Introduction to Biology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles governing living organisms, from the molecular and cellular levels to ecosystems and evolution. The course covers topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, metabolism, biodiversity, plant and animal physiology, and ecological interactions. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, experimental methods, and the relevance of biology to everyday life and current global issues. This course serves as a basis for further study in biological sciences and related fields.
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Discover Biology 6th Edition by Anu Singh
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics is NOT shared by all living organisms?
A) They make their own energy.
B) They grow and develop.
C) They evolve over time.
D) They are composed of one or more cells.
Answer: A
Q2) When compared with natural systems,a college campus-including its facilities-is most similar to a(n)
A) ecosystem.
B) community.
C) biome.
D) population.
Answer: A
Q3) All living organisms sense their environment and respond to it.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Experimentation is the primary means that verifies or refutes the ________ made by a hypothesis.
Answer: predictions
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of cholesterol?
A) Cholesterol is converted into other important molecules like steroid hormones.
B) Cholesterol is converted into a vitamin important in the growth and maintenance of bone and muscle.
C) Cholesterol is a necessary component in the cell membranes of plants.
D) A derivative of cholesterol aids in the digestion of fats.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following combinations of atoms would form ionic bonds?
A) H<sup>+</sup> and O
B) Na<sup>+</sup> and K<sup>+</sup>
C) Na<sup>+</sup> and Cl<sup>+</sup>
D) PO<sub>4</sub>1<sup>-</sup>and I<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
Answer: C
Q3) A monosaccharide is made up of several sugar molecules strung together.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Molecules that are nonpolar and repelled by water are called ________.
Answer: hydrophobic
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) Advancement in biology was hindered by the concept of spontaneous generation,the belief that nonliving objects could spontaneously come to life.What aspect of the cell theory specifically refutes this idea?
A) Every living organism is composed of one or more cells.
B) All living cells come from preexisting cells.
C) Cells are the smallest unit of life possible on Earth.
D) The components of a cell do not individually retain the distinctive characteristics of life.
Answer: B
Q2) You are an astronaut and have discovered an alien photosynthetic organism.It has organelles that are responsible for photosynthesis;these organelles appear to work in much the same way as the chloroplasts in plants on Earth.The only difference is that they are red.Which color of light is NOT likely to drive photosynthesis in these alien organelles?
A) green
B) blue
C) red
D) violet
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) After a sex hormone enters a target cell,it
A) binds to the nucleus.
B) becomes a signaling protein.
C) binds to an internal receptor protein.
D) becomes a gene.
Q2) The principle of cell ________ is that different cells in the same organism may have different functions.
Q3) Many hormones are large and hydrophilic.Where would you expect the receptor proteins for these hormones to be located?
A) in the cell membrane with the hormone-binding site exposed to the cell interior
B) in the hydrophilic portion of the cell membrane
C) in the cytoplasm of a cell
D) in the cell membrane with the hormone-binding site exposed to the cell exterior
Q4) Muscle cells require high concentrations of calcium to function properly.As a result,these cells use ________ transport to move calcium from areas of low concentration outside the cell into the cytoplasm.
Q5) Water moves across a membrane from a hypotonic solution to a ________ solution.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) Some enzymes need particular ions or small molecules to attain their highest activity;these enzyme "helpers" are known as ________.
Q2) Which of the following substances is either consumed or synthesized in a large number of cellular reactions?
A) sugars
B) enzymes
C) DNA
D) ATP
Q3) When ATP breaks down into ADP and a free phosphate group,which of the following processes occurs?
A) ADP absorbs energy and transfers it to enzymes.
B) Energy is released and can be used to power cellular activities.
C) ADP becomes the active site in an enzyme.
D) The energy in the broken bond is transferred to the phosphate group.
Q4) When ATP breaks down into ADP and a free phosphate group,energy is given off.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is called the ________.
Q6) The gain of electrons by one atom from another atom is referred to as ________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) Plants that live in very dry regions where they are subject to the dangers of extreme water loss through their stomata open their stomata only at night,when the temperature is lower and the air is not as dry.These plants are referred to as ________ plants.
Q2) Cellular respiration is essentially the opposite of photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most people respond to a prolonged stay at high altitude by producing more hemoglobin,producing more and larger red blood cells,or both.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You have shrunk to molecular size and find yourself in a mitochondrial chamber where protons are being pumped out of the chamber and across a membrane into another chamber.You are in the mitochondrion's ________.
