Introduction to Biology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles of living systems. The course explores the structure and function of cells, the basis of heredity and genetics, mechanisms of evolution, diversity of life forms, and interactions between organisms and their environments. Students will gain foundational knowledge necessary for advanced study in the biological sciences while developing critical thinking and scientific inquiry skills through lectures, discussions, and hands-on laboratory activities.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 8th Edition by Neil A. Campbell
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Chapter 1: Introduction: Themes in the Study of Life
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Q1) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?
A)a membrane-bounded nucleus
B)a cell wall made of cellulose
C)ribosomes
D)flagella or cilia that contain microtubules
E)linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein
Answer: C
Q2) Which of these is based on a deduction?
A)My car won't start.
B)My car's battery is dead.
C)My car is out of gas.
D)I lost my car key.
E)If I turn the key in the ignition while stepping on the gas pedal, then my car will start.
Answer: E
Q3) A theory in science is equivalent in scope to a well-structured hypothesis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) Which of the following best describes chemical equilibrium?
A)Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the concentrations of the reactants and products.
B)Concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants.
C)Forward and reverse reactions have stopped so that the concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products.
D)Reactions stop only when all reactants have been converted to products.
E)There are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactions have stopped.
Answer: A
Q2) Sometimes atoms form molecules by sharing two pairs of valence electrons. When this occurs, the atoms are said to be joined by
A)a double covalent bond.
B)an electronegative bond.
C)a hydrogen bond.
D)a protonic bond.
E)a complex bond.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Water and the Fitness of the Environment
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Q1) Which of the following statements is True about buffer solutions?
A)They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are added to them.
B)They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are added to them.
C)They maintain a constant pH of exactly 7 in all living cells and biological fluids.
D)They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to them.
E)They are found only in living systems and biological fluids.
Answer: D
Q2) A solution contains 0.0000001(10 )moles of hydroxyl ions [OH ] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?
A)acidic: H acceptor
B)basic: H acceptor
C)acidic: H donor
D)basic: H donor
E)neutral
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) Testosterone and estradiol are male and female sex hormones, respectively, in many vertebrates. In what way(s)do these molecules differ from each other?
A)Testosterone and estradiol are structural isomers but have the same molecular formula.
B)Testosterone and estradiol are geometric isomers but have the same molecular formula.
C)Testosterone and estradiol have different functional groups attached to the same carbon skeleton.
D)Testosterone and estradiol have distinctly different chemical structures, with one including four fused rings of carbon atoms, while the other has three rings.
E)Testosterone and estradiol are enantiomers of the same organic molecule.
Q2) Which is a basic functional group that can accept H+ and become positively charged?
Q3) Which molecule contains a sulfhydryl functional group?
Q4) Which is a hydroxyl functional group?
Q5) Which is a carbonyl functional group?
Q6) Which molecule can function as a base?
Q7) Which molecule contains an amino functional group, but is not an amino acid?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides?
A)a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
B)a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
C)a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar
D)a phosphate group and an adenine or uracil
E)a pentose sugar and a purine or pyrimidine
Q2) Which of the following is True of cellulose?
A)It is a polymer composed of sucrose monomers.
B)It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells.
C)It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in animal cells.
D)It is a major structural component of plant cell walls.
E)It is a major structural component of animal cell plasma membranes.
Q3) Which of the following molecules could be joined together by a peptide bond as a result of a dehydration reaction?
A)2 and 3
B)3 and 7
C)7 and 8
D)8 and 9
E)12 and 13
Page 7
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) How does the cell multiply its peroxisomes?
A)They bud off from the ER.
B)They are brought into the cell from the environment.
C)They are built de novo from cytosol materials.
D)They split in two after they are too large.
E)The cell synthesizes hydrogen peroxide and encloses it in a membrane.
Q2) Use the following to answer the following questions. All three are involved in maintenance of cell shape. (K?)moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of a root, it must pass through several cellular structures. Which of the following correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion?
A)plasma membrane ? primary cell wall ? cytoplasm ? tonoplast
B)secondary cell wall ? plasma membrane ? primary cell wall ? cytoplasm ? tonoplast
C)primary cell wall ? plasma membrane ? cytoplasm ? tonoplast
D)primary cell wall ? plasma membrane ? tonoplast ? cytoplasm ? vacuole
E)tonoplast ? primary cell wall ? plasma membrane ? cytoplasm
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8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Proton pumps are used in various ways by members of every kingdom of organisms. What does this most probably mean?
A)Proton pumps must have evolved before any living organisms were present on the earth.
B)Proton pumps are fundamental to all cell types.
C)The high concentration of protons in the ancient atmosphere must have necessitated a pump mechanism.
D)Cells with proton pumps were maintained in each Kingdom by natural selection.
E)Proton pumps are necessary to all cell membranes.
