Introduction to Biology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles governing life and living organisms. This course explores key concepts such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life forms. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, critical thinking, and the relevance of biology to everyday life and societal challenges. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory exercises, and real-world examples, students develop an appreciation for the complexity of biological systems and the processes that sustain life on Earth.
Recommended Textbook
The Living World 7th Edition by George Johnson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The information that determines what an organism will be like is stored in the _____________ molecule.
Answer: DNA
Q2) In any experiment,one must be certain to:
A) have a suitable control group
B) wear lab coats and safety glasses
C) have the hypothesis at hand
D) use clean glassware
Answer: A
Q3) At the end of an experiment,a conclusion is formed based on:
A) the statistical analysis of the experiment
B) the general observations during the experiment
C) the needs of the group funding the experiment
D) the feelings or beliefs of the scientist conducting the experiment
Answer: A
Q4) The process where organisms act to maintain a relatively stable internal environment is __________.
Answer: homeostasis
Q5) The kingdom that includes mushrooms and yeast is the _______________.
Answer: Fungi
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most elements in nature exist as:
A) solitary unreactive atoms
B) mixtures of different isotopes
C) mixtures of gases
D) mixtures of liquids
Answer: B
Q2) Cells contain chemical substances called ____________ that minimize changes in concentrations of H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup>.
Answer: buffers
Q3) What are two of the characteristics of water that make it so important in living organisms?
Answer: Water is a polar molecule,and can form hydrogen bonds.These two characteristics are responsible for the properties of high polarity,heat-storing ability,high heat of vaporization,low density of ice,and cohesion.
Q4) We use the __________ scale to measure concentrations of hydrogen ions in a solution.
Answer: pH
Q5) A solution with a pH of 3 is said to be highly ____________.
Answer: acidic
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The final three-dimensional shape of a single polypeptide is called its _____________ structure.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are lