Introduction to Biology Question Bank
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology is a foundational course that explores the basic principles of life and living organisms. Students will examine essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and biological diversity. The course emphasizes the scientific method, fostering critical thinking and experimental skills through both theoretical lessons and hands-on laboratory experiences. By understanding the underlying mechanisms that govern living systems, students will gain insight into the complexity and interconnectedness of natural life, preparing them for more advanced studies in biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook Essentials of Biology 3rd Edition by Sylvia Mader
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32 Chapters
1770 Verified Questions
1770 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A View of Life
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kevin is studying predator-prey interactions. One day he notices a spider eating a cricket caught in its web. Later that day, a bird eats the spider. How many consumers are there is this scenario?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
Answer: D
Q2) Phylum Arthropoda is broken into subgroups which include both Arachnida (e.g., spiders) and Insecta (e.g., insects). As a result, Arachnida and Insecta most likely belong to which classification category?
A) Class
B) Order
C) Family
D) Kingdom
E) Domain
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following examples which best demonstrates the property of water cohesion?
A) Water can move up a 100 foot pine tree from the roots to the leaves.
B) A rock skipping across the surface of a lake.
C) Water requires a great deal of heat to reach the point of vaporizing.
D) A soda can bursts when it is placed in the freezer.
E) A large body of fresh water takes a long time to warm up after the winter season.
Answer: A
Q2) All atoms of the same element have the same
A) number of neutrons.
B) atomic number.
C) number of electrons.
D) atomic mass.
E) number of ions.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Organic Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basic building block or subunit of many biological molecules is called a
A) quaternary structure
B) polymer
C) monomer
D) isomer
E) chain
Answer: C
Q2) How are lipids different than other categories or biological molecules?
A) They are not seen in all living things.
B) They do not have carbon.
C) They are much more complex.
D) They are not actually polymers.
E) They are not organic.
Answer: D
Q3) The shape of a protein is a critical factor in its function.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disease-causing bacteria often attach to cells they attack. The bacterial structures used to aid that attachment are ________.
A) flagella
B) fimbriae
C) sex pili
D) cilia
E) capsule
Q2) In bacterial cells and plant cells, cell walls function in
A) moving organelles throughout the cell.
B) maintaining cell shape.
C) producing the cytoskeleton.
D) containing DNA.
E) modifying lipids and proteins.
Q3) Surface to volume ratio is an important characteristic for cell function; some cells increase their ratio by
A) developing finger-like projections.
B) having multiple membranes surrounding them.
C) growing extremely large to increase their surface area.
D) using amoeboid movement to spread out farther.
E) using phagocytosis to pull the membrane inward.
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Chapter 5: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements reflects what occurs in the flow of energy conversions through living systems?
A) Chloroplasts convert solar energy to the chemical energy of nutrient molecules.
B) Mitochondria convert ATP molecules into glucose.
C) Chloroplasts produce CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O during photosynthesis.
D) Mitochondria capture solar energy and convert it to oxygen.
E) Chloroplasts burn glucose into ATP molecules during cell respiration.
Q2) When a car burns gasoline, much of the energy is in the form of heat as the car is driven. Which of the following best describes this in relation to the 1<sup>st</sup> law of thermodynamics?
A) Energy is conserved.
B) Energy can be changed from one form to another.
C) Energy is often destroyed.
D) All energy comes from the sun.
E) Energy is always used up in reactions.
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Chapter 6: Energy for Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) CAM photosynthesis limits CO<sub>2</sub> fixation to nighttime hours in order to
A) allow water to enter leaf spaces during the daylight hours.
B) open stomata only at night, limiting water loss because of heat and low humidity.
C) allow NADPH and ATP to enter leaf spaces.
D) limit the Calvin cycle reactions to nighttime only.
E) limit water uptake from the soil during daytime hours.
Q2) Energy to drive the formation of ATP in photosynthesis is derived from
A) H<sup>+</sup> gradient
B) NADP<sup>+</sup>
C) G3P
D) NADPH
E) CO<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which of the following events does NOT take place in the light reactions?
A) transfer of electrons to the reaction center of photosystem I
B) generation of ATP from ADP + P<sub>i</sub>
C) splitting of water, releasing an electron
D) generation of NADPH from NADP<sup>+</sup>
E) conversion of 3PG to G3P
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Energy for Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where do the protons and electrons come from that are used in the electron transport chain?