Q5) Cyanide blocks the electron transport chain in mitochondria and can ultimately cause the glycolytic pathway to shut down because no NADH is available to keep it going.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Q1) At the end of telophase,the cell is ready for physical division into two cells;this process is called ________.
Q2) You are examining the rapidly dividing cells of a fish embryo and notice a cell that seems to contain two nuclei with complete nuclear envelopes and decondensing chromosomes.The middle of the cell is pinched inward.This cell must be in A) prophase.
B) telophase.
C) metaphase.
D) anaphase.
Q3) Which of the following things could NOT be determined from looking at a karyotype?
A) the gender of the individual who provided the sample
B) whether the source of the sample was a nonhuman species
C) whether the source of the sample was a somatic cell or a gamete
D) the height and eye color of the individual who provided the sample
Q4) The attachment of microtubules to the centromeres of chromosomes sets the stage for the positioning of the chromosomes at the metaphase plate;the attachment of the microtubules occurs during the mitotic phase called ________.
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) All viruses cause cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A woman who has already had children develops skin cancer from overexposure to the sun.Is it likely that her children have inherited this cancer from her?
A) No,because somatic mutations are not passed on to the next generation.
B) No,because any cancer that develops after a person is an adult cannot have a genetic component.
C) Yes,because almost all cancers are caused by inherited mutations.
D) Yes,because the woman's children have exactly the same genes as their mother.
Q3) For cancer to form in the presence of a tumor suppressor gene,which of the following is necessary?
A) Both copies of the tumor suppressor gene must be inactivated.
B) The tumor suppressor gene must be activated.
C) One copy of the tumor suppressor gene must be inactivated.
D) The tumor suppressor gene is not involved in cancer formation.
Q4) One or two mutations are often the cause of cancer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following choices represents the genotype of an individual diploid organism?
A) BbCCdd
B) BCd
C) bCd
D) BbCd
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Specific mutations occur because they are needed.
B) Mutations only occur during development.
C) All mutations are harmful.
D) Gametes fuse without regard to which mutations they carry.
Q3) A tall plant mates with itself and produces all tall offspring.This cross is repeated for many generations with the same results.The parental plant is most likely
A) heterozygous.
B) completely dominant.
C) mutated.
D) true-breeding.
Q4) If an offspring of two diploid parents carries a total of 32 different genes,it inherited ________ genes from each of those parents.
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) Translocation occurs when homologous chromosomes exchange equal pieces of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This chromosomal disorder known as Cri du chat syndrome is the result of missing a part of chromosome 5,an example of chromosome A) inversion.
B) deletion.
C) translocation.
D) duplication.
Q3) During cell division,a piece of a chromosome breaks away and is added to the end of its homologue.The homologue with the addition is an example of A) duplication.
B) inversion.
C) translocation.
D) deletion.
Q4) Spontaneous abortions are often due to the addition or deletion of whole ________ in the gametes that fused to form the zygote.
Q5) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype ________.
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Q1) The significance of specific base pairing in DNA is that
A) it stabilizes the sugar molecule.
B) it provides a method for making exact copies of DNA.
C) it prevents errors in DNA replication.
D) protein copies can be made directly from the DNA.
Q2) One level of DNA packing involves the DNA being wound around A) histone proteins.
B) an RNA molecule.
C) cytoplasmic organelles.
D) translation enzymes.
Q3) If their food source changes from lactose to arabinose,bacteria turn off their genes for lactose enzymes and turn on their genes for arabinose enzymes.Why don't bacteria express the genes for both lactose and arabinose enzymes all the time?
A) To prevent the waste of energy and resources on unneeded protein production.
B) Ribosomes will only transcribe one gene at a time in prokaryotes.
C) The unneeded proteins will bind to noncoding DNA and interfere with transcription.
D) The lactose and arabinose enzymes will destroy each other.
Q4) DNA is tightly packed around protein spools known as ________.
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) During translation
A) many mRNA molecules work with one tRNA molecule and one rRNA molecule to produce a protein.
B) one tRNA molecule works with paired mRNA molecules and many rRNA molecules to produce a protein.
C) strings of bonded tRNA molecules work with one mRNA molecule and one rRNA molecule to produce a protein.
D) one mRNA molecule works with several rRNA molecules and many tRNA molecules to produce a protein.
Q2) The genes that control lactose utilization (its uptake and degradation)in bacteria are arranged sequentially in the bacterial chromosome under the control of a single promoter sequence.This arrangement of genes is called a(n)
A) operator.
