Introduction to Biology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles that govern living systems. The course explores key concepts such as the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasizing both the molecular and organismal levels, it introduces scientific methods, experimental design, and the interconnection between biological processes and real-world applications. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students gain an appreciation for the complexity of life and the role of biology in addressing global challenges.
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Discover Biology 6th Core Edition by Anu Singh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Q1) Groups of different species that live and interact in a given area are referred to as a A) biosphere.
B) population.
C) community.
D) habitat.
Answer: C
Q2) Mediterranean gardeners' repeated replanting of seeds from wild mustard plants that showed unusually prolific flower bud and flower growth led to the creation of what modern cruciferous plants?
A) turnips and kohlrabi
B) kale and cabbage
C) cauliflower and kale
D) broccoli and cauliflower
Answer: D
Q3) Some bacteria can sense direction using magnetic particles in their cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Electrons are found
A) in the nucleus of an atom.
B) only in complex molecules.
C) in one or more shells that surround the atom's nucleus.
D) in both the nucleus and inner shell of an atom.
Answer: C
Q2) Chemical reactions do not change the identity of the participating atoms; all atoms present at the beginning of the reaction must be present at the end.Balance the chemical reaction by indicating the number of molecules necessary for each reactant and product: ________ Cl + ________ NaBr à________ Br + ________ NaCl.
A) 1; 1; 1; 1
B) 1; 2; 1; 1
C) 1; 2; 1; 2
D) 2; 2; 1; 2
Answer: C
Q3) Nonpolar molecules are highly charged.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of chloroplasts?
A) They produce proteins used by other parts of the cell.
B) They capture energy from sunlight.
C) They give an animal cell its shape.
D) They contain an entire copy of a cell's genetic material.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) All types of eukaryotic cells have the same structure, appearance, and function.
B) Different eukaryotic cells contain different numbers and types of organelles, depending on the specific tasks they must perform.
C) Bacterial cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
D) Plant and animal cells have the same structure and organelles.
Answer: B
Q3) The boundary structure that physically defines a cell is the A) plasma membrane.
B) protein channel.
C) hydrophilic layer.
D) phospholipid side chain.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) You observe a cell in a solution that swells until it bursts.What you have seen is an instance of osmosis in a(n)________ solution.
A) hypertonic
B) isotonic
C) hypotonic
D) exotonic
Q2) Water moves across a membrane from a hypotonic solution to a ________ solution.
Q3) Short-lived signaling molecules are most effective for
A) long-distance cell-to-cell communication.
B) local cell-to-cell communication.
C) activating genes in the nucleus.
D) breaking down receptor proteins.
Q4) Active carrier proteins can transfer molecules into areas of higher concentration.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Plasmodesmata are not found in animal cells.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Cells in the liver typically acquire cholesterol by receptor-mediated ________. Page 6
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) A rotted log exemplifies the operation of the ________ law of thermodynamics.
Q2) The application of modern biological research methods has shown that the most successful strategy for permanent weight loss almost always involves A) simply eating less and exercising more.
B) consuming BMR activators (supplements that elevate the basal metabolic rate), such as caffeine.
C) changes in body composition, particularly changing connective tissue to muscle. D) altering the body's ratio of surface area to volume.
Q3) Living systems must work to remain ordered; they pass off their disorder to the universe in the form of A) light.
B) sound.
C) metabolic heat.
D) water.
Q4) According to the ________ model,an enzyme's active site will adjust its shape to mold around a substrate after binding to that substrate.
Q5) The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is called the ________.
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Photo Synthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) Each time we take a breath,we are bringing in the oxygen we need to stay alive.The ultimate source of the oxygen used by all aerobic organisms comes from a reaction that A) degrades carbon dioxide.
B) hydrolyzes ATP.
C) splits water.
D) reduces NADPH.
Q2) The energy source that makes oxidative phosphorylation possible comes from A) phosphate group transfers from ATP.
B) electrons that are transferred from NADPH.
C) electrons that are transferred from NADH.
D) electrons that are removed from CO during its oxidation.
Q3) Biologists believe that in the earliest version of photosynthesis,the energized photosystem electron simply cycled back to the chlorophyll molecule.Which of the following limitations would NOT be imposed by such a system?
A) No molecular oxygen would be generated.
B) No electrons would be available to reduce the carbon in CO .
C) Cells could produce ATP but not sugars.
D) Cells could produce O but not sugars.
Q4) NAD becomes NADH when it gains one proton and two high-energy ________.
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Q1) During mitosis,the number and shape of an organism's chromosomes become obvious.This set of identifiable chromosomes can be arranged into a diagram of the organism; this diagram is known as a ________.
Q2) You are examining the rapidly dividing cells of an onion root tip and you see a cell whose chromosomes are visible and arranged in approximately the same shape and size as the nucleus.What stage of mitosis is this cell in?
A) metaphase
B) prophase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
Q3) In human females,when is meiosis II finished?
A) just before birth
B) just after birth
C) at ovulation
D) after fertilization by a sperm cell
Q4) New nuclei form during the anaphase stage of cell division.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) The fact that the human genome contains proto-oncogenes means that
A) there is nothing we can do to reduce our chance of developing cancer.
B) our genomes are constantly producing cancerous cells.
C) the disruption of certain cellular controls can lead to cancer.
D) we will all develop cancer during our lifetimes.
Q2) Tamoxifen is a drug that prevents the positive growth regulator estrogen from binding the estrogen receptor on the surface of breast cancer cells.The most likely result of this is a(n)________ in production of proteins that cause ________.
A) increase; programmed cell death
B) decrease; programmed cell death
C) increase; cell proliferation
D) decrease; cell proliferation
Q3) A physical,chemical,or biological agent that causes cancer is a ________.
Q4) The p53 protein is a ________ because it halts the cell cycle and allows the cell to repair DNA damage.
Q5) For proper cell division to occur,the activity of proto-oncogenes must be balanced by the activity of ________ genes.
Q6) The chance of developing cervical cancer is reduced by ________ against the human papillomavirus.
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Before Gregor Mendel,it was believed that offspring should be intermediate in phenotype to their two parents and that it should be impossible for "lost" traits to reappear in later generations.This idea was known as ________ inheritance.
Q2) A controlled mating experiment used to examine the inheritance of a particular gene is called a genetic ________.
Q3) An allele is
A) a version of a gene.
B) a trait that can be affected by the external environment.
C) always codominant to its counterpart in another chromosome.
D) the result of a change in phenotype.
Q4) Which of the following expresses Mendel's law of segregation?
A) All dominant alleles of different genes divide into different cells from the recessive alleles.
B) Two copies of a gene separate during meiosis and end up in different gametes.
C) When gametes form, the genes originally from one parent all end up in different gametes from the genes originally from the other parent.
D) Gametes with recessive alleles will only fuse with each other.
Q5) During meiosis,two copies of a gene separate and end up in different ________.
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) A man is a carrier for a recessive disease allele.A woman is not a carrier and does not have the disease.The couple has four children and
A) none of the children have the disease.
B) one of the children has the disease.
C) two of the children have the disease.
D) all of the male children have the disease.
Q2) The ________ gene is responsible for activating many genes involved in "maleness" during embryonic development.
Q3) Males with a recessive X-linked allele that causes a disorder do not always show symptoms because they can also carry a dominant allele on their Y chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following processes is NOT a method of generating new combinations of alleles in the offspring of two individuals?
A) crossing-over between chromosomes
B) fertilization of an egg by a sperm
C) independent assortment of chromosomes
D) linkage of genes
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Page 13
Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Q1) ________ DNA consists of stretches of nucleotides that separate genes.
Q2) The difference between the different alleles of a gene is A) their DNA base sequences.
B) the way they are copied when the cell divides.
C) the type of lipid they are composed of. D) not heritable.
Q3) The sequence of bases along a single strand of DNA is complementary. A)True
B)False
Q4) Replication of DNA CANNOT begin until A) phosphate bonds between nucleotides are broken.
B) hydrogen bonds between complementary bases are broken.
C) covalent bonds between sugar molecules are broken.
D) hydrogen bonds between nucleotides in one strand are broken.
Q5) Before a cell divides,it
A) breaks down its DNA.
B) deletes old genetic information.
C) copies information from neighboring cells.
D) copies its own genetic information.
Q6) DNA is tightly packed around protein spools known as ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Proteins are produced directly from DNA,with no intermediate steps.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For translation to begin,mRNA must first bind to a ________.
Q3) A promoter would be located on
A) the template strand of a DNA molecule.
B) the anticodon of a tRNA molecule.
C) an mRNA molecule.
D) RNA polymerase.
Q4) Each tRNA molecule can bind with up to three codons,but carries only one specific ________.
Q5) A human-made chemical that is found in hard plastics,CDs,DVDs,shower curtains,and many other products,and that has been accused of having a variety of harmful effects like obesity and cancer is ________.
Q6) Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles and thus do not have nuclei; therefore
A) prokaryotes are unable to undergo transcription and translation.
B) prokaryotic cells do not need to undergo translation.
C) prokaryotic transcription and translation both take place in the cytoplasm.
Page 15
D) prokaryotes are unable to replicate their DNA.
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) In order to study a gene,a scientist needs to make many copies of that gene using A) gene therapy.
B) DNA microarrays.
C) restriction enzymes.
D) the polymerase chain reaction.
Q2) Genetically modified organisms may contain proteins,DNA,and ________ from another organism.
Q3) A DNA fingerprint is also called a DNA ________.
Q4) It is better to reproductively clone animals that have useful characteristics instead of breeding them in the traditional way because
A) the embryo develops more quickly when it is reproductively cloned.
B) the variation caused by sexual reproduction may affect the useful characteristic in traditional breeding.
C) the reproductively cloned embryo requires less DNA because it is haploid.
D) a traditionally bred animal requires more food.
Q5) Hind III and AluI are examples of ________ used to cut DNA at specific sites.
Q6) In RNA ________,the expression of a specific gene is blocked by small pieces of RNA.
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Q1) All mammals have hemoglobin,but the amino acid sequences are not identical.The human sequence differs from that of the baboon,dog,gorilla,and lemur by seven,ten,one,and seven amino acids,respectively.Based on this comparative DNA analysis,which of these animals most recently shared a common ancestor with humans?
A) the baboon
B) the dog
C) the lemur
D) the gorilla
Q2) In populations that have a high degree of genetic diversity,the fundamental cause of evolutionary change is
A) continental drift.
B) natural selection.
C) long-term climatic change.
D) mutation.
Q3) In the phrase survival of the fittest,the term fittest refers to the individual with the greatest physical strength.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ are the preserved remains of formerly living organisms.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) A biological species is a group of interbreeding populations that is ________ isolated from other species of organisms living in the same region.
Q2) Geographic isolation can result in speciation but usually only over long periods of time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following must take place for speciation to occur?
A) reproductive isolation
B) geographic isolation
C) polyploidy
D) hybridization
Q4) The formation of a new species
A) can occur slowly or rapidly.
B) takes at least 1 million years.
C) is evolutionarily insignificant.
D) never happens.
Q5) A desert plant in North America and one in Africa both have similar spines that they did not inherit from a common ancestor.The spines are ________ to each other.
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) A node on an evolutionary tree represents ___________.
A) the most immediate ancestor that all lineages share
B) the interrelationships of all individuals within a single species
C) the divergence of an ancestral group into two separate lineages
D) the genetic relationship between individuals of all species
Q2) Scientists can determine the approximate age of a fossil by using an unstable form of the element uranium,Uranium-235,which has a half-life of 700 million years.Such an unstable form of an element is called a ______________.
Q3) Evidence that the Cretaceous mass extinction was created by the impact of an asteroid is the existence,buried under sediments off the coast of Mexico,of a huge
Q4) Dinosaurs lived on Pangaea.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Two organisms that are more closely related will generally possess more homologous traits than two organisms that are more distantly related.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The earliest forms of life evolved and lived in ____________________.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) A disproportionate number of viral infections occur in the respiratory and digestive systems; how might this be explained?
A) New viral particles can be easily released in feces or exhaled air.
B) The lung, stomach, and intestinal tract can be easily reached when the virus contacts a new host.
C) The immune response may be less vigorous or effective in these locations.
D) Viruses can reproduce in these systems without infecting host cells.
Q2) All bacteria have the same shape.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Microscopic examination can often resolve questions in taxonomy; for example,cells that possess a nucleus are never classified as A) eukaryote.
B) fungi.
C) archaean.
D) protist.
Q4) The kingdom Bacteria consists of the same species as the domain Bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) What resources do plants use to produce the sugar molecules that plant cells use for fuel?
A) carbon dioxide, water, and light energy
B) water and pond scum
C) nitrogen and oxygen
D) water, nitrogen, and iron
Q2) Imagine the discovery of a previously undescribed nonphotosynthetic multicellular organism.Microscopic examination should verify if its cells ________,and therefore,it should be assigned to the ________ .
A) have cell walls; kingdom Animalia or Fungi
B) contain nuclei; domain Eukarya or Bacteria
C) have cell walls; kingdom Plantae or Animalia
D) contain mitochondria; kingdom Animalia or Fungi
Q3) Lignin first appeared in the ferns and their relatives; this adaptation allowed these plants and their descendants to
A) inhabit arid regions such as deserts.
B) resist the assault of herbivorous consumers.
C) tolerate the anoxic soil conditions in the swamp habitats they occupy.
D) grow upward to better access sunlight.
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) Animal body structures and organ systems differentiate predictably from the various layers of the gastrula; which organ system and layer is properly matched?
A) nervous system-mesoderm
B) digestive system-endoderm
C) muscles and skeleton-ectoderm
D) reproductive organs-endoderm
Q2) The vertebrates,which include organisms such as humans,birds,and frogs,illustrate that very different forms can evolve from one basic body plan.The observation that these diverse organisms share a general body plan supports the hypothesis that
A) they may simply be different variations of the same species.
B) evolution discovers and produces the most useful features for a given point in time.
C) they form a coherent lineage that began with a common ancestor.
D) highly adaptive traits have a high probability of evolving independently within otherwise unrelated groups.
Q3) The vertebrates are grouped into a lineage because all members possess an internal ________.
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following is a consequence of marine pollution?
A) a dramatic increase in greenhouse gases
B) interference with predator-prey relationships
C) an increase in acid rain
D) ozone depletion
Q2) How can the latitudinal variation of Earth's average temperatures be explained?
A) The curvature of Earth places the equator closest to the sun and the polar latitudes farthest from the sun.
B) The ocean moderates Earth's climate; the greatest extent of ocean is within the tropical latitudes.
C) Moist air such as that found in the tropics holds more heat than the dry air of the temperate and polar latitudes.
D) Sunlight strikes the equatorial latitudes nearly perpendicularly but strikes obliquely at the temperate and polar latitudes.
Q3) The activities,specifically that of ________,greatly affect the location and integrity of both aquatic and terrestrial biomes.
Q4) Species that are accidentally or intentionally released into new geographic regions are called ________ species.
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Page 23
Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) The carrying capacity of a habitat always remains the same.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bald eagle populations reached such low numbers in the 1960s that some biologists predicted their extinction in the continental United States; what action appears to have been most significant in reversing their decline?
A) Eagle sanctuaries were established to provide protection for nesting eagles.
B) Bounties on eagle predators were enacted.
C) The use of DDT was banned in the United States.
D) Eagles were reared in captivity until reaching an age of self-sufficiency and then returned to the wild.
Q3) The carrying capacity of a population can be affected by weather,the daily fluctuations in temperature,rainfall,and the other factors that contribute to climate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because of its shape,the curve describing population growth that occurs when a population grows exponentially is termed ________-shaped.
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24
Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) If an animal accidentally steps on a mound of fire ants,it will have hundreds of stinging ants crawling far up its leg almost instantaneously.The ant colony's quick response is most likely due to pheromones from
A) disturbed ants initiating learned group behavior.
B) the animal initiating imprinted "quick response" ant behavior.
C) disturbed ants initiating fixed behavior.
D) both the animal and ants initiating fixed behavior.
Q2) In a laboratory,a mouse runs a maze faster on the third try and even faster on the fifth try.Which of the following best describes what has taken place?
A) The mouse has doubly imprinted the maze.
B) The mouse has first learned the maze and then established its pattern in a fixed behavior.
C) The mouse has learned more about the maze on each trial.
D) The mouse learned the maze on the first three tries and then imprinted what it learned on the fourth try.
Q3) For a gosling,________ means forming an image of who is a parent early in life.
Q4) Behavioral interactions among members of a group is known as ________ behavior.
Q5) In the mating system of ________,one male and one female mate exclusively.
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) A praying mantis captures and devours many insects during its lifetime; the relationship between a mantis and the exploited species (for example,a grasshopper)is one of
A) parasite/host.
B) pathogen/prey.
C) parasite/prey.
D) predator/prey.
Q2) Which of the following can occur when the climate of an area changes?
A) Natural selection usually causes the community to adapt and survive the change with little visible effect.
B) That area becomes uninhabitable to all species and is abandoned.
C) That community may relocate to an area with a climate similar to that of the original location.
D) Continental drift restores communities to climates similar to those from which the communities came.
Q3) Without pollinator mutualism,agricultural productivity could fall significantly.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) The physical,chemical,and biological processes that link the biotic and abiotic worlds in an ecosystem are known as
A) ecosystem processes.
B) primary production events.
C) energy pyramids.
D) biogeochemical fixation.
Q2) Cutting a forest to produce paper bags that are quickly discarded could be considered shortsighted; with the majority of its trees removed,the forest will
A) experience a significant loss of nutrients as nutrients leech through the soil and into nearby waterways.
B) not be unable to recover and will eventually be replaced with a desert.
C) no longer be able to recycle the energy it captures during photosynthesis.
D) lose soil nutrients but gain biodiversity.
Q3) Which of the following describes the ultimate disposition of most energy in an ecosystem?
A) It is used to construct the bodies of decomposers.
B) It is trapped as fossil fuels when producers die and become fossilized.
C) It is continuously recycled back into the ecosystem.
D) It eventually returns to space in the form of heat.
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Page 27
Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Which of the following cycles appears to make the greatest contribution to climate change?
A) the phosphorus cycle
B) the carbon cycle
C) the sulfur cycle
D) the nitrogen cycle
Q2) What will happen in the future if humans continue to impact natural systems at the same rates as today?
A) There will not be any serious consequences, because the environment is much too big and the human population is much too small in comparison.
B) Human societies that depend on the services ecosystems provide may experience severe disruptions in those services.
C) The environment may experience some short-term changes, but their magnitude will likely be no greater than those that have occurred naturally.
D) Some beneficial and necessary reductions in population growth will occur.
Q3) Using more "green" building materials,recycling more waste,using bicycles more,and reducing the use of fossil fuels are examples of ways that we can work toward
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