Introduction to Biology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles of life science, exploring the structure, function, and processes of living organisms. This course covers key topics such as cell biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life, providing students with a solid foundation in biological concepts. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and discussions, students will develop critical thinking skills and an understanding of how biological systems interact within the natural world, preparing them for more advanced studies in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology 6th Core Edition by Anu Singh
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some questions fall outside the realm of science.Which of the following questions could NOT be answered using the scientific method?
A) What is the function of the appendix in the human body?
B) Why is it unethical to test newly developed drugs in animals?
C) Why do smokers develop lung cancer more frequently than nonsmokers?
D) Why is it so difficult to quit smoking?
Answer: B
Q2) Multicellular organisms are constructed from many types of specialized cells.Why might having specialized cells be more advantageous than being a single-celled organism?
A) Specialized cells can do a given job better than general-purpose cells can.
B) Specialized cells can survive independently of the organism.
C) Nonspecialized cells do not live as long as specialized cells.
D) Nonspecialized cells are unable to stick together to make up a multicellular organism.
Answer: A
Q3) Using a process called photosynthesis,plants make energy-rich substances by using the energy contained in ________.
Answer: sunlight
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) An atom is in its most stable state when all its electron shells are filled to capacity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The number that represents neutrality on the pH scale is ________.
Answer: 7
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of cholesterol?
A) Cholesterol is converted into other important molecules like steroid hormones.
B) Cholesterol is converted into a vitamin important in the growth and maintenance of bone and muscle.
C) Cholesterol is a necessary component in the cell membranes of plants.
D) A derivative of cholesterol aids in the digestion of fats.
Answer: C
Q4) Most living organisms consist of more than 70 percent ________ by weight. Answer: water
Q5) A type of organic compound that plays a role in both heredity and in energy delivery in cells is a ________.
Answer: nucleic acid
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) Advancement in biology was hindered by the concept of spontaneous generation,the belief that nonliving objects could spontaneously come to life.What aspect of the cell theory specifically refutes this idea?
A) Every living organism is composed of one or more cells.
B) All living cells come from preexisting cells.
C) Cells are the smallest unit of life possible on Earth.
D) The components of a cell do not individually retain the distinctive characteristics of life.
Answer: B
Q2) DNA from which listed organelle is inherited from a child's mother?
A) the nucleus
B) mitochondria
C) chloroplasts
D) lysosomes
Answer: B
Q3) The entire contents of a cell,except for the nucleus,are included in the ________. Answer: cytoplasm
Q4) During the process of photosynthesis,________ is given off as a by-product.
Answer: oxygen
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Protein-lined tunnels that span the small intercellular space separating adjacent cells and that allow the rapid and direct passage of ions and small molecules,including signaling molecules,are called ________.
Q2) The principle of cell ________ is that different cells in the same organism may have different functions.
Q3) Plants have hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When the solute concentration outside a cell is equal to the solute concentration inside the cell,the cell is in a(n)________ solution.
Q5) Steroids are unable to cross the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Short-lived signaling molecules are most effective for
A) long-distance cell-to-cell communication.
B) local cell-to-cell communication.
C) activating genes in the nucleus.
D) breaking down receptor proteins.
Q7) Water moves across a membrane from a hypotonic solution to a ________ solution. Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) The enzyme maltase splits the disaccharide maltose into two sugar monomers.Maltose is maltase's ________.
Q2) Imagine a mousetrap with the spring arm set and latched,and with the level of potential energy high.This potential energy was added to the mousetrap A) when it was first constructed.
B) as kinetic energy when the arm was pulled back and latched. C) when the latch was released and the arm sprang forward. D) when the various materials used to construct the mousetrap were selected.
Q3) When a molecule of methane burns,it produces carbon dioxide,heat,light,and water.The direction of the event is dictated by the ________ law of thermodynamics.
Q4) The energy required for life processes must be extracted from an organism's A) nucleus. B) environment. C) predators. D) biosynthesis.
Q5) The tiny dwarf lemur balances its energy budget by ________ and ________ by burrowing underground.
Q6) Almost all the chemical reactions that occur in cells are catalyzed by ________.
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Chapter 6: Photo Synthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) A fermentation pathway is an oxidative pathway in which the electrons that are released from a nutrient molecule are transferred to molecules created by the catabolism of the nutrient.In lactic acid fermentation,what molecule receives electrons?
A) pyruvate
B) glucose
C) lactic acid
D) ethanol
Q2) All of the following elements can be found in the photosynthetic intermediary molecules that lead to the production of sugar; which element does NOT remain in the final product?