B) exelon.
C) operon.
D) promoton.
Q3) Translation,a process carried out by the ribosomes,occurs in the cell ________.
Q4) For translation to begin,mRNA must first bind to a ________.
Q5) Most molecules of RNA are ________-stranded.
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT involved in creating recombinant DNA?
A) restriction enzymes
B) ligase
C) RNA
D) plasmids
Q2) In RNA ________,the expression of a specific gene is blocked by small pieces of RNA.
Q3) The DNA primers used in PCR are
A) identical to the entire base sequence of one strand of the DNA.
B) produced when a gene of interest is read by restriction enzymes.
C) attached to the gene of interest by ligase.
D) complementary to DNA sequences at both ends of the DNA sequence of interest.
Q4) Human gene therapy involves
A) introducing a functioning copy of the defective gene into the patient.
B) using plasmids to carry genes that will break down a specific harmful gene in a patient.
C) inserting genes from other organisms into the human genome.
D) using PCR to produce large amounts of normal DNA that can be injected into a patient.
Q5) A DNA fingerprint is also called a DNA ________.
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Biological evolution can be defined as
A) the process of direct observation.
B) adaptations to common descent.
C) the unchanging nature of life on Earth.
D) the change in allele frequencies in a population's gene pool over time.
Q2) One of the consequences of ________ is a change in the proportions of one or more of the inherited characteristics found in the next generation,compared with the original population.
Q3) For a population to evolve,there must be genetic differences between organisms in that population.These differences come from
A) mutation.
B) a change in an organism's behavior.
C) natural selection.
D) common descent.
Q4) Which of the following statements about natural selection is true?
A) It is the principal cause of extinctions.
B) It is the principal cause of evolutionary change.
C) It occurs only in gametes.
D) It cannot occur without genetic drift.
Q5) ________ are the preserved remains of formerly living organisms.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Polyploidy can lead to very rapid speciation in plants because
A) polyploidy increases the amount of gene flow between polyploid plants and nonpolyploid plants.
B) the DNA sequences of essential genes are altered to such a degree that the polyploid plant can no longer mate with the original species.
C) the gametes of polyploid plants have too many chromosomes and cannot fuse to the gametes of the original species.
D) when a plant becomes polyploid,it often loses the ability to make gametes of any type.
Q2) The fossils of two adult birds are found in a nest containing several fossilized eggs.Physically,the bird fossils look very different from each other.What are scientists most likely to use to classify these species?
A) the biological species concept
B) the DNA-based species concept
C) the morphological species concept
D) the evidence of reproduction concept
Q3) ________ barriers cause speciation to occur by preventing fertilization when two individuals of different populations attempt to mate.
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 ____________________ years ago.
Q2) An asteroid can cause a mass extinction by creating a cloud that blocks out the sun for months or years after impact.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After the extinction of the dinosaurs,the stage was set for the eventual evolution of humans by the adaptive radiation of ____________________.
Q4) Fossils found closer to the surface are usually older than those buried deeper in the Earth's crust.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Dinosaurs lived on Pangaea.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Members of all of Earth's different species (past and present)have been (or will be)converted into some type of fossil after their death.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) New bacteria are identified in the large intestines of a healthy person.Are the bacteria likely to be a human pathogen?
A) Yes,any bacteria found within the human body are a human pathogen.
B) Yes,only pathogenic bacteria can survive in the human digestive tract.
C) No,most bacteria are harmless to humans.
D) No,pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in the human digestive tract.
Q2) The naturally occurring fungus Penicillium produces an antibiotic substance that kills bacteria.Why does the fungus produce this substance?
A) to form a biofilm
B) to serve as a nutrient
C) to cure human infections
D) to kill bacteria that are competing with it for resources
Q3) Bacteria,Archaea,and Eukarya are the three ________;they form the broadest hierarchical level in the organization of life.
Q4) The status of viruses has been controversial,but most biologists now agree that the most appropriate description for a virus is a microscopic,________ infective particle.
Q5) The domain most similar to Eukarya is ________.
Q6) Bacteria trade small sections of plasmid DNA with one another during ________.
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) The kingdom Protista is quite diverse and the relationship among its various members is unclear.The best method of clarifying those relationships will require that biologists
A) remove the kingdom from Eukarya and place it in its own domain.
B) match each of the protist traits with the corresponding animal trait of the common ancestor.
C) separate the eukaryotic protists from the prokaryotic protists.
