Introduction to Biology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles that define living organisms and their interactions with the environment. This course explores core topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will develop a foundational understanding of biological processes, scientific methods, and the relevance of biology to everyday life and global challenges. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and interactive learning, students will gain critical thinking and analytical skills essential for further study in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Now 2nd Edition by Anne Houtman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Q1) Describe how DNA makes it possible for organisms to make new individuals like themselves.
Answer: No matter how simple or complex the life-form,the genetic code found in DNA provides the instructions to build new cellular components,carry out cellular metabolism,and dictate cellular behavior,including the initiation of cell reproduction and the transfer of information from one generation to the next.The DNA is read to produce proteins that direct cellular reproduction,produce new cellular components,and initiate cellular reproduction.
Q2) White-nose syndrome in bats is a disease that is spreading across the United States.
A)scientific fact
B)scientific theory
C)opinion
Answer: A
Q3) Which of these characteristics of living organisms are present in viruses?
A) composed of one or more cells
B) can evolve as groups
C) maintain a constant internal environment
D) obtain energy from their environment
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Evaluating Scientific Claims
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Q1) The fact that the onset of autism symptoms typically occur at about the same age children receive many of their vaccinations,including the MMR,is an example of an observed
A) correlation but not necessarily evidence of a cause-effect relationship.
B) correlation and strong evidence of a cause-effect relationship.
C) and evidence supported cause-effect relationship.
D) cause-effect relationship but not necessarily a correlation.
Answer: A
Q2) If we examine 100,000 children who have never had the MMR vaccine and 100,000 children who have received the vaccine and find that both groups of children have the same rate of autism,our data would NOT support the idea that the MMR vaccine ________ autism.
Answer: causes
Q3) The Baylor College of Medicine publishes peer-reviewed research indicating that immunotherapy can help fight certain types of cancer.
A) real science
B) pseudoscience
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) O ,also termed <i>atmospheric oxygen</i>,is formed by a covalent bond between two oxygen atoms.This type of bond involves oxygen atoms
A) releasing protons.
B) releasing electrons.
C) sharing protons.
D) sharing electrons.
Answer: D
Q2) After giving a baby a bath,a parent applies baby oil to their child's skin.How does the baby oil help the baby's skin to retain moisture throughout the day? Explain the chemical basis of water retention in this example.
Answer: Because the oil is hydrophobic and the water is hydrophilic,the two substances do not mix well.Coating the baby's skin with baby oil surrounds the skin with a thin barrier that helps to prevent the loss of moisture since the two substances do not interact with each other.The two fail to mix because they do not share the same charged nature.Although water is electrically neutral,the oxygen and hydrogen ends of the molecule possess partial charges.The baby oil on the other hand is held together by nonpolar covalent bonds,so it has no partial charges.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Life Is Cellular
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Q1) A screen door allows breezes to enter and aromas to exit but keeps out insects.Its function most resembles
A) the cytosol.
B) the plasma membrane.
C) the ER lumen.
D) a ribosome.
Q2) <i>Streptococcus pyogenes</i> can cause a bacterial infection of the throat.Since the bacterium lacks a nucleus or membrane-encased organelles,Streptococcus pyogenes is a(n)________ cell type.
Q3) Adenine (A),thymine (T),guanine (G),and cytosine (C)are the ________ building blocks for DNA; they are organized in different combinations to code for all of the proteins needed to accomplish everything the cell does.
A) carbohydrate
B) nucleotide
C) protein
D) lipid
Q4) The smallest and most basic units of life are microscopic,self-contained units enclosed by a water-repelling membrane and are called ________.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: How Cells Work
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Q1) Which of the following statements describe the function of the light reaction in photosynthesis?
A) As electrons move through the light reaction, they release energy that is used to concentrate protons in the thylakoid.
B) As electrons move through the light reaction, they catalyze the formation of ATP.
C) The light reaction releases CO from glucose.
D) The light reaction captures and stores the electrons given off by NADPH.
Q2) In photosynthesis,the carbon used to make sugars is A) provided by enzymes.
B) provided by carbon dioxide.
C) extracted from DNA.
D) oxidized to make sugars.
Q3) The energy required for life processes must be extracted from an organism's A) nucleus.
B) environment.
C) predators.
D) biosynthesis.
Q4) Explain how an increase in body temperature may affect the activity of enzymes with human cells.
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Chapter 6: Cell Division
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Q1) Which of the following is known to result from the disruption of mitosis and meiosis?
