Introduction to Biology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles that govern living organisms and life processes. This course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will develop an understanding of how biological systems interact with their environment and how scientific methods are used to investigate questions about living things. Through lectures, laboratory experiences, and interactive activities, students will gain a solid foundation for further studies in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Now 2nd Edition by Anne Houtman
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Q1) A parent heard a celebrity on television stating there was a study published in 1998 that asserted a connection between the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR)vaccine and the onset of autism in children.The celebrity went on to say that after the MMR vaccine replaced the old simple measles vaccine in 1988 there was a 273 percent increase in autism rates during the next 11 years.The celebrity,however,did not reveal that the study published in 1998 included a sample size of 12 children who were already known to have some form of autism or similar developmental difficulties.He also did not present the evidence from hundreds of studies conducted since 1998 that show no connection between vaccines and the onset of autism.What was the hypothesis,regarding vaccines and autism,implied by the celebrity? State at least two obvious problems with the structure of the 1998 study.
Answer: The celebrity's implied hypothesis was,"Vaccines cause autism." Two obvious problems with the structure of the 1998 study include the extremely small sample size of 12 children and the bias introduced because all of the children had already been diagnosed with some form of autism or developmental difficulties.It was hardly a random sample.
Q2) The first two steps of the scientific process typically include making ________ and forming a ________.
Answer: observations; hypothesis
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Chapter 2: Evaluating Scientific Claims
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Q1) The U.S.federal government funds the vast majority of scientific research intended to expand the "fundamental knowledge base" of sciences such as the life sciences,biomedicine,and agriculture.Since the funding comes from taxpayers,this ________ research is not considered biased.
Answer: basic
Q2) A scientific paper that combines results from several cohort studies and a case-control study would be considered a(n)________-analysis.
A) meta
B) beta
C) omega
D) pseudo
Answer: A
Q3) <i>National Geographic</i>,a popular magazine about science and the world
A)primary
B)secondary
Answer: B
Q4) Vaccines approved for use are continually monitored and tested for ________ by the FDA.
Answer: safety
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many electrons is the oxygen atom sharing?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)4
E)8
Answer: C
Q2) Neighboring water molecules are held together with hydrogen bonds because A) partially negatively charged oxygen atoms and partially positively charged hydrogen atoms on separate water molecules are attracted to one another.
B) the hydrogen and oxygen atoms within a single water molecule share electrons equally.
C) the oxygen and hydrogen atoms that participate in hydrogen bonding are sharing electrons within a single valence shell.
D) ionic interactions repel water molecules from hydrophobic oils that may be present in a solution.
Answer: A
Q3) Nonpolar molecules that are repelled by water are known as ________ molecules.
Answer: hydrophobic
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Chapter 4: Life Is Cellular
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Q1) A plasma membrane is constructed of two layers of ________ ,organic molecules that have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail.
Q2) A cell containing a nucleus,mitochondria,Golgi apparatus,both smooth and rough ER,ribosomes,cytoskeleton,a large vacuole,and chloroplasts would be an example of a typical ________ cell.
Q3) central vacuole
A)photosynthesis
B)regulate what moves in and out of cell
C)structure and support for cell
D)lipid synthesis
E)tags proteins for movement
F)enzymatic breakdown of large molecules
G)protein synthesis
H)cellular respiration
I)water and solute storage
J)location of DNA
K)internal organization and structural support
Q4) A cell that has numerous ________ is a plant cell that plays an important role in photosynthesizing sugars for the entire plant.
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Chapter 5: How Cells Work
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Q1) Which step of cellular respiration occurs outside the mitochondria?
A) glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle
C) Calvin cycle
D) electron transport chain
Q2) produces light energy
A)photosynthesis only
B)cellular respiration only
C)both photosynthesis and cellular respiration
D)neither photosynthesis nor cellular respiration
Q3) The first law of thermodynamics states that
A) metabolic reactions must be balanced.
B) the flow of energy connects living things to their environments.
C) energy cannot be created nor destroyed.
D) systems tend to become more disorderly.
Q4) Which of these molecules carries the most energy?
A) ADP
B) ATP
C) NADH
D) NAD
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cell Division
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Q1) Per somatic nucleus,humans have 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs of________ ; half of each came from the mother and half from the father.