D) create an evolutionary tree for the group using comparative DNA data.
Q2) Seeds contain the embryos of plants and nutrients to assist with germination and initial growth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mixotrophs show some unusual nutritional strategies;for example,when resources such as nitrogen become limited,they often switch from
A) photoautotrophy to chemoheterotrophy.
B) photoautotrophy to chemoautotrophy.
C) chemoheterotrophy to photoheterotrophy.
D) photoheterotrophy to photoautotrophy.
Q4) Most plants produce flowers,which greatly improve the probability of ________.
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) Conservation biologists estimate that 20 percent of the world's bird species that existed 2,000 years ago are now extinct.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Features such as a toothed jaw and a bony tail suggest that Archaeopteryx probably did not fly,possibly using its feathers for insulation or gliding instead of flight.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With the exception of the sponges,all animals develop embryologically in one of two ways;the chordates and echinoderms,as deuterostomes,
A) are the only radially symmetric groups.
B) are the only bilaterally symmetric groups.
C) derive the anus from the blastopore.
D) derive the mouth from the blastopore.
Q4) For the insects that undergo complete metamorphosis,the larva matures to form a ________.
Q5) An animal having radial symmetry,a complete gut,and mesoglea would be a(n)________.
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) An ecosystem consists of both biotic (living)and ________ (nonliving)factors.
Q2) Problems arise during an El Niño event when
A) warm surface water,depleted of its nutrients,flows toward the South American coast.
B) displaced organisms crowd into adjacent habitats.
C) warm surface waters evaporate more rapidly,causing increased rainfall in every terrestrial biome.
D) ocean current systems reverse their flow directions and impede migrating marine fish and mammals.
Q3) The Gulf Stream moves about as much water as the average large river on land does.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Temperature differences drive air movement in the six atmospheric convection cells with warm,moist air sinking and cool,dry air rising.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Despite the absence of photosynthesis,the continuous settling of detritus makes the ________ zone of the coastal ocean a stable habitat.
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) At room temperature,a population of dangerous bacteria on a piece of raw chicken increases from 100,000 to 400,000 in 40 minutes.During this period of exponential growth,the population doubles every ________ minutes.
Q2) Billions of people throughout the world currently consume insects and this number will likely increase if population growth trends continue upward.Consuming insects makes good sense for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) insects are highly nutritious with a protein content equal to conventional foods.
B) insects are abundant and typically have very high population growth rates.
C) insects can be grown,harvested,and processed with relatively little environmental impact.
D) consuming insects helps reduces their overall impact as pest organisms.
Q3) A population is counted at 100 individuals in 1998.In 2006,a new count found 1,600 individuals.What is the doubling time for the population?
A) 0.5 years
B) 1 year
C) 1.5 years
D) 2 years
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Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) In a laboratory,a mouse runs a maze faster on the third try and even faster on the fifth try.Which of the following best describes what has taken place?
A) The mouse has doubly imprinted the maze.
B) The mouse has first learned the maze and then established its pattern in a fixed behavior.
C) The mouse has learned more about the maze on each trial.
D) The mouse learned the maze on the first three tries and then imprinted what it learned on the fourth try.
Q2) An advertisement that uses images of pizza takes advantage of ________ that plays a large role in purchasing decisions.
A) a fixed behavior
B) a learned response
C) the imprinting
D) the sensation of hunger,rather than a learned behavior
Q3) In a polygamous mating system,a male mates with a group of females called a
Q4) Fixed behaviors are learned.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Black oak trees are one of the earliest colonists after bare sand dunes are created.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Milkweed is a mildly toxic plant unless it has been grazed,in which case the toxin concentration greatly increases;this change,stimulated by an attack from herbivores,is an example of a(n)________ response.
Q3) Relationships between different species often involve energy or lifestyle compromises.What best describes the compromises,if any,seen in mutualism?
A) no compromises to either organism
B) fatal to at least one of the organisms
C) a compromise (for example,dietary restriction)to one organism but not the other
D) slight compromises (for example,habitat restriction)to both organisms
Q4) Anthropogenic,or human-caused,changes to ecological communities typically
A) improve those habitats for other organisms.
B) cause long-term damage and reduce the complexity of existing communities.
C) do not influence the natural interactions between organisms.
D) generally increase the diversity of life on Earth.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of the following would most likely take longest to replace if lost from a terrestrial ecosystem?