A) Alzheimer's disease
B) prostate cancer
C) autism
D) heart disease
Q2) Cells spend the bulk of their time in the ________ stage of the cell cycle.
Q3) G phase
A)Duplicated chromosomes are separated during this phase.
B)Cells prepare to divide and check that the proper steps have occurred for division.
C)phase in which cells duplicate the genetic material
D)resting stage assumed by cells that exit the cell cycle
E)Two new daughter cells grow in preparation for division.
Q4) During meiosis I,the chromosome number is reduced to haploid by separating
A) each sister chromatid into two different daughter cells.
B) one of each homologous chromosome pair into two different daughter cells.
C) each sister chromatid into four different daughter cells.
D) one of each homologous chromosome pair into four different daughter cells.
Q5) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
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Chapter 7: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) A human's ability to roll his or her tongue is dependent on a single gene that is either dominant or recessive.
A)incomplete dominance
B)epistasis
C)polygenic
D)pleiotropy
E)codominance
F)Mendelian trait
Q2) a homozygous straight hair rabbit and a homozygous curly hair rabbit
A)0 percent
B)25 percent
C)50 percent
D)75 percent
E)100 percent
Q3) Jennifer uses a dihybrid cross of fruit flies to examine inheritance patterns for eye color (black or white)and head shape (round or elongated).This cross produces 10,000 offspring,and the ratio is 1 (black eyes,round head): 1 (black eyes,elongated head): 1 (white eyes,round head): 1 (white eyes,elongated head).Is this what Jennifer should have expected from a dihybrid cross? Explain why or why not.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following genotypes represents a human male?
A) XY
B) YY
C) XX
D) XO
Q2) A person is genetically XX and develops as a male.How can this be explained?
A) In humans, males are XX.
B) An error in karyotyping this individual must have occurred, because XX individuals cannot develop into males.
C) A piece of a Y chromosome has become attached to one of the X chromosomes.
D) The SRY gene was deleted in this individual.
Q3) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype
A) Aa.
B) AA.
C) aa.
D) XAXa.
Q4) Human males have one chromosome that females do not.That chromosome is the ________ chromosome.
Q5) An individual who has the genotype X X for night blindness is considered a ________ for night blindness.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: What Genes Are
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Sample Questions
Q1) Replication of DNA cannot begin until ________ bonds between ________ are broken.
A) phosphate; nucleotides
B) hydrogen; complementary bases
C) covalent; sugar molecules
D) hydrogen; nucleotides in one strand
Q2) A permanent change in the DNA base sequence due to an uncorrected mismatch error is called a(n)
A) mutation.
B) replication.
C) repair protein.
D) insertion.
Q3) A detective finds a miniscule spot of blood on a murder suspect's shirt.What method would the police lab be expected to use to get enough DNA from the blood droplet to perform DNA fingerprinting?
A) inserting the blood's DNA into viral DNA
B) polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
C) inserting the sample's DNA into a plasmid
D) DNA sequencing
Q4) Are mutations always harmful? Justify your answer using an example.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mRNA molecules are broken down quickly in the cytoplasm.
A)Transcription is up-regulated.
B)Transcription is down-regulated.
C)Translation is up-regulated.
D)Translation is down-regulated.
Q2) construction of an mRNA molecule
A)nucleus
B)cytoplasm
Q3) Which RNA molecule brings new amino acids to the growing protein chain in translation?
A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) dRNA
Q4) The genetic code is ________,which means that all cells use the same code.
Q5) The importance of tRNA is that it
A) carries a specific amino acid to the mRNA.
B) reads the DNA molecule.
C) contains codons that specify amino acids.
D) is important in the construction of ribosomes.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) The result of ________ over evolutionary time spans is that alleles that allow organisms to survive and reproduce at a higher rate than other individuals become more common in the population.
A) natural selection
B) artificial selection
C) homology
D) gene flow
Q2) The human appendix is an example of a(n)________ structure.
Q3) Which of the following statements about evolution is true?
A) Evolution only results in the addition of traits to existing organisms.
B) Evolution only results in the loss of traits from existing organisms.
C) Evolution can result in the addition or loss of traits in existing organisms.
D) Evolution has nothing to do with the addition or loss of traits.