Q2) When a membrane is freeze-fractured, the bilayer splits down the middle between the two layers of phospholipids. In an electron micrograph of a freeze-fractured membrane, the bumps seen on the fractured surface of the membrane are
A)peripheral proteins.
B)phospholipids.
C)carbohydrates.
D)integral proteins.
E)cholesterol molecules.
Q3) fiber of the extracellular matrix
Q4) Which line represents the bag with the highest initial concentration of sucrose?
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) When ATP releases some energy, it also releases inorganic phosphate. What purpose does this serve (if any)in the cell?
A)It is released as an excretory waste.
B)It can only be used to regenerate more ATP.
C)It can be added to water and excreted as a liquid.
D)It can be added to other molecules in order to activate them.
E)It can enter the nucleus to affect gene expression.
Q2) For living organisms, which of the following is an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics?
A)The energy content of an organism is constant.
B)The organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its environment.
C)The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity.
D)Organisms are unable to transform energy.
E)Life does not obey the first law of thermodynamics.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical
Energy
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Q1) Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ ions into which location?
A)cytosol
B)mitochondrial outer membrane
C)mitochondrial inner membrane
D)mitochondrial intermembrane space
E)mitochondrial matrix
Q2) The parts of the figure labeled with Roman numerals symbolize what concept?
A)different inner mitochondrial membranes
B)different mitochondria functioning together
C)molecules with different attached metal ions
D)carbohydrate framework holding the molecules in place
E)multimeric groups of proteins in 4 complexes
Q3) During cellular respiration, acetyl CoA accumulates in which location?
A)cytosol
B)mitochondrial outer membrane
C)mitochondrial inner membrane
D)mitochondrial intermembrane space
E)mitochondrial matrix
Q4) Which step involves an endergonic reaction?
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) If the carbon atom of the incoming CO molecule is labeled with a radioactive isotope of carbon, where will the radioactivity be measurable after one cycle?
A)in C only
B)in E only
C)in C, D, and E
D)in A, B, and C
E)in B and C
Q2) How is photosynthesis similar in C and CAM plants?
A)In both cases, only photosystem I is used.
B)Both types of plants make sugar without the Calvin cycle.
C)In both cases, rubisco is not used to fix carbon initially.
D)Both types of plants make most of their sugar in the dark.
E)In both cases, thylakoids are not involved in photosynthesis.
Q3) Produces molecular oxygen (O )
A)light reactions alone
B)the Calvin cycle alone
C)both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle
D)neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle
E)occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Membrane receptors that attach phosphates to specific animo acids in proteins are
A)not found in humans.
B)called receptor tyrosine-kinases.
C)a class of GTP G-protein signal receptors.
D)associated with several bacterial diseases in humans.
E)important in yeast mating factors that contain amino acids.
Q2) Which of the following is (are)True of ligand-gated ion channels?
A)They are important in the nervous system.
B)They lead to changes in sodium and calcium concentrations in cells.
C)They open or close in response to a chemical signal.
D)Only A and B are True.
E)A, B, and C are True.
Q3) Binding of a signaling molecule to which type of receptor leads directly to a change in distribution of ions on opposite sides of the membrane?
A)receptor tyrosine kinase
B)G protein-coupled receptor
C)phosphorylated receptor tyrosine kinase dimer
D)ligand-gated ion channel
E)intracellular receptor
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell when it was in G of the cell cycle?
A)The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B)The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C)The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D)The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.
E)The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.
Q2) Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called A)ATPases.
B)kinetochores.
C)centrioles.
D)proton pumps.
E)cyclins.
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) Asexual reproduction results in identical offspring unless which of the following occurs?
A)Natural selection
B)Cloning
C)Crossing over
D)Mutation
E)Environmental change
Q2) How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis?
A)They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B)They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C)They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D)They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.
E)They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.
Q3) Which of the life cycles is typical for most fungi and some protists?
A)I only
B)II only
C)III only
D)I and II
E)I and III
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) Which describes the ABO blood group system?
A)Incomplete dominance
B)Multiple alleles
C)Pleiotropy
D)Epistasis
Q2) Hutchinson-Gilford progeria is an exceedingly rare human genetic disorder in which there is very early senility, and death, usually of coronary artery disease, at an average age of approximately 13. Patients, who look very old even as children, do not live to reproduce. Which of the following represents the most likely assumption?
A)All cases must occur in relatives; therefore, there must be only one mutant allele.
B)Successive generations of a family will continue to have more and more cases over time.
C)The disorder may be due to mutation in a single protein-coding gene.
D)Each patient will have had at least one affected family member in a previous generation.
E)The disease is autosomal dominant.
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) A wild-type fruit fly (heterozygous for gray body color and normal wings)is mated with a black fly with vestigial wings. The offspring have the following phenotypic distribution: wild type, 778; black-vestigial, 785; black-normal, 158; gray-vestigial, 162. What is the recombination frequency between these genes for body color and wing size?
Q2) A man with hemophilia (a recessive, sex-linked condition)has a daughter of normal phenotype. She marries a man who is normal for the trait. What is the probability that a daughter of this mating will be a hemophiliac?
That a son will be a hemophiliac?
If the couple has four sons, what is the probability that all four will be born with hemophilia?
Q3) A woman is found to have 47 chromosomes, including 3 X chromosomes. Which of the following describes her expected phenotype?
A)Masculine characteristics such as facial hair
B)Enlarged genital structures
C)Excessive emotional instability
D)Normal female
E)Sterile female
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following statements describes histones?
A)Each nucleosome consists of two molecules of histone H1.
B)Histone H1 is not present in the nucleosome bead; instead it is involved in the formation of higher-level chromatin structures.
C)The carboxyl end of each histone extends outward from the nucleosome and is called a "histone tail."
D)Histones are found in mammals, but not in other animals or in plants.
E)The mass of histone in chromatin is approximately nine times the mass of DNA.
Q2) After mixing a heat-killed, phosphorescent strain of bacteria with a living non-phosphorescent strain, you discover that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which observations would provide the best evidence that the ability to fluoresce is a heritable trait?
A)DNA passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.
B)Protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.
C)The phosphorescence in the living strain is especially bright.
D)Descendants of the living cells are also phosphorescent.
E)Both DNA and protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) The enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase randomly assembles nucleotides into a polynucleotide polymer. You add polynucleotide phosphorylase to a solution of adenosine triphosphate and guanosine triphosphate. How many artificial mRNA 3 nucleotide codons would be possible?
A)3
B)4
C)8
D)16
E)64
Q2) If proteins were composed of only 12 different kinds of amino acids, what would be the smallest possible codon size in a genetic system with four different nucleotides?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)12
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression
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Q1) The cancer-causing forms of the Ras protein are involved in which of the following processes?
A)relaying a signal from a growth factor receptor
B)DNA replication
C)DNA repair
D)cell-cell adhesion
E)cell division
Q2) If she moves the operator to the far end of the operon (past the transacetylase gene), which of the following would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose?
A)The inducer will no longer bind to the repressor.
B)The repressor will no longer bind to the operator.
C)The operon will never be transcribed.
D)The structural genes will be transcribed continuously.
E)The repressor protein will no longer be produced.
Q3) Gap genes and pair-rule genes fall into this category:
A)inducers
B)segmentation genes
C)egg-polarity genes
D)morphogens
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) What is the name given to viruses that are single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis?
A)retroviruses
B)proviruses
C)viroids
D)bacteriophages
E)lytic phages
Q2) Which of the following accounts for someone who has had a herpesvirus-mediated cold sore or genital sore getting flare-ups for the rest of life?
A)re-infection by a closely related herpesvirus of a different strain
B)re-infection by the same herpesvirus strain
C)co-infection with an unrelated virus that causes the same symptoms
D)copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host nuclei
E)copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host cell cytoplasm
Q3) Based on the above table, which virus meets the Baltimore requirements for a retrovirus?
Q4) Based on the above table, which virus meets the requirements for a bacteriophage?
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Chapter 20: Biotechnology
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Q1) Bacteria containing recombinant plasmids are often identified by which process?
A)examining the cells with an electron microscope
B)using radioactive tracers to locate the plasmids
C)exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic that kills cells lacking the resistant plasmid
D)removing the DNA of all cells in a culture to see which cells have plasmids
E)producing antibodies specific for each bacterium containing a recombinant plasmid
Q2) A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional)for genetic engineering purposes by using
A)RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene.
B)a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces.
C)reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA.
D)DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product.
E)DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that codes for a particular polypeptide.
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) A microarray known as a GeneChip, with most now known human protein coding sequences, has recently been developed to aid in the study of human cancer by first comparing two three subsets of cancer subtypes. What kind of information might be gleaned from this GeneChip to aid in cancer prevention?
A)information about whether or not a patient has this type of cancer prior to treatment.
B)evidence that might suggest how best to treat a person's cancer with chemotherapy.
C)data that could alert patients to what kind of cancer they were likely to acquire.
D)information about which parent might have provided a patient with cancer-causing genes.
E)information on cancer epidemiology in the U.S. or elsewhere.
Q2) Multigene families are
A)groups of enhancers that control transcription.
B)usually clustered at the telomeres.
C)equivalent to the operons of prokaryotes.
D)sets of genes that are coordinately controlled.
E)identical or similar genes that have evolved by gene duplication.
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Chapter 22: Descent With Modification: a Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails, as do fish, even though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are A)homologous.
B)examples of convergent evolution.
C)adaptations to a common environment.
D)A and C only
E)B and C only
Q2) Natural selection is based on all of the following except A)genetic variation exists within populations.
B)the best-adapted individuals tend to leave the most offspring.
C)individuals who survive longer tend to leave more offspring than those who die young.
D)populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support.