A) ATP
B) NADH
C) FADH<sub>2</sub>
D) ADP
E) NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>
Q2) By-products of cellular respiration include _____.
A) FADH<sub>2</sub> and NADH
B) NADH and ATP
C) oxygen and heat
D) carbon dioxide and water
E) carbon dioxide and oxygen
Q3) Cellular respiration uses oxygen to convert the chemical energy stored in organic molecules into ________.
A) energy in other organic molecules
B) energy in ATP
C) energy in carbon dioxide
D) water
E) pyruvate
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organelles would be abundant and in close proximity to the cell plate in a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis?
A) centrioles
B) Golgi apparatus
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) lysosomes
E) central vacuole
Q2) The drug chloral hydrate prevents elongation of microtubules by preventing the addition of new subunits to the growing end. During which stage of mitosis would chloral hydrate be most harmful?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) interphase
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does nondisjunction during meiosis I differ from nondisjunction in meiosis II?
A) Half of the gametes from nondisjunction during meiosis I will have normal chromosome number.
B) Half of the gametes from nondisjunction during meiosis II will have normal chromosome number.
C) Gametes from nondisjunction during meiosis I will have an extra chromosome, while gametes from nondisjunction during meiosis II will have a missing chromosome.
D) Gametes from nondisjunction during meiosis II will have an extra chromosome, while gametes from nondisjunction during meiosis I will have a missing chromosome.
E) Nondisjunction during meiosis I results in only two gametes, while nondisjunction during meiosis II gives four gametes, half of which have extra or missing chromosomes.
Q2) All but which one of these results from nondisjunction?
A) trisomy
B) diploidy
C) monosomy
D) polyploidy
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A red-eyed male Drosophila mates with a red-eyed female Drosophila. One of the female's parents had white eyes. What proportion of the male offspring will have white eyes?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q2) Morgan breeds and sells snakes. He knows that he can make the most money by breeding and selling albino snakes. Albinism is a recessive trait. His female albino corn snake just produced 6 offspring. Two displayed normal coloration and 4 were albino. What is the chance that another offspring produced by the same parents will be albino?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
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Chapter 11: DNA Biology and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the study of the structure and function of cellular proteins and their interactions; _______ may be employed to us computer algorithms to aid this process.
A) Proteomics; bioinformatics
B) Comparative genomics; bioinformatics
C) Genomics; proteomics
D) Proteomics; comparative genomics
E) Comparative genomics; proteomics
Q2) During the elongation cycle of translation, the A site on a ribosome functions in A) receiving a new tRNA with the correct amino acid.
B) holding a polypeptide as amino acids are added.
C) attaching the small subunits of rRNA to the large subunit.
D) releasing the completed polypeptide.
E) processing the rRNA.
Q3) mRNA must be processed in the cytoplasm before being used in protein synthesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Gene Regulation and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A positive genetic test for telomerase indicates that A) RB is inactive.
B) a cell is undergoing apoptosis.
C) proto-oncogenes have not yet mutated.
D) a cell is probably cancerous.
E) tumor suppressors are active.
Q2) The protein derived from a particular gene is different when it is found in a neuron than in a muscle cell. This is most likely due to A) alternative mRNA processing.
B) regulation of mRNA translation.
C) alteration of protein activity.
D) mRNA editing.
E) DNA excision.
Q3) In eukaryotes, one gene may specify the construction of several proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cancer will occur if one copy of a mutant tumor suppressor gene is inherited.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Genetic Counseling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sickle cell disease and cystic fibrosis both exhibit what mode of inheritance?
A) X-linked recessive
B) autosomal dominant
C) Y-linked recessive
D) autosomal recessive
E) X-linked dominant
Q2) A translocation chromosomal mutation is the exchange of segments between two homologous chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A man has an X-linked dominant genetic disorder. If he has a daughter with an unaffected woman, what is the probability that the daughter will inherit the disorder?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Darwin and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Darwin and Wallace, both, concluded that species evolve through the process of natural selection. What similar experiences and information helped them both reach the same conclusion?
A) Both supported the ideas of Cuvier.
B) Both were familiar with the writings of Lyell.
C) Both traveled the world and collected specimens for museums in England.
D) Both were naturalists
E) Both collected specimens from islands in the Malayan Archipelago.
Q2) Which one of the following statements is true?
A) Organisms always evolve the characteristics they need to survive.
B) Some individuals within the population must die for natural selection to occur.
C) Darwin used molecular biology as evidence of evolution.
D) Natural selection can only work on variation that already exists.
E) Convergent evolution produces homologous structures.
Q3) The theory of evolution, is supported by multiple sources of evidence described by many different people, and by a variety of fields of study.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Evolution on a Small Scale
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the typical mutation rate within a cell?
A) 1/100,000
B) 1/1000
C) 1/10,000
D) 1/100
E) 1/10
Q2) The effects of genetic drift are more significant in
A) large populations.
B) small populations.
C) populations that mate randomly.
D) populations that are undergoing natural selection.
E) populations in which the frequency of mutations is high.
Q3) Why do prokaryotes and eukaryotes differ in their reliance on mutations for generating genetic variation?
A) Prokaryotes are smaller in size than eukaryotes.
B) Prokaryotes sexually reproduce, eukaryotes do not.
C) Eukaryotes sexually reproduce, prokaryotes do not.
D) Eukaryotes possess a nucleus, prokaryotes do not.
E) Prokaryotes are single-celled, eukaryotes are multicellular.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Evolution on a Large Scale
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most dinosaurs became extinct at the end of which of the following periods of the Mesozoic?
A) Jurassic
B) Cretaceous
C) Devonian
D) Triassic
E) Permian
Q2) A clade includes which of the following?
A) an outgroup and an ingroup
B) a common ancestor and all its descendant species
C) one taxa with shared derived characters
D) both an ancestor and all its descendant species, and taxa with shared derived characters
E) the ingroup only
Q3) In the figure shown here, the letter W represents which of the following?
A) the common ancestor for Y and Z
B) the common ancestor for U
C) the ancestor for Z
D) the common ancestor for X and Y
E) the common ancestor for X, Y, and Z
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Chapter 17: The Microorganisms: Viruses, Bacteria, and Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why don't new biological macromolecules form abiotically from nonliving matter on the Earth today?
A) The special environmental conditions that are required do not exist.
B) There are not enough of the various elements needed.
C) There is not enough available energy.
D) There is no need for biological macromolecules.
E) Biological macromolecules do arise abiotically, but are quickly consumed by organisms.
Q2) Which of the following contains no photosynthetic organisms?
A) protists
B) bacteria
C) archaea
D) zooflagellates
E) prokaryotes
Q3) Which of these does not belong in any Domain of life?
A) protozoans
B) algae
C) viruses
D) archaea
E) bacteria
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Chapter 18: Land Environment: Plants and Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) A plant has vascular tissue and true roots, stems, and leaves, but it does not produce seeds. The plant has microphylls and bears its sporangia in strobili. This plant is a
A) bryophyte.
B) fern.
C) lycophyte.
D) gymnosperm.
E) angiosperm.
Q2) Which of these has a diploid stage in their life cycle?
A) mosses only
B) mosses and ferns but not gymnosperms or angiosperms
C) gymnosperms and angiosperms but not mosses or ferns
D) mosses, ferns, gymnosperms, and angiosperms
E) angiosperms only
Q3) Which of the following have microscopically small gametophytes?
A) mosses
B) ferns
C) angiosperms
D) gymnosperms
E) both angiosperms and gymnosperms
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Both Water and Land: Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are invertebrate chordates?
A) tunicates only
B) lancelets only
C) jawless fishes only
D) tunicates and lancelets but not jawless fishes
E) tunicates, lancelets, and jawless fishes
Q2) Which of the following is not a hominin?
A) Neandertal
B) australopithecine
C) Homo erectus
D) Cro-Magnon
E) gorilla
Q3) What are the key features of chordates?
A) notochord, dorsal tubular nerve cord, pharyngeal pouches and a tail
B) notochord, dorsal tubular nerve cord, water vascular system and a tail
C) ventral nerve chord, notochord, pharyngeal pouches and a tail
D) notochord, dorsal tubular nerve cord, nerve ring and a tail
E) notochord, ventral nerve cord, water vascular system and a tail
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Chapter 20: Plant Anatomy and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an incorrect match between a root structure and its function?