Q2) Chromosomes are lined up at the middle of the cell during the ________ portion of cell division.
A) metaphase
B) anaphase
C) interphase
D) telophase
Q3) A pool of cells is treated with a chemical that halts progress through the cell cycle.In which stage of the cell cycle would most cells be found?
A) metaphase
B) interphase
C) anaphase
D) cytokinesis
Q4) Explain which of the three cell division processes (mitosis,meiosis,binary fission)is most complex and summarize why it is necessary to promote genetic diversity and maintain a constant chromosome number in organisms.
Q5) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
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Chapter 7: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) If an individual is a carrier for a recessive disorder (with one copy of the recessive allele)and his or her partner is also a carrier,what is the probability that they will produce a child affected by the disorder? Explain your answer.
Q2) What is the smallest number of traits that are needed to test Mendel's law of independent assortment?
A) one
B) two C) four D) eight
Q3) In a genetic cross in which the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate between the two homozygous phenotypes,________ dominance is expressed.
Q4) a heterozygous straight hair rabbit and a homozygous curly hair rabbit
A)0 percent
B)25 percent
C)50 percent
D)75 percent
E)100 percent
Q5) Explain the relationship between the genotype and the phenotype of a given trait.
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Chapter 8: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) If an individual has two alleles at a given locus that are different,the individual is said to be ________ for the gene.
Q2) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype
A) Aa.
B) AA.
C) aa.
D) XAXa.
Q3) Why are dominant genetic disorders more rare than recessive disorders?
Q4) Which of the following statements would indicate a pedigree that shows the inheritance pattern of a recessive X-linked disease?
A) Most affected individuals are females.
B) Most affected individuals are males.
C) Males and females are affected equally.
D) The disease is seen in every generation.
Q5) One chromosomal abnormality that is usually fatal is
A) a mutation in a gene.
B) an exchange of material between homologous chromosomes.
C) extra copies of sex chromosomes.
D) the addition of an extra autosomal chromosome.
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Chapter 9: What Genes Are
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Q1) When a cell divides,it
A) breaks down its DNA.
B) deletes old genetic information.
C) copies information from neighboring cells.
D) copies its own genetic information.
Q2) Describe the building blocks of DNA and how they are bonded together to form the DNA double helix.
Q3) A permanent change in the DNA base sequence due to an uncorrected mismatch error is called a(n)
A) mutation.
B) replication.
C) repair protein.
D) insertion.
Q4) When looking at a single-stranded piece of DNA,
A) G will always be next to C.
B) G will always be next to G.
C) G will sometimes be next to T.
D) G will never be next to A.
Q5) The CRISPR-Cas9 system is a combination of guide ________ and ________ proteins.
Q6) The enzyme that copies DNA is called ________.
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Chapter 10: How Genes Work
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Q1) A gene in a region of DNA that is wound more tightly around proteins in the nucleus will be
A) transcribed more often than other genes.
B) transcribed less often than other genes.
C) transcribed equally as often as any other gene.
D) digested and recycled to produce new DNA.
Q2) As transcription begins,RNA polymerase binds to a segment of a gene called a(n) A) promoter.
B) intron.
C) start codon.
D) anticodon.
Q3) In bacteria,a particular gene codes for a protein that helps the bacteria break down and use lactose as a food source.If no lactose is present,the
A) gene will be broken down, so no enzyme is made.
B) gene will mutate to produce another, more useful, enzyme.
C) promoter for this gene will be blocked, so RNA polymerase can't bind.
D) promoter for this gene will be enhanced, so RNA polymerase binds more readily.
Q4) The genetic code is ________,which means that all cells use the same code.
Q5) Explain what is meant by "redundancy" in the genetic code.
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Chapter 11: Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Fossils found in deeper layers are ________ than fossils found in more shallow layers.
A) older
B) younger
C) more informative
D) less informative
Q2) Bats have the same forelimb bones as humans,but the size of these bones is different.
A)comparative embryology
B)fossil evidence
C)comparative anatomy
D)comparative DNA
E)biogeographic evidence
Q3) The fossil record
A) proves that all known species of organisms appeared at the same time.