Q4) A population of grasshoppers,ranging in color from bright green to greenish-tan,live in a lush green grassland; their coloring helps to camouflage them in their environment and helps them hide from predators.Over the course of several years,a severe drought kills off the grasses,leaving mostly dry,tan-colored sand and topsoil with sparse green vegetation.Predict what the surviving population of grasshoppers will look like in the changed environment.Explain your answer and indicate which evolutionary process has occurred.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) When individuals with intermediate values of an inherited phenotypic trait,like head circumference at birth,have an advantage over other individuals in the population,________ is the apparent pattern of natural selection.
A) genetic drift
B) disruptive selection
C) directional selection
D) stabilizing selection
Q2) The population of a cactus species in a particular area has two to seven spines with an average of four spines per square centimeter of surface area.Cacti with fewer than four spines per square centimeter are more easily eaten by the wild boars thriving in the area.Over time,the population of this cactus species in this area have an average of six spines per square centimeter of surface area.This is an example of A) disruptive selection.
B) directional selection.
C) stabilizing selection.
D) genetic drift.
Q3) Explain why a mutation in an individual's skin cells does not directly contribute to evolution.
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Chapter 13: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) Two biologists discover two populations of toads living in the same area.Morphologically,these two populations are different.The toads in one population have much wider heads and darker coloration than the second population.One of the biologists suggests names for the two new species.The second biologist questions whether the two populations are separate species.Why is the second biologist hesitant to declare these populations are two species?
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a postzygotic barrier?
A) Two species produce zygotes that fail to develop normally and die prior to birth.
B) Two species have reproductive organs that are physically incompatible.
C) Breeding occurs at different times of the day for two species in the same area.
D) Different courtship displays prevent two species from interbreeding.
Q3) mechanical isolation
A)prezygotic
B)postzygotic
Q4) hybrid sterility
A)prezygotic
B)postzygotic
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15
Chapter 14: The History of Life
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Q1) Neighboring plant or fungi cells share a common cell wall,making multicellularity relatively simple.How do animal cells remain connected to one another?
A) Animal cells share a common plasma membrane rather than a common cell wall.
B) Long interconnecting fibers extend from the nucleus of one cell to the nucleus of an adjacent cell.
C) Most animals produce a felt-like extracellular matrix to which their cells can attach.
D) Animal cells are connected to each other by the cytoskeleton.
Q2) During the Devonian period,plants evolved which of the following key innovations to overcome the harsh,dry conditions of life on land and flourish?
A) waterproof cuticle, vascular systems, structural support tissues, leaves, roots, seeds, and specialized reproductive structures
B) amniotic eggs with a hard shell, photosynthesis, flowers with protected seeds
C) flowers with protected seeds, photosynthesis, hard-shelled amniotic eggs
D) photosynthesis, flowers with protected seeds, waterproof cuticle
Q3) Identify key characteristics for kingdom Fungi and provide three examples of members of this kingdom.
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Chapter 15: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) membrane-enclosed organelles
A)prokaryotes only
B)eukaryotes only
C)both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Q2) A prokaryote living in a hot hydrothermal vent deep in the ocean is most likely a(n)________.
Q3) Beginning with a single bacterium for generation 0,calculate the number of cells present at generation 4.
Q4) Prokaryotes that are observed "swimming" through a liquid environment most likely possess
A) pili.
B) a capsule.
C) a flagellum.
D) a nucleus.
Q5) ribosomes
A)prokaryotes only
B)eukaryotes only
C)both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Q6) Bacteria and archaea are together referred to as ________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Plants, Fungi, and Protists
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Q1) Like plant cells,all fungal cells have
A) a protective cell wall that wraps around the plasma membrane and encases the cell.
B) the ability to photosynthesize carbon compounds for energy.
C) the ability to store extra food energy in the form of glycogen.
D) only a plasma membrane wrapping around the cell for protection.
Q2) Jim is mowing the lawn and accidently runs over a large round object that seems to explode in a cloud of dust.Upon closer examination,he determines that the object was actually the club-shaped reproductive structure of an organism that has cells with cell walls but no chloroplasts,and the dust particles were actually spores.This organism is probably a ________ that belongs to kingdom ________.
A) basidiomycete; Fungi
B) ascomycete; Plantae
C) zygomycete; Fungi
D) basidiomycete; Plantae
Q3) Lipids and hormones are manufactured within the eukaryotic cell's ________.
Q4) Prokaryotes and some eukaryotes reproduce through a type of ________ reproduction known as binary fission.This occurs when a cell splits into two genetically identical cells.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Animals and Human Evolution
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Q1) The hypothesis that Neanderthals evolved sometime after hominins migrated out of Africa would be supported by the presence of Neanderthal DNA in the A) mitochondria of modern African humans. B) genomes of modern African humans.