A) endodermis - regulates mineral entrance into vascular tissues
B) epidermis - forms root hairs for absorption
C) pericycle - contains starch granules
D) cortex - food storage
E) pith - food storage
Q2) Mineral transport in plants occurs
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which feature best describes the vascular bundles of a nonwoody monocot stem?
A) The vascular bundles are scattered.
B) The vascular bundles are arranged in a ring.
C) There are no vascular bundles in a nonwoody monocot stem.
D) The vascular bundles are arranged in parallel lines.
E) The vascular bundles are arranged in squares.
Q4) Micronutrients which are needed by plants as enzyme cofactors are also needed by humans for the same reason.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Plant Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an effect of gibberellins?
A) stem elongation between nodes
B) cell elongation
C) breaking of dormancy
D) ripening of fruit
E) excessive stem elongation
Q2) Auxin causes bending in stems and roots by
A) causing cell elongation.
B) preventing cell elongation.
C) breaking down cell walls.
D) causing cell shrinkage.
E) inhibiting lateral bud growth.
Q3) A farmer wishes to force a normal plant to maintain a dwarf size. Which of the following plant hormones might she apply?
A) auxin
B) cytokinin
C) ethylene
D) abscisic acid
E) gibberellins
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Being Organized and Steady
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which body system produces red blood cells?
A) cardiovascular
B) lymphatic
C) skeletal
D) muscular
E) endocrine
Q2) Which of the following is an incorrect match?
A) columnar epithelium - forms outer layers of skin
B) squamous epithelium - lines blood vessels
C) pseudostratified epithelium - lines the trachea
D) cuboidal epithelium - lines kidney tubules
E) transitional epithelium - lines the bladder
Q3) Which of the following lists types of connective tissue from least rigid to most rigid?
A) hyaline cartilage - loose fibrous - bone - blood
B) blood - loose fibrous - hyaline cartilage - bone
C) loose fibrous - blood - bone - hyaline cartilage
D) bone - hyaline cartilage - blood - loose fibrous
E) blood - bone - hyaline cartilage - loose fibrous
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Chapter 23: The Transport Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correctly gives the orders of events in a cardiac cycle?
A) atria contract, ventricles contract, AV valves close, ventricles relax, semilunar valves close
B) ventricles contract, AV valves close, atria contract, ventricles relax, semilunar valves close
C) ventricles relax, atria contract, ventricles relax, AV valves close, semilunar valves close
D) AV valves close, ventricles relax, atria contract, semilunar valves close, ventricles contract
E) ventricles contract, atria contract, AV valves close, ventricles relax, semilunar valves close
Q2) The substance indicated by the A in the figure shown here
A) is composed of formed elements, mostly platelets.
B) is a fluid and contains nutrients, gases, proteins, and ions.
C) is composed of formed elements, mostly white blood cells.
D) is 100% water.
E) carries most of the oxygen in the blood.
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Chapter 24: The Maintenance Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fats are absorbed by the epithelial cells of villi in the intestinal tract and enter the capillary beds of the circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
A) eliminate nitrogenous waste
B) eliminate dead bacteria
C) eliminate non-digestible food
D) eliminate bile pigments from breakdown of hemoglobin
E) absorb nutrients
Q3) In the figure shown here, the structure indicated by the letter "E"
A) carries urine to the urinary bladder.
B) carries urine to the outside of the body.
C) returns filtered blood to the systemic circulation.
D) further alters the composition of the urine formed by the nephrons.
E) empties urine from the renal medulla.
Q4) Ruminants have a stomach that enables them to digest cellulose.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Human Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adult females need more iron in their diet than males because women
A) require more red blood cells.
B) require more iron to maintain eggs.
C) lose hemoglobin during menstruation.
D) are not as efficient in manufacturing hemoglobin.
E) are not as efficient in manufacturing red blood cells.
Q2) The best definition of a nutrient is
A) any food taken into the body.
B) a food component which performs a physiological function in the body.
C) a food component which can be stored in the body for future energy needs.
D) an essential vitamin or mineral.
E) a food component which enhances one's health.
Q3) Regulation of metabolic activities typically involves ________.
A) cholesterol
B) water
C) vitamins
D) minerals
E) glycogen
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Chapter 26: Defenses Against Diseases
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Q1) After organ transplantation, drugs such as cyclosporine are given which
A) stimulate T cell response to cytokines.
B) increase the production of histamines.