A) sulfur
B) carbon
C) oxygen
D) phosphorous
Q2) Other than the polar tundra,the LEAST productive biomes tend to be
A) deserts.
B) temperate forests.
C) tropical forests.
D) estuaries.
Q3) In marine ecosystems,net primary productivity tends to be
A) greater along shorelines where terrestrial nutrients enter the marine environment.
B) lower where the oceans border land because terrestrial pollution suppresses marine productivity.
C) lowest in areas where upwelling brings colder water to the surface.
D) greater than the net primary productivity on land.
Q4) A nutrient whose biogeochemical cycle does not include an atmospheric phase is said to have a(n)________ cycle.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Humans are particularly adept at water transformation;scientists now estimate that human activities have affected nearly ________ percent of the world's rivers.
A) 10
B) 40
C) 70
D) 100
Q2) The highest concentrations of environmental pollutants are typically found in the predators at the top of the food chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Carbon dioxide makes up approximately ________ percent of Earth's atmosphere.
A) 94
B) 44
C) 4
D) 0.04
Q4) Long-lived synthetic organic molecules that bioaccumulate in organisms are referred to as ________.
Q5) About 50 percent of the human population lives near ________ ecosystems.
Q6) Humans are changing the way many chemicals ________ through ecosystems.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Cooling by evaporation requires A) radiation.
B) a dry surface.
C) a wet surface.
D) conduction.
Q2) A person whose hands are being warmed by holding a hot cup of tea is gaining heat by A) convection.
B) conduction.
C) evaporation.
D) radiation.
Q3) The basic functioning unit of the kidney is the ________.
Q4) The very young and the elderly are more at risk for heatstroke.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a nephron the filtrate is derived from blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An animal can lose heat by ________ even when the environmental temperature is greater than its internal temperature.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Not all parts of the food that humans ingest are used by our bodies.Fiber,consisting mostly of cellulose,for instance,is excreted without providing nutrition.Which of the following statements explains why fiber is NOT used as a nutrient in humans?
A) The human gut is unable to break it down;thus,it cannot be absorbed across the intestinal cells' membranes.
B) Fiber is an amino acid but not one of the essential amino acids,so we do not need to absorb it as a nutrient.
C) The fiber content of human foods is so low that it is not worthwhile for our bodies to expend energy to extract its nutrients.
D) The fiber is digested into such small molecules that they become nutritionally insignificant.
Q2) Digestive ________,such as pepsin,break specific chemical bonds to help organisms process their food.
Q3) Vitamins are an essential source of energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Vitamins are either water soluble or ________ soluble.
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Hemoglobin
A) is an enzyme involved in the process of cellular respiration.
B) transports oxygen from cells undergoing cellular respiration to red blood cells.
C) binds to oxygen and releases it near cells performing cellular respiration.
D) makes the blood more acidic,enabling it to absorb more oxygen.
Q2) During the standard cardiac cycle,blood passes through four different valves.Some newborns suffer from a structural defect that forms an open passage between the atria;what valves would be bypassed in this condition?
A) the left atrium/ventricle valve and the right ventricle/artery valve
B) the left atrium/ventricle valve and the left ventricle/artery valve
C) the right atrium/ventricle valve and the right ventricle/artery valve
D) the right atrium/ventricle valve and the left ventricle/artery valve
Q3) The energy required to pump the blood through the systemic circuit is provided by the force generated when the ________ contracts.
Q4) If skin were the gas exchange surface for humans,it would have sufficient surface area to support our need for oxygen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) Cancer of the pituitary gland can cause gigantism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following would be LEAST affected by gonadotropins?
A) development of facial hair in human males
B) development of pubic hair
C) development of the thyroid gland
D) development of breasts in human females
Q3) Epinephrine is produced in the
A) pancreas.
B) kidneys.
C) adrenal glands.
D) hypothalamus.
Q4) In response to low levels of calcium in the blood,
A) calcitonin would be released by the thyroid gland.
B) parathyroid hormone would be released by the parathyroid gland.
C) epinephrine would be released by the adrenal glands.
D) glucagon would be released by the pancreas.
Q5) Because steroid hormones are ________,they are able to pass through a cell's plasma membrane without the assistance of membrane transport proteins.
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) To respond to an incoming signal,such as your fingertip being burned by a candle's flame,the signal must be transmitted to the brain before your muscles can be told to respond and pull away.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The largest,most visible part of the human brain is the A) hippocampus.
B) cerebrum.
C) hypothalamus.