C) genomes of modern humans in all ethnic groups except for those of Africans. D) genomes of <i>Australopithecus africanus</i>.
Q2) All primates have opposable thumbs.This means the thumbs can be touched A) together.
B) to each of the other fingers on the opposite hand.
C) to each of the other fingers on the same hand.
D) to each of the toes on both feet.
Q3) In 2012,researchers determined that the Neanderthal DNA had been introduced into the human genome between 90,000 and 40,000 years ago.Does this support the hypothesis that Neanderthal DNA present in the human genome is a remnant from a common hominin ancestor? Support your answer by indicating roughly when DNA from Neanderthals would have been introduced to the human genome if that Neanderthal DNA was a remnant from a common hominin ancestor.
Q4) Compare and contrast the three types of mammals.
Q5) Explain segmentation and its significance for an animal such as a lobster.
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Chapter 18: General Principles of Ecology
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Q1) Atmospheric scientists anticipate a 3.5°C temperature rise in the next century.What impacts would such a change bring?
A) Some plant and animal species would migrate to cooler locations, whereas others would become extinct.
B) There would be a positive impact on the world's agricultural systems as ocean evaporation and terrestrial rainfall increase.
C) Sea levels could rise high enough to improve the ease of navigability and shipping.
D) The polar ice caps would increase in size.
Q2) Not all gases are greenhouse gases.A greenhouse gas is a gas that
A) participates in biogeochemical cycling in the biosphere.
B) absorbs heat that radiates away from Earth's surface.
C) does not participate in biogeochemical cycling in the biosphere.
D) does not absorb heat that radiates away from Earth's surface.
Q3) An example of a study focused on the biosphere is one that measures how
A) introducing wolves into an area affects the deer population.
B) building a dam affects plants and animal populations in an area.
C) human habitation has changed the population size of caribou in a decade.
D) acidification of the oceans affects aquatic and terrestrial organisms.
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20
Chapter 19: Growth of Populations
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Q1) A population is counted at 100 individuals in 1998.In 2006,a new count found 1,600 individuals.The doubling time for the population is ________ year(s).
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 1.5
D) 2
Q2) If we humans do not limit our population growth rate,we will exceed the ________ of our environment,leading to a larger population than the environment can support.
Q3) Is a death rate increase from influenza an example of a density-dependent population change or a density-independent population change?
Q4) The top of the "S" in an S-shaped curve indicates that the population A) is on the verge of collapse.
B) is experiencing abnormally heavy pressure from predators.
C) has reached its carrying capacity.
D) is poised for further exponential growth.
Q5) Is it possible for the carrying capacity of a population to change? If so,give an example.If not,explain why.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) All of the following disturbances EXCEPT ________ would be considered natural.
A) fire
B) flood
C) windstorm
D) mining
Q2) Ecological communities
A) have clearly fixed boundaries and are always defined on the same scale.
B) can be nested within larger ecological communities.
C) are defined as groups of four or more species within a given area.
D) are groups of species that do not fluctuate over time.
Q3) In which of the following situations would succession be expected to take the longest?
A) A volcanic island forms far from any mainland.
B) A forest fire burns 1,200 acres in Texas.
C) Sand dunes form a new island within a half mile of a mainland.
D) Humans log an area and then burn the remaining undergrowth.
Q4) When removed from a community,a ________ has a far greater effect on the community than its mere numbers would have suggested.
Q5) A(n)________ is a single sequence of who eats whom in a community.
Q6) How does primary succession differ from secondary succession?
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Ecosystems
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Q1) In an ecosystem,energy differs from nutrients in that
A) energy is recycled through photosynthesis, but nutrients are recycled through the atmosphere.
B) nutrients are recycled, but energy eventually moves out of the system and is lost.
C) nutrients are recycled through plant roots, but energy is recycled through leaves.
D) energy is recycled by producers, but nutrients are recycled by consumers.
Q2) Which of the following groups of organisms would NOT be considered consumers?
A) herbivores
B) predators
C) decomposers
D) photosynthesizers
Q3) The chemical and physical components of an ecosystem are considered to be ________ or nonliving.
A) abiotic
B) biota
C) biotic
D) abalone
Q4) Use examples to explain how an ecological community differs from an ecosystem.
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Page 23