C) inhibit T cell response to cytokines.
D) both stimulate T cell response to cytokines and increase the production of histamines.
E) stimulate phagocytosis by macrophages.
Q2) Doctors can easily examine lymph nodes to see if a patient is fighting disease because
A) many lymph nodes are superficial.
B) all lymph nodes are superficial.
C) lymph nodes become hot when fighting disease.
D) lymph nodes secrete pus when fighting an infection.
E) lymph nodes are concentrated in the abdomen.
Q3) Macrophages present antigens to T cells by digesting the pathogen and placing the pathogen's antigens on the macrophage plasma membrane along with an MHC "self" protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Control Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not an anterior pituitary hormone?
A) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
B) prolactin (PRL)
C) growth hormone (GH)
D) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
E) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Q2) _____ hormones can pass through the plasma membrane of a target cell.
A) Second messenger
B) Steroid
C) First messenger
D) Peptide
E) DNA
Q3) Which two anterior pituitary hormones do not target other endocrine glands?
A) prolactin (PRL) and growth hormone (GH)
B) oxytocin and prolactin (PRL)
C) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and growth hormone (GH)
D) luteinizing hormone (LH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
E) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin
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Chapter 28: Sensory Input and Motor Output
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a sarcomere, thick filaments are composed of _____ and thin filaments of
A) actin; myosin
B) sarcoplasm; actin
C) myosin; actin
D) Z lines; T tubules
E) myosin; sarcolemma
Q2) The fovea of the eye is
A) the area where axons leave the retina.
B) the area where cones are primarily located.
C) the area where ciliary muscles contact the lens.
D) the area where rods are primarily located.
E) the opening in the iris.
Q3) A grasshopper has a(n) _____ composed mainly of chitin.
A) exoskeleton
B) hydrostatic skeleton
C) metaskeleton
D) endoskeleton
E) preskeleton
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman has passed her due date, and her cervix is dilated. This indicates which stage of childbirth?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
E) fifth
Q2) Secondary sex characteristics in males develop due to the influence of
A) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
B) progesterone.
C) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG).
D) estrogen.
E) testosterone.
Q3) Which lists the structures a secondary oocyte must pass through on its way out of a woman's reproductive tract?
A) oviduct, uterus, vagina
B) vagina, oviduct, uterus
C) vagina, uterus, oviduct
D) uterus, oviduct, vagina
E) oviduct, vagina, uterus
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Chapter 30: Ecology and Populations
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55 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a density dependent factor?
A) parasitism
B) a wildfire
C) a tornado
D) flooding
E) reduction in birth rate
Q2) Organisms are more likely to face extinction if they have which of the following characteristics?
A) restricted geographic ranges
B) broad habitat tolerance
C) large local populations
D) extensive geographic ranges
E) high biotic potential
Q3) Different populations living in the same geographical region is a(n) ________.
A) organism
B) population
C) community
D) ecosystem
E) biosphere
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When too many nutrients are added to of a body of water, this is known as
A) A biogeochemical cycle
B) reservoirs
C) eutrophication
D) global warming
E) nitrogen fixing
Q2) Which of the following has the slowest phosphate transfer rate?
A) runoff
B) decomposition of plants and animals
C) mining
D) weathering of rocks
E) fertilizers
Q3) When an animal respires, the carbon in the carbon dioxide that it breathes out comes indirectly from
A) the air that the organism breaths in.
B) dead and decaying plant matter.
C) fossil fuels.
D) photosynthesis.
E) carbon fixation.
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Chapter 32: Human Impact on the Biosphere
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Q1) In which ways does overfishing lead to decreased biodiversity?
A) It reduces the available habitat available for other species.
B) Overfishing allows fished species to overpopulate once the larger individuals are removed from the population, which in turn depletes the species' food sources.
C) Newer technologies allow the fishing fleet to take a larger catch while leaving larger numbers of breeding pairs, which overpopulate and degrade the environment.
D) It depletes fish that feed on some species and serve as food sources for other species, leading to the eradication of some species and the overpopulation of others.
E) It depletes food sources for aquatic mammals, which then overpopulate.
Q2) Pollution is defined as
A) an alteration in land usage.
B) an undesirable alteration to the environment.
C) the impact of human activity on the environment.
D) the impact of animal and plant species on the environment.
E) the introduction of a new species into an environment.
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