A) carbon
B) phosphorous
C) hydrogen
D) oxygen
Q3) In warm and dry conditions,when CO levels fall and O levels rise,photorespiration occurs as a result of plants closing their ________.
Q4) Only animal cells carry out oxidative phosphorylation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Q1) The successful union of one male gamete and one female gamete forms a new single cell known as a
A) histone.
B) zygote.
C) vesicle.
D) gametocyte.
Q2) Some daughter cells are called clones; for this description to be accurate,the daughter cells must
A) show the same differentiation characteristics as the parent cell.
B) separate from each other and exist independently.
C) contain a set of DNA that is identical to that of the parent cell.
D) have been produced by meiotic cell division.
Q3) DNA molecules are exceptionally long (about 6 feet in humans)and exceptionally thin.To minimize breakage and yet facilitate transcription,DNA forms into a complex known as chromatin by wrapping around ________.
Q4) A zygote contains 16 chromosomes.The diploid number of this cell is ________ [2n = ?].
Q5) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
Q6) Chromosomes become visible during the mitotic stage called ________.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) Cancer-causing chemicals increase the risk of cancer by promoting ________ in the DNA,causing changes in the DNA base sequences.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of cell division?
A) A cell has no control over how often it divides.
B) Negative growth regulators are used to halt cell division.
C) Positive growth regulators stimulate cell division.
D) Uncontrolled cell division can cause cancer.
Q3) As an individual ages,cancer risk increases over the course of a life because A) telomerase enzyme accumulates.
B) inherited mutations accumulate.
C) somatic mutations accumulate.
D) growth factors accumulate.
Q4) A physical,chemical,or biological agent that causes cancer is called a(n) A) virus.
B) carcinogen.
C) oncogene.
D) regulatory protein.
Q5) Malignant colon cancer cells enter the bloodstream and move to the liver where they form ________ tumors.
Page 11
Q6) A tumor cell has lost ________ when it breaks off from the primary tumor.
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Most traits are under the control of more than one gene.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The individuals Mendel observed in the F generations were always
A) homozygous recessive.
B) homozygous dominant.
C) heterozygous.
D) codominant.
Q3) The best way to get accurate results from a probability exercise is to
A) choose an example with incomplete dominance.
B) know the answer in advance.
C) choose an example that will come out fifty-fifty.
D) make a large number of observations.
Q4) Is it possible for two organisms with the same genotype to have different phenotypes?
A) No; identical genotypes lead to identical phenotypes.
B) No; the DNA of the recessive alleles not expressed in the phenotype is degraded within each cell.
C) Yes; the expression of the genotype can be affected by the environment.
D) Yes; the phenotype expressed determines what the genotype will be.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) The gender of a human child determined by the sperm because
A) all sperm contain the SRY gene.
B) all eggs contain the SRY gene.
C) only eggs may contain the SRY gene.
D) only sperm may contain the SRY gene.
Q2) During translocation,
A) pieces of DNA are exchanged between the non-sister chromatids of a homologous pair.
B) a segment of DNA is broken off of a chromosome and reattached to the same chromosome but backward in orientation.
C) segments of DNA involved in crossing-over undergo somatic mutations.
D) a segment of DNA breaks off one chromosome and is attached to a nonhomologous chromosome.
Q3) This chromosomal disorder known as Cri du chat syndrome is the result of missing a part of chromosome 5,an example of chromosome
A) inversion.
B) deletion.
C) translocation.
D) duplication.
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In eukaryotes,some genes with related functions are found on different chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following does NOT correctly state a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA organization?
A) Prokaryotic DNA groups genes with related functions together, whereas eukaryotic DNA does not.
B) Prokaryotic DNA has few noncoding regions, unlike eukaryotic DNA.
C) Eukaryotic DNA is usually arranged more simply than prokaryotic DNA.
D) Eukaryotic genomes contain more genes than prokaryotic genomes.
Q3) A change in an organism's environment generally results in a change in ________,leading to the production of different types of proteins.
Q4) Which of the following must occur for a mismatch error to be repaired?
A) DNA repair proteins identify damaged DNA.
B) The sequence of nucleotides in the damaged DNA sequence guides the synthesis of the correct DNA sequence.
C) DNA-eating enzymes within the nucleus destroy entire strands of damaged DNA.
D) The damaged DNA undergoes DNA replication one more time.
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The key enzyme used during transcription is
A) RNA polymerase.
B) DNA polymerase.
C) rRNA.
D) terminase.
Q2) A potential danger of a mutation to an organism is that A) it can affect codons within the spacer DNA.
B) all mutations are fatal.
C) it can cause a change in the function of a gene's protein product.
D) it can increase the length of the introns of that organism's genome.