E)individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve.
Q3) If "x" indicates the location of fossils of two closely related species, then fossils of their most-recent common ancestor are most likely to occur in which stratum?
Q4) Which stratum should contain the greatest proportion of extinct organisms?
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) Sponges are known to contain a single Hox gene. Most invertebrates have a cluster of 10 similar Hox genes, all located on the same chromosome. Most vertebrates have four such clusters of Hox genes, located on four non-homologous chromosomes. The process responsible for the change in number of Hox genes from sponges to invertebrates was most likely __________, whereas a different process that could have potentially contributed to the cluster's presence on more than one chromosome was __________. I. binary fission
II. translation
III. gene duplication
IV. non-disjunction
V. transcription
A)I, II
B)II, III
C)II, V
D)III, IV
E)III, V
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) The observation that island D. yakuba are more closely related to mainland D. yakuba than island D. yakuba are to D. santomea is best explained by proposing that D. santomea
A)descended from a now-extinct, non-African fruit fly.
B)arose de novo; that is, had no ancestors.
C)descended from a single colony of D. yakuba, which had been introduced from elsewhere, with no subsequent colonization events.
D)descended from an original colony of D. yakuba, of which there are no surviving members. The current island D. yakuba represent a second colonization event from elsewhere.
Q2) Which of the following factors would not contribute to allopatric speciation?
A)A population becomes geographically isolated from the parent population.
B)The separated population is small, and genetic drift occurs.
C)The isolated population is exposed to different selection pressures than the ancestral population.
D)Different mutations begin to distinguish the gene pools of the separated populations.
E)Gene flow between the two populations is extensive.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) If the males' halteres have species-specific size, shape, color, and use in courtship displays, and if the species' ranges overlap, then the speciation events may have been driven, at least in part, by which of the following?
A)autopolyploidy
B)allopolyploidy
C)species selection
D)sexual selection
E)habitat differentiation
Q2) Anatomically, what was True of Lystrosaurus?
A)Its jaw would have been hinged the same way as the jaws of the early reptiles were hinged.
B)It was a tetrapod.
C)It had thin, moist skin without scales.
D)Its dentition (tooth pattern)was typical of modern mammals.
E)It would have had no temporal fenestra in its skull.
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) The four-chambered hearts of birds and the four-chambered hearts of mammals evolved independently of each other. If one were unaware of this independence, then one might logically conclude that
A)the birds were the first to evolve a 4-chambered heart.
B)birds and mammals are more distantly related than is actually the case.
C)early mammals possessed feathers.
D)the common ancestor of birds and mammals had a four-chambered heart.
E)birds and mammals should be placed in the same family.
Q2) Which of the following is not True of all horizontally oriented phylogenetic trees, where time advances to the right?
A)Each branch point represents a point in absolute time.
B)Organisms represented at the base of such trees are ancestral to those represented at higher levels.
C)The more branch points that occur between two taxa, the more divergent their DNA sequences should be.
D)The common ancestor represented by the rightmost branch point existed more recently in time than the common ancestors represented at branch points located to the left.
E)The more branch points there are, the more taxa are likely to be represented.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not True?
A)Archaea and bacteria have different membrane lipids.
B)Both archaea and bacteria generally lack membrane-enclosed organelles.
C)The cell walls of archaea lack peptidoglycan.
D)Only bacteria have histones associated with DNA.
E)Only some archaea use CO to oxidize H , releasing methane.
Q2) Which of the following are responsible for many human diseases?
A)photoautotrophs
B)photoheterotrophs
C)chemoautotrophs
D)chemoheterotrophs that perform decomposition
E)parasitic chemoheterotrophs
Q3) Not present in all bacteria, this cell covering enables cells that possess it to resist the defenses of host organisms:
A)endospore
B)sex pilus
C)flagellum
D)cell wall
E)capsule
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) The chloroplasts of land plants are thought to have been derived according to which evolutionary sequence?
A)cyanobacteria ? green algae ? land plants
B)cyanobacteria ? green algae ? fungi ? land plants
C)red algae ? brown algae ? green algae ? land plants
D)red algae ? cyanobacteria ? land plants
E)cyanobacteria ? red algae ? green algae ? land plants
Q2) The chloroplasts of all of the following are derived from ancestral red algae, except those of
A)golden algae.
B)diatoms.
C)dinoflagellates.
D)green algae.
E)brown algae.
Q3) Test tube 3 contains
A)Paramecium
B)Navicula (diatom)
C)Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate)
D)Entamoeba
E)Plasmodium
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) If a fern gametophyte is a hermaphrodite (that is, has both male and female gametangia on the same plant), then it
A)belongs to a species that is homosporous.
B)must be diploid.
C)has lost the need for a sporophyte generation.
D)has antheridia and archegonia combined into a single sex organ.
E)is actually not a fern, because fern gametophytes are always either male or female.
Q2) Which kind of plant tissue should lack phragmoplasts?