D) thalamus.
Q3) The branched receiving ends of a nerve cell are called A) dendrites.
B) axons.
C) neurons.
D) synapses.
Q4) A signal-sending neuron releases a ________,a molecule that carries the signal across the synapse between nerve cells.
Q5) The brain and spinal cord make up the ________ nervous system.
Q6) Brain activity rises during ________ sleep.
Q7) We perceive pressure waves in air as ________.
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Chapter 31: Skeletons,Muscles,and Movement
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Q1) Skeletons that form hard mineral matrices usually contain
A) actin.
B) cartilage.
C) calcium.
D) chitin.
Q2) Which of the following animals has a skeleton made of carbohydrates linked with proteins?
A) a mouse
B) a housefly
C) a shark
D) a swallow
Q3) Locomotion in insects differs from that of vertebrates in that the muscles of insects
A) are attached to an endoskeleton rather than an exoskeleton.
B) are inside the skeleton rather than outside.
C) push (extend)rather than pull (contract).
D) do not extend across joints.
Q4) A hydrostat stiffens when a muscle contracts around a body cavity filled with a
Q5) Tendons are connective tissues that connect ________ to bone.
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Chapter 32: The Immune System
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Q1) The immune system is considered to consist of two subdivisions,a nonspecific component consisting primarily of barriers and phagocytes known as the innate response and a highly specific component consisting primarily of antibody and cell-mediated strategies known as the ________ response.
Q2) During a major infection a fever often develops.What best explains the origin of this change in body temperature?
A) The infectious pathogens produce chemicals that stimulate the brain to elevate the temperature,creating an environment more suitable to bacterial growth.
B) The immune system stimulates the brain to elevate the temperature,an action that both limits bacterial growth and increases the rate of phagocytosis.
C) The infectious pathogens damage tissues throughout the body,creating a negative thermoregulatory feedback cycle.
D) The subsequent low energy levels that result from the metabolic demands of fever impair the nervous system and disable the homeostatic system that controls body temperature.
Q3) The first exposure to a particular antigen initiates a(n)________ immune response.
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which of the following statements about animal sperm and eggs is FALSE?
A) Sperm and eggs are produced in the gonads.
B) Sperm are produced throughout a man's life in the seminiferous tubules.
C) Sperm and eggs are produced through meiosis.
D) Sperm and eggs have the same amount of genetic material per cell as the cells in their parent organisms.
Q2) Which one of the following methods of reproduction is NOT used by animals?
A) sexual reproduction involving sperm and eggs
B) asexual reproduction involving only one animal
C) asexual reproduction involving sperm and eggs
D) a piece of an animal breaks off and grows into a new individual
Q3) In oogenesis,the final steps of meiosis do NOT occur until ________ takes place.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT usually associated with sexual reproduction?
A) germ line cells
B) gametes
C) genetic clones
D) zygotes
Q5) Oogenesis produces one egg from a germ line cell.Spermatogenesis results in the production of ________ sperm from a germ line cell.
Page 35
Q6) Haploid gametes are produced by ________.
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Chapter 34: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) The typical leaf is broad and flat.This structure maximizes the amount of
A) light the leaf can capture for photosynthesis.
B) area available for the plant to absorb carbon dioxide.
C) area available for the plant to absorb water.
D) light the leaf can capture for photosynthesis and the area available for the plant to absorb carbon dioxide.
Q2) A flowering plant with leaves containing parallel veins is most likely a dicot.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which plant does NOT capture prey?
A) Venus flytraps
B) the bladderworts in the genus Utricularia
C) pitcher plants
D) Malayan urn vine
Q4) ________ is the evaporation of water from the surface of a leaf.
Q5) The reason that the cell walls of tracheids are so thick is to prevent them from collapsing under the tension created by transpiration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a concern about the assisted migration of trees to Canada?
A) Fungi that are essential to the success of the trees may not be present in their new location.
B) Moving forests northward might speed global climate change.
C) Pollinators for that species of tree may not be able to migrate northward.
D) Species moved by assisted migration may not be able to spread through asexual reproduction.
Q2) Meristem cells in plants are similar to ________ cells in vertebrates.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT help a plant deter herbivores,insects,or bacteria?
A) antimicrobial chemicals
B) the production of auxin
C) dermal hairs on the stem and leaves
D) gene-for-gene recognition
Q4) Which of the following would NOT be derived from vascular cambium?
A) bark
B) xylem
C) meristem cells
D) phloem
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