Q3) An insertion or deletion mutation can cause a change in the reading of the mRNA codons; in essence,it scrambles the codons.Such a mutation results in a genetic
Q4) In tRNA,an amino acid is covalently bonded to an anticodon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ribosomal RNA plays a role in the formation of the covalent bonds between amino acids during translation.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) A scientist isolates genomic DNA from a human cell.She needs to physically separate a specific segment of that DNA away from the rest.Which technology will allow her to do this?
A) DNA microarrays
B) genetic engineering
C) restriction enzymes
D) recombinant DNA
Q2) To screen the genome of a bacterium for a particular gene,you would use ________that attach to complementary DNA sequences.
A) gels
B) ligases
C) DNA probes
D) restriction enzymes
Q3) In research,restriction enzymes are used to
A) stop replication of DNA at a specific base during DNA sequencing.
B) cut DNA molecules into pieces that can be used to create recombinant DNA.
C) measure the relative amounts of each base in a DNA molecule.
D) join two fragments of DNA together to form a molecule of recombinant DNA.
Q4) Genetically modified organisms may contain proteins,DNA,and ________ from another organism.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is an example of a behavioral adaptation?
A) Polar bears have white fur and are nearly invisible in their native habitat.
B) Pacific salmon spend the early part of their lives in fresh water but then migrate to the ocean to grow and mature.
C) Caterpillars that hatch on oak trees in the summer resemble twigs, whereas caterpillars that hatch in the spring resemble oak flowers.
D) Deer mice forage at night and are normally inactive during the day.
Q2) Evolution is
A) not supported by scientific evidence.
B) strongly supported by scientific evidence.
C) not supported by the fossil record.
D) too obscure to study.
Q3) Biological evolution can be defined as
A) the process of direct observation.
B) adaptations to common descent.
C) the unchanging nature of life on Earth.
D) the change in allele frequencies in a population's gene pool over time.
Q4) Genetic variation within a population is the result of the expression of the different ________ of a gene.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) The offspring of two individuals of different species that interbreed are known as
Q2) Geographic isolation limits the ________ between populations of a species.
A) genetic differences
B) adaptation
C) directional selection
D) gene flow
Q3) Polyploidy can lead to
A) a high rate of gene flow between populations.
B) geographic isolation.
C) fewer chromosomes.
D) reproductive isolation.
Q4) Adaptive evolution allows species to A) reduce the mutation rate.
B) decrease genetic variation.
C) adjust to environmental changes.
D) hybridize.
Q5) Evidence suggests that Neanderthals and humans are the same species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) Ninety-five percent of marine invertebrate species went extinct during the mass extinction at the end of the ____________________.
Q2) The oxygen necessary to support much of life on Earth is a waste product of an important adaptation,the process of ____________________.
Q3) Which of the five great extinctions resulted in the largest loss of species?
A) the Triassic extinction
B) the Cretaceous extinction
C) the Permian extinction
D) the Devonian extinction
Q4) The oldest fossils of terrestrial animals are of ___________.
A) spiders and millipedes
B) insects and snakes
C) mice and bats
D) birds and mammals
Q5) If the homeotic genes that control limb development in the fruit fly are expressed in the head region of the fly,instead of developing antennae,the fly builds __________.
Q6) A group of orders is called a(n)____________.
Q7) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 ____________________ years ago.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Microscopic examination can often resolve questions in taxonomy; for example,cells that possess a nucleus are never classified as
A) eukaryote.
B) fungi.
C) archaean.
D) protist.
Q2) Like any disease or parasite,viruses need to reach new hosts to extend the infective cycle,which explains why such a large number of viral infections are associated with the A) urinary and cardiovascular systems.
B) digestive and respiratory systems.
C) nervous and integumentary systems.
D) reproductive and integumentary systems.
Q3) Recent studies indicate that the microbial diversity within the human intestine changes frequently in most people.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The domain most similar to Eukarya is ________.
Q5) Pathogens are organisms that cause ________.
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) Mutualistic organisms are more commonly termed parasites.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The kingdom Plantae consists of four major groups; among the first to colonize the land are believed to be the ________.
A) angiosperms
B) ferns
C) gymnosperm
D) mosses
Q3) Long known for its bitter taste,low concentrations of caffeine in the nectar of some plants appears to act as a mild stimulant to the insects that consume the nectar and improves the probability of ________ for those plants that produce it.
Q4) No single characteristic is sufficient to describe a kingdom; for example,plants and some bacteria share in common
A) the ability to photosynthesize.
B) the presence of a cell wall and the absence of a plasma membrane.
C) a heterotrophic lifestyle.
D) the ability to reproduce sexually.
