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which organ is central to the body's metabolism of nutrients?
A)the stomach
B)the kidneys
C)the liver
D)the small intestine
Q4) What affect does ADH secretion have on the kidneys?
A)Water stays trapped in the kidney tubules.
B)Urine output increases.
C)The filtration rate increases.
D)Water moves out of the kidney tubules.
E)Blood pressure to the kidneys decreases.
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Q1) Cells first arrange themselves into layers during organogenesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which cells are most important in initiating the production of bicoid protein?
A)limb bud cells
B)posterior portion cells
C)nurse cells
D)neural tube cells
Q3) At which of the following levels does bicoid work in fruit flies?
A)regulation of development of the head end, middle, and posterior end
B)regulation of development of organ systems
C)regulation of development of organs only in the thorax region of the organism
D)regulation of development of wings
Q4) A basic description of the function of morphogens is that they:
A)stimulate the formation of the ectoderm.
B)affect the course of local development.
C)kill cells during development.
D)stop all embryonic growth.
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Q5) The capacity of some embryonic cells to direct the development of other embryonic cells is called ________.
Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Q1) As sperm are made,they travel through the vas deferens and are stored in the seminal vesicles until ejaculation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which structure would be best described as helping to prepare the female tract for pregnancy and maintain it during the early phases of pregnancy?
A)vagina
B)uterine tube
C)oocyte
D)corpus luteum
Q3) Human pregnancy lasts an average of about 38 weeks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ovulation refers to growth of the primary follicle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which item,A,B,C,D,or E,is a secondary spermatocyte?
Q6) Which is the only trimester to include both the embryo and fetal stages?
Q7) The release of an oocyte from an ovary is called ________.
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Q1) A population's intrinsic rate of increase can be calculated by:
A)subtracting r from K.
B)multiplying r by K.
C)multiplying r by the initial population size, N.
D)subtracting birth rate from death rate.
Q2) Which of the following might cause an exponential increase in deer populations across the United States?
A)reduction in parasites that are found in emaciated deer
B)reduction in the population of wolves and bobcats
C)increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels
D)improvement in forest soil
Q3) Per capita use of resources and CO emissions may be just as important as population size when considering stress to the global environment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Species with individuals that die equally or linearly at all different ages throughout their life span are known as ________-loss species.
Q5) Define the term biosphere.
Q6) What is the relationship between a community and an ecosystem?
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Q1) What is the relationship between a biodiversity and geographic diversity?
Q2) An interaction between species in which one benefits and the other is essentially unaffected is ________.
Q3) Organisms in communities may be important factors in the evolution/adaptation of other organisms in the community.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Throughout the story of the evolution of parasites,we frequently see a shift from parasites that seriously harmed their hosts,to those who evolve benign,nearly commensal relationships with their hosts.Evaluate why parasites are more likely to evolve "live and let live" relationships while predators do not.
Q5) G.F.Gause's experiments with interaction of Paramecium caudatum and P.aurelia resulted in his describing the principle of ________.
Q6) A community is a more inclusive category than a population.
A)True
B)False
Q7) When two species,such as bees and angiosperms,both benefit from their interdependent relationship,this is referred to as ________.
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Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Q1) Both the taiga and tundra are known for having permafrost soils.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following water uses is estimated to be the highest in human society?
A)households
B)agriculture
C)sewage systems
D)industry
Q3) Areas near the equator tend to be wetter because of the combination of ocean evaporation and rising air.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following trophic levels could include carnivores?
A)first
B)second
C)third
D)fourth
E)either the third or fourth
Q5) The ozone layer is found in which layer of the atmosphere?
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