A)bryophyte tissues
B)diploid tissues of charophytes
C)spore-producing tissues of all land plants
D)tissues performing nuclear division without intervening cytokineses
E)the meristematic tissues of fern gametophytes
Q3) Bryophytes have all of the following characteristics except A)multicellularity.
B)specialized cells and tissues.
C)lignified vascular tissue.
D)walled spores in sporangia.
E)a reduced, dependent sporophyte.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Plant Diversity Ii: the Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of all angiosperms?
A)complete reliance on wind as the pollinating agent
B)double internal fertilization
C)free-living gametophytes
D)carpels that contain microsporangia
E)ovules that are not contained within ovaries
Q2) Which of the following is True concerning flowering plants?
A)The flower includes sporoophyte tissue.
B)The gametophyte generation is dominant.
C)The gametophyte generation is what we see when looking at a large plant.
D)The sporophyte generation is not photosynthetic.
E)The sporophyte generation consists of relatively few cells within the flower.
Q3) Many mammals have skins and mucous membranes that are sensitive to phenolic secretions of plants like poison oak (Rhus). These secondary compounds are primarily adaptations that
A)prevent desiccation.
B)favor pollination.
C)foster seed dispersal.
D)decrease competition.
E)inhibit herbivory.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) The photosynthetic symbiont of a lichen is often a(n)
A)moss.
B)green alga.
C)brown alga.
D)ascomycete.
E)small vascular plant.
Q2) Each of the eight ascospores present at the end of mitosis has the same chromosome number and DNA content (ng)as each of the four cells at the end of meiosis. What must have occurred in each spore between the round of meiosis and the round of mitosis?
A)double fertilization
B)crossing-over
C)nondisjunction
D)autopolyploidy
E)S phase
Q3) At which location is the mycelium currently absorbing the most nutrients per unit surface area, per unit time?
Q4) Which location is nearest to basidiocarps?
Q5) What is the most probable location of the oldest portion of this mycelium?
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animal Diversity
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Q1) What distinguishes a coelomate animal from a pseudocoelomate animal is that coelomates
A)have a body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have a solid body.
B)contain tissues derived from mesoderm, whereas pseudocoelomates have no such tissue.
C)have a body cavity completely lined by mesodermal tissue, whereas pseudocoelomates do not.
D)have a complete digestive system with mouth and anus, whereas pseudocoelomates have a digestive tract with only one opening.
E)have a gut that lacks suspension within the body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have mesenteries that hold the digestive system in place.
Q2) Protostome characteristics generally include which of the following?
A)a mouth that develops secondarily, and far away from the blastopore
B)radial body symmetry
C)radial cleavage
D)determinate cleavage
E)absence of a body cavity
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Invertebrates
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Q1) Of the annelid classes below, which have externally segmented bodies?
A)Oligochaeta
B)Polychaeta
C)Hirudinea (leeches)
D)all three of these
E)two of these
Q2) Which of the following animal groups is entirely aquatic?
A)Mollusca
B)Crustacea
C)Echinodermata
D)Arthropoda
E)Annelida
Q3) Which of the following are entirely, or partly, composed of calcium carbonate?
A)spicules of siliceous sponges
B)coral animals' exoskeletons
C)molluscs' mantles
D)insects' cuticles
E)nematodes' cuticles
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Chapter 34: Vertebrates
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Q1) Unlike eutherians, both monotremes and marsupials
A)lack nipples.
B)have some embryonic development outside the mother's uterus.
C)lay eggs.
D)are found in Australia and Africa.
E)include only insectivores and herbivores.
Q2) Internal fertilization, amniotic egg, skin that resists drying, heavy bones
A)amphibians
B)nonbird reptiles
C)chondrichthyans
D)mammals
E)birds
Q3) Which term is most nearly synonymous with "apes"?
A)hominoids
B)Homo
C)anthropoids
D)hominins
E)primates
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) A person working with plants may remove apical dominance by doing which of the following?
A)pruning
B)deep watering of the roots
C)fertilizing
D)transplanting
E)feeding the plants' nutrients
Q2) Additional vascular tissue produced as secondary growth in a root originates from which cells?
A)vascular cambium
B)apical meristem
C)endodermis
D)phloem
E)xylem
Q3) Which of the following is True of bark?
A)It is composed of phloem plus periderm.
B)It is associated with annuals but not perennials.
C)It is formed by the apical meristems.
D)It has no identifiable function in trees.
E)It forms annual rings in deciduous trees.
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Chapter 36: Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) What is the main force by which most of the water within xylem vessels moves toward the top of a tree?
A)active transport of ions into the stele
B)atmospheric pressure on roots
C)evaporation of water through stoma
D)the force of root pressure
E)osmosis in the root
Q2) Plasmodesmata can change in number, and when dilated can provide a passageway for macromolecules such as RNA and proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Phloem transport of sucrose can be described as going from "source to sink." Which of the following would not normally function as a sink?
A)growing leaf
B)growing root
C)storage organ in summer
D)mature leaf
E)shoot tip
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Plants acquire most of their nitrogen in the form of N2 that they obtain from rhizobacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If an African violet has chlorosis, which of the following elements might be a useful addition to the soil?
A)chlorine
B)molybdenum
C)copper
D)iodine
E)magnesium
Q3) We would expect the greatest difference in plant health between two groups of plants of the same species, one group with mycorrhizae and one group without mycorrhizae, in an environment
A)where nitrogen-fixing bacteria are abundant.
B)that has soil with poor drainage.
C)that has hot summers and cold winters.
D)in which the soil is relatively deficient in mineral nutrients.
E)that is near a body of water, such as a pond or river.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the life cycle of an angiosperm, which of the following stages is diploid?
A)megaspore
B)generative nucleus of a pollen grain
C)polar nuclei of the embryo sac
D)microsporocyte
E)both megaspore and polar nuclei
Q2) A perfect flower is fertile, but may be either complete or incomplete. Which of the following correctly describes a perfect flower?
A)It has no sepals.
B)It has fused carpels.
C)It is on a dioecious plant.
D)It has no endosperm.
E)It has both stamens and carpels.
Q3) All of the following are commercial uses of transgenic crops except
A)inserting Bt toxin genes into cotton, maize, and potato.
B)developing plants that tolerate herbicides.
C)producing plants that resist attack by certain viruses.
D)developing plants that produce increasing quantities of Vitamin A.
E)producing plants that contain genes for making human insulin.
Q4) Which cell(s)become(s)the triploid endosperm?
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Buds and sprouts often form on tree stumps. Which of the following hormones would you expect to stimulate their formation?
A)auxin
B)cytokinins
C)abscisic acid
D)ethylene
E)gibberellins
Q2) Classic experiments suggested that a floral stimulus Florigen could move across a graft from an induced plant to a noninduced plant and trigger flowering. Recent evidence using Arabidopsis has recently shown that florigen is probably
A)a phytochrome molecule that is activated by red light.
B)a protein that is synthesized in leaves and travels to the shoot apical meristem and initiates flowering.
C)a membrane signal that travels through the symplast from leaves to buds.
D)a second messenger that induces Ca++ ions to change membrane potential.
E)a transcription factor that controls the activation of florigen specific genes.
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organism that has only behavioral controls over its body temperature is the A)green frog.
B)penguin.
C)bluefin tuna.
D)house sparrow.
E)gray wolf.
Q2) The epithelium type with the shortest diffusion distance is
A)simple squamous epithelium.
B)simple cuboidal epithelium.
C)simple columnar epithelium.
D)pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
E)stratified squamous epithelium.
Q3) All types of muscle tissue have
A)intercalated discs that allow cells to communicate.
B)striated banding pattern seen under the microscope.
C)cells that lengthen when appropriately stimulated.
D)a response that can be consciously controlled.
E)interactions between actin and myosin.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coprophagy allows some animals to re-eat fecal material in order to recover more nutrients. In which of these animals would such behavior be displayed?
A)ruminants such as cows
B)insects and arthropods
C)rabbits and their relatives
D)squirrels and some rodents
E)very large animals, e.g., elephants
Q2) Numerous adult humans are currently treated for reflux disorders. However, at an earlier time in medical history these same individuals probably would have been diagnosed with gastric ulcers. Which of the following has most contributed to correct diagnosis of this problem?
A)better pH monitoring
B)improvements in X-ray technology
C)ability to diagnose and treat H. pylori infection
D)ability to perform colonoscopy
E)ability to perform sonography
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43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is correct for a blood pressure reading of 130/80?
I. The systolic pressure is 130.
II. The diastolic pressure is 80.
III. The blood pressure during heart contraction is 80.
A)I only
B)III only
C)I and II only
D)II and III only
E)I, II, and III
Q2) Damage to the sinoatrial node in humans
A)is a major contributor to heart attacks.
B)would block conductance between the bundle branches and the Purkinje fibers.
C)would have a negative effect on peripheral resistance.
D)would disrupt the rate and timing of cardiac muscle contractions.
E)would have a direct effect on blood pressure monitors in the aorta.
Q3) Draw a pair of simple diagrams comparing the essential features of single and double circulation.
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44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jenner successfully used cowpox virus as a vaccine against the virus that causes smallpox. Why was he successful even though he used viruses of different kinds?
A)The immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens.
B)The cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox.
C)Cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties.
D)There are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses.
Q2) Which of the following are T cells of the immune system?
A)CD4, CD8, and plasma cells
B)cytotoxic and helper cells
C)plasma, antigen-presenting, and memory cells
D)lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells
E)class I MHC, class II MHC, and memory cells
Q3) These cells are involved in innate immunity, and a person lacking these cells may have a higher than normal chance of developing malignant tumors:
A)cytotoxic T cells
B)natural killer cells
C)helper T cells
D)macrophages
E)B cells
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following excretory systems is partly based on the filtration of fluid under high hydrostatic pressure?
A)flame-bulb system of flatworms
B)protonephridia of rotifers
C)metanephridia of earthworms
D)Malpighian tubules of insects
E)kidneys of vertebrates
Q2) Proper functioning of the human kidney requires considerable active transport of sodium in the kidney tubules. If these active transport mechanisms were to stop completely, how would urine production be affected?
A)No urine would be produced.
B)A less-than-normal volume of hypoosmotic urine would be produced.
C)A greater-than-normal volume of isoosmotic urine would be produced.
D)A greater-than-normal volume of hyperosmotic urine would be produced.
E)A less-than-normal volume of isoosmotic urine would be produced.
Q3) Synthesized by mammals, most amphibians, sharks, and some bony fishes because of its lesser toxicity
Q4) Excreted as a paste by land snails, insects, birds, and many reptiles, because of its solubility and toxicity properties
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) Which of the following statements about hormones is incorrect?
A)Glands that produce them are ductless glands.
B)They are produced only by organs called endocrine organs.
C)Some are water soluble and some are not.
D)They often maintain steady-state conditions.
E)They may turn genes off or on.
Q2) The results most likely occurred because progesterone exerts an effect on the A)general health of the rat.
B)size of the fetus.
C)maintenance of the uterus.
D)gestation period of rats.
E)number of eggs fertilized.
Q3) If the adrenal cortex were removed, which group of hormones would be most affected?
A)steroid
B)peptide
C)tropic
D)amino acid-derived
E)paracrine
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) A primary response by the Leydig cells in the testes to the presence of luteinizing hormone is an increase in the synthesis and secretion of A)inhibin.
B)testosterone.
C)oxytocin.
D)prolactin.
E)progesterone.
Q2) Internal and external fertilization both
A)produce zygotes.
B)occur only among invertebrates.
C)occur only among terrestrial animals.
D)depend on the use of intromittent copulatory organs.
E)occur only among birds.
Q3) In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following ovulation become
A)ovarian endometrium shed at the time of menses.
B)a steroid-hormone synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum.
C)the thickened portion of the uterine wall.
D)swept into the fallopian tube.
E)the placenta, which secretes cervical mucus.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Q1) The migratory neural crest cells
A)form most of the central nervous system.
B)serve as precursor cells for the notochord.
C)form the spinal cord in the frog.
D)form neural and non-neural structures in the periphery.
E)form the lining of the lungs and of the digestive tract.
Q2) The archenteron develops into the
A)mesoderm.
B)blastocoel.
C)endoderm.
D)placenta.
E)lumen of the digestive tract.
Q3) The sequence of developmental milestones proceeds as follows:
A)cleavage blastula gastrula morula
B)cleavage gastrula morula blastula
C)cleavage morula blastula gastrula
D)gastrula morula blastula cleavage
E)morula cleavage gastrula blastula
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Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
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Q1) Action potentials are normally carried in only one direction: from the axon hillock toward the axon terminals. If you experimentally depolarize the middle of the axon to threshold, using an electronic probe, then
A)no action potential will be initiated.
B)an action potential will be initiated and proceed only in the normal direction toward the axon terminal.
C)an action potential will be initiated and proceed only back toward the axon hillock.
D)two action potentials will be initiated, one going toward the axon terminal and one going back toward the hillock.
E)an action potential will be initiated, but it will die out before it reaches the axon terminal.
Q2) The "selectivity" of a particular ion channel refers to its
A)permitting passage by positive but not negative ions.
B)permitting passage by negative but not positive ions.
C)ability to change its size depending on the ion needing transport.
D)binding with only one type of neurotransmitter.
E)permitting passage only to a specific ion.
Q3) The neuronal membrane is at its resting potential at label
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50
Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?
A)limbic system-motor control of speech
B)medulla oblongata-homeostatic control
C)cerebellum-coordination of movement and balance
D)corpus callosum-communication between the left and right cerebral cortices
E)hypothalamus-regulation of temperature, hunger, and thirst
Q2) The cerebral cortex plays a major role in all of the following except
A)short-term memory.
B)long-term memory.
C)circadian rhythm.
D)foot-tapping rhythm.
E)breath holding.
Q3) In the vertebrate brain and spinal cord there are several types of glial cells in which system?
A)central nervous system
B)peripheral nervous system
C)autonomic nervous system
D)parasympathetic nervous system
E)sympathetic nervous system
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) Which of the following is an attachment site between sensory hairs that open ion channels when the hairs bend?
A)tip links
B)statoliths
C)otoliths
D)round window
E)statocysts
Q2) Which of the following is a sensation and not a perception?
A)seeing the colors in a rainbow
B)a nerve impulse induced by sugar stimulating sweet receptors on the tongue
C)the smell of natural gas escaping from an open burner on a gas stove
D)the unique taste of french fries with cheese
E)the sound of a fire-truck siren as it passes by your car
Q3) Which of the major senses responds by means of a very large gene family?
A)taste
B)smell
C)vision
D)hearing
E)equilibrium
Q4) Which section consists only of myosin filaments?
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Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Which of the following could be classified as habituation?
A)You enter a room and hear a fan motor. After a period of time, you are no longer aware of the motor's noise.
B)You hear a horn while driving your car. You step on the brakes but notice the sound came from a side street. You resume your previous speed.
C)One morning you awake to a beep-beep-beep from a garbage truck working on a new early morning schedule. The next week the garbage truck arrives at the same time and makes the same noise, but does not wake you up.
D)A and C only
E)A, B, and C
Q2) Some dogs love attention, and Frodo the beagle learns that if he barks, he gets attention. Which of the following might you use to describe this behavior?
A)The dog is displaying an instinctive fixed action pattern.
B)The dog is performing a social behavior.
C)The dog is trying to protect its territory.
D)The dog has been classically conditioned.
E)The dog's behavior is a result of operant conditioning.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) In which of the following terrestrial biome pairs are both dependent upon periodic burning?
A)tundra and coniferous forest
B)chaparral and savanna
C)desert and savanna
D)tropical forest and temperate broadleaf forest
E)grassland and tundra
Q2) Phytoplankton is most frequently found in which of the following zones?
A)oligotrophic
B)photic
C)benthic
D)abyssal
E)aphotic
Q3) Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities?
A)precipitation, wind
B)nutrient availability, soil pH
C)predation, competition
D)temperature, water
E)light intensity, seasonality
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Natural selection has led to the evolution of diverse natural history strategies, which have in common
A)many offspring per reproductive episode.
B)limitation only by density-independent limiting factors.
C)adaptation to stable environments.
D)maximum lifetime reproductive success.
E)relatively large offspring.
Q2) Scientific study of the population cycles of the snowshoe hare and its predator, the lynx, has revealed that
A)the prey population is controlled by predators alone.
B)hares and lynx are so mutually dependent that each species cannot survive without the other.
C)multiple biotic and abiotic factors contribute to the cycling of hare and lynx populations.
D)both hare and lynx populations are regulated mainly by abiotic factors.
E)the hare population is r-selected and the lynx population is K-selected.
Q3) Which curve best describes survivorship in marine mollusks?
Q4) Which curve best describes survivorship in a marine crustacean that molts?
Q5) Which curve best describes survivorship in humans who live in developed nations?
Page 55
Q6) Which curve best describes survivorship in songbirds?
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Q1) Approximately how many kg of carnivore production can be supported by a field plot containing 2000 kg of plant material?
A)20,000
B)2,000
C)200
D)20
E)2
Q2) Biomanipulation can best be described as
A)removing many of the next higher trophic level organisms so that the struggling trophic level below can recover.
B)a means of reversing the effects of pollution by applying antidote chemicals that have a neutralizing effect on the community.
C)an example of how one would use bottom-up model for ecosystem restoration.
D)adjusting the population numbers of each of the trophic levels back to the numbers that they were before man started disturbing ecosystems.
E)monitoring and adjusting the nutrient and energy flow through a community with new technologies.
Q3) Which island would likely have the lowest extinction rate?
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems
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79 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these ecosystems accounts for the largest amount of Earth's net primary productivity?
A)tundra
B)savanna
C)salt marsh
D)open ocean
E)tropical rain forest
Q2) When levels of CO2 are experimentally increased, C3 plants generally respond with a greater increase in productivity than C4 plants. This is because
A)C3 plants are more efficient in their use of CO2.
B)C3 plants are able to obtain the same amount of CO2 by keeping their stomata open for shorter periods of time.
C)C4 plants don't use CO2 as their source of carbon.
D)C3 plants are more limited than C4 plants by CO2 availability because of transpirational water loss.
E)C3 plants have special adaptations for CO2 uptake, such as larger stomata.
Q3) A toxic pollutant would probably reach its highest concentration in which species?
Q4) Which species is most likely the decomposer?
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology
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65 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is habitat fragmentation related to biodiversity loss?
A)Less carbon dioxide is absorbed by plants in fragmented habitats.
B)In fragmented habitats, more soil erosion takes place.
C)Populations of organisms in fragments are smaller and, thus, more susceptible to extinction.
D)Animals are forced out of smaller habitat fragments.
E)Fragments generate silt that negatively affect sensitive river and stream organisms.
Q2) Review the formula for effective population size. Imagine a population of 1,000 small rodents. Of these, 300 are breeding females, 300 are breeding males, and 400 are nonbreeding juveniles. What is the effective population size?
A)1,000
B)1,200
C)600
D)400
E)300
Q3) Which of these represents the best quail habitat in terms of fragmentation and edge?
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