Q5) The defining feature of the angiosperms is the ________.
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) During the algal blooms called red tides,consumption of bivalves is discouraged and harvesting may be prohibited; what aspect of bivalve life history is responsible for this association?
A) Bivalves live along coastlines and are exposed to the same pollutants that cause red tides.
B) Red tides reduce the populations of bivalves below critical quantities needed by their natural predators.
C) Bivalves filter algae and detritus from the water, causing them to concentrate the algal toxins.
D) Bivalves are the natural bioremediators for red tides; harvesting them prolongs the bloom.
Q2) The head,thorax,and abdomen of the insect body plan developed as individual segments fused; because each segment originated one pair of appendages,a reasonable hypothesis is that the thorax developed when ________ segments fused.
A) 3
B) 6
C) 12
D) 24
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) Terrestrial biomes are generally named based on the A) dominant types of plant life.
B) geographical location of the biome.
C) dominant types of animal life.
D) climate of the region.
Q2) The goal of the Ocean Sole project is to
A) bring awareness to endangered species.
B) prohibit ships from releasing waste into the ocean.
C) recycle marine pollution and generate public awareness of marine pollution.
D) generate funds for environmental education.
Q3) Although the terms climate and weather are often used interchangeably,they are not the same thing; climate differs from weather in that
A) weather includes amount of rainfall per year and climate does not.
B) climate is based on biomes, whereas weather is not.
C) climate describes long-term patterns, whereas weather describes short-term fluctuations.
D) climates are described in terms of long-term average temperature, and weather is described by other factors, such as prevailing winds.
Q4) The Earth's tropical areas are found at ________ latitudes than temperate areas.
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Although it happened long ago,the story of Easter Island should be of concern to modern man; in some ways,the Earth is like an island-all of its resources are confined by a boundary as significant as a shoreline.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pollution is one of the many density-dependent factors that can limit population growth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The carrying capacity of a population can be affected by weather,the daily fluctuations in temperature,rainfall,and the other factors that contribute to climate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The type of growth that occurs when the population size increases by a constant proportion over time is known as ________.
Q5) A group of interacting individuals of the same species living within the same area comprises a(n)________.
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Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) When someone has learned a poem by heart
A) a learning behavior has become a fixed behavior.
B) the poem has become a releaser.
C) communication has been part of a learning behavior.
D) the poem has become both fixed and habituated.
Q2) Imprinted behaviors are fixed behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Reading this question involves communication only at the level of fixed behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following choices is NOT a method of communication?
A) human language
B) learning
C) visual signals
D) scent marking
Q5) A predictable,well-defined response due to a first encounter with a stimulus is known as a ________ behavior.
Q6) Past experiences help to form ________ behaviors.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) By growing on the trunk or branch of a tree,a lichen gains height and exposure to sunlight for photosynthesis.The tree is not harmed by the lichen but does not benefit either.The relationship between the lichen and the tree is A) commensalism.
B) mutualism.
C) parasitism.
D) interference competition.
Q2) Which of the following combinations of symbols represents an interaction in which one species benefits and the other is exploited?
A) +/-
B) +/+
C) o/+
D) -/-
Q3) Without pollinator mutualism,agricultural productivity could fall significantly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Follicle mites live in the hair follicles of human skin.They feed on single cells but do little if any harm to the human; the mite has a stable place to live and reproduce.This is an example of ________.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) An atom of phosphorous may remain out of the biological part of its cycle for many millions of years.
A)True B)False
Q2) Lightning converts atmospheric nitrogen (N )to nitrogen compounds that mix with the soil.This is the mechanism by which the majority of nitrogen enters the soil.
A)True B)False
Q3) Primary consumers harvest nearly 100 percent of the energy that producers capture from the sun.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements about cycling within an ecosystem is FALSE?
A) Energy flows in two directions in an ecosystem.
B) Carbon is recycled within an ecosystem.
C) The sedimentary nutrient cycle cycles nutrients very slowly.
D) Human activities affect nutrient cycling.
Q5) In an ecosystem,the assemblage of living organisms constitutes the ________ component.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Climate change has not started and it can be prevented with timely action.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some northern species have shifted their habitats farther north in response to global warming.However,it is difficult for Arctic species to shift their habitats in response to rising temperatures because
A) they are not as mobile as other species.
B) they have broader habitat tolerances.
C) they are more susceptible to UV radiation.
D) their habitat is shrinking.
Q3) The highest concentrations of environmental pollutants are typically found in the predators at the top of the food chain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide is now approaching levels equal to those estimated to have existed 420,000 years ago.
A)True
B)False
Q5) About 50 percent of the human population lives near ________ ecosystems.
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