B) contains strong evidence that major new groups of organisms arose from previously existing organisms.
C) indicates that humans date back as far as the first indications of life.
D) has often been artificially created by evolutionary biologists.
Q4) The preserved remains of formerly living organisms are called ________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) Natural selection acts on ________ traits.By favoring certain phenotypes over others,the individuals having those phenotypes survive and reproduce at a higher rate than individuals who do not have those traits.
Q2) Bees and hummingbirds are very good accidental pollinators.When they visit flowers to extract nectar,they pick up pollen from a flower and carry it to the next flower that they visit; this helps to distribute the pollen and the genes carried in the pollen to a different plant.Explain how bright red wildflowers that easily attract bees and hummingbirds might become more prevalent in a wildflower population of both red and white flowers through natural selection.
Q3) While on a camping trip,Brian collects a white tadpole from a pond and takes it home.The tadpole develops into a white bullfrog.When the frog gets too big,he releases it into a local pond.The next year,several white bullfrogs are observed in the pond.This is an example of
A) genetic drift.
B) natural selection.
C) gene flow.
D) sexual selection.
Q4) Compare and contrast bottleneck and founder effect.
Q5) The result of convergent evolution is ________ traits.
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Chapter 13: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) A large population of animals is split in two by a physical barrier.Over time,the genetic makeup of the two resulting populations becomes more and more different until each population becomes a separate species.This is an example of A) sympatric speciation.
B) allopatric speciation.
C) genetic drift.
D) natural selection.
Q2) Two species evolving together in response to interactions between the two species is referred to as ________.
Q3) ecological isolation
A)prezygotic
B)postzygotic
Q4) In many predator-prey relationships,evolutionary change in the prey will result in evolutionary change in the predator,a phenomenon known as A) polyploidy.
B) allopatrism.
C) coevolution.
D) sympatric speciation.
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Chapter 14: The History of Life
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Q1) Imagine the discovery of an undescribed nonphotosynthetic,multicellular organism.To determine whether it is a(n)________,it would need to be examined microscopically to determine if its cells ________.
A) animal or fungi; have cell walls
B) animal or plant; have nuclei
C) plant or fungi; have cell walls
D) animal or fungi; contain DNA
Q2) Briefly explain how new scientific findings may change the arrangement of an evolutionary tree while enhancing our understanding of evolution.
Q3) What criteria best characterize membership in the kingdom Protista?
A) a continuous lineage of descent from a common ancestor
B) a large assortment of unique shared derived traits
C) a common evolutionary heritage
D) the inability to meet the characteristics that define each of the remaining eukaryotic kingdoms
Q4) In an evolutionary tree,a given ancestor and all its descendants make up a ________,or branch.
Q5) When did photosynthesis evolve and how did it influence the evolution of life on Earth?
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Chapter 15: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Plaque that form on the surface of teeth are an example of a(n)________.
Q2) An experiment is performed to see if an antiseptic will change the skin microbiome.Skin swabs are used before an antiseptic is applied,after the antiseptic is applied,and on the same area 48 hours later.It is observed that the antiseptic drastically reduced the numbers of <i>Staphyloccocus</i> and other bacteria.After 48 hours <i>Staphylococcus</i> reappears as the most common species.What can be inferred from these results?
A) Antiseptics are only effective against one type of bacteria.
B) <i>Staphylococcus</i> has a short generation time.
C) <i>Staphylococcus</i> tolerates oxygen better than other bacteria.
D) <i>Staphylococcus</i> uses sporulation to survive antiseptic treatment.
Q3) The term "extremophiles" is sometimes used to describe ________ based on the environments in which they live.
A) archaeans
B) bacteria
C) prokaryotes
D) eukaryotes
Q4) A citizen scientist documenting dates when migratory birds arrive in an area are participating in data ________.
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Chapter 16: Plants, Fungi, and Protists
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Q1) Compare and contrast prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Q2) Correctly use the terms "fruiting body," "hypha (hyphae)," "mating type," "mycelium (mycelia)," and "sexual spores" to describe the life cycle of a fungus.
Q3) domain Bacteria
A)brown algae
B)liverworts and mosses
C)<i>Streptococcus thermophilus</i> (bacteria used in making yogurt)
D)zygomycetes (molds)
Q4) The volume of a prokaryotic cell is,on average,________ than that of a eukaryotic cell.
A) 10 times greater
B) 10 times less
C) 1,000 times greater
D) 1,000 times less
Q5) Explain how the compartmentalization of eukaryotic cells enables them to have a much greater cell volume than prokaryotes and still efficiently carry out cell functions and move materials in and out of the cell.
Q6) The first land plant with a vascular system was the ancestor of present-day
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Chapter 17: Animals and Human Evolution
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Q1) scales A)A
J)J
Q2) All of your mitochondrial DNA was inherited from your ________.
Q3) The phylum Chordata includes several subgroups of organisms.To which of these subgroups would humans belong?
A) vertebrates
B) cephalochordates
C) urochordates
D) monotremes
Q4) Egg-laying mammals that lack a placenta are ________.
Q5) How might being bilaterally symmetrical be an evolutionary advantage for a fish?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: General Principles of Ecology
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Q1) What best describes the relationship between cutting down forests and changes in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels?
A) Herbivore populations decline in the absence of forests, and without their respiration, less carbon dioxide is recycled into the atmosphere.
B) The carbon dioxide used by the plants for cellular respiration would all be released into the atmosphere at once.
C) Trees naturally die and decompose, but when turned into lumber, their carbon is prevented from recycling back to the atmosphere.
D) In the absence of forest plants, there would be less carbon dioxide removed from the atmosphere for use during photosynthesis.
Q2) Humans are ________ factors ________ the biosphere.
A) biotic; within
B) biotic; outside
C) abiotic; within D) abiotic; outside
Q3) Scientists predict that current increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations will cause temperatures on Earth to rise,a phenomenon known as
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Chapter 19: Growth of Populations
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Q1) One measure of population growth is the period in which a population increases to twice its size.This is referred to as the ________ of the population.
Q2) number of individuals within a population per unit of area
A)population size
B)population density
C)carrying capacity
D)logistic growth
E)exponential growth
Q3) Why do logistic growth curves have an "S" shape?
Q4) Density-dependent factors are more likely to limit population growth when A) there are more individuals living in the same amount of space.
B) the population moves into a larger habitat.
C) food is abundant.
D) weather conditions become milder.
Q5) How could a researcher use historical population size data for a predator and its prey to determine whether the two strongly influence each other?
Q6) A wildfire sweeps through a forest and kills 90 percent of the oak trees.
A)density-dependent population change
B)density-independent population change
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following examples best illustrates interference competition?
A) Soil levels of potassium are gradually reduced by the hemlocks and cedars in a climax forest.
B) The growth of starling populations usually coincides with declines in songbirds because both use abandoned cavities for nesting.
C) When larger animals become scarce, wolves often prey on mice, reducing their availability to coyotes.
D) Rough-skinned newts contain enough toxin in their skin glands to kill almost any predator.
Q2) What statement best describes a parasitic relationship?
A) Both the parasite and the host benefit.
B) Only the parasite benefits; the host is harmed.
C) Both the parasite and the host are harmed.
D) Only the host benefits; the parasite is harmed.
Q3) A(n)________ may begin when a new habitat is formed,such as when a retreating glacier deposits rock and soil.
Q4) Compare and contrast exploitative and interference competition.
Q5) A(n)________ is a single sequence of who eats whom in a community.
Q6) Provide an example of primary succession.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Ecosystems
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Q1) A group of living communities interacting with one another and their shared physical environment is a(n)________.
Q2) How and why does the global pattern of net primary productivity (NPP)differ between the oceans and terrestrial ecosystems?
Q3) The chemical and physical components of an ecosystem are considered to be ________ or nonliving.
A) abiotic
B) biota
C) biotic
D) abalone
Q4) Why don't ecosystems always have sharply defined physical boundaries?
Q5) The primary difference between consumers and decomposers is that ________ obtain their nutrients by eating ________,while decomposers obtain their nutrients from ________.
A) consumers; other live organisms; dead consumers
B) consumers; only dead consumers; other live consumers
C) consumers; other live organisms; photosynthesis
D) Consumers and decomposers both obtain their nutrients by eating other live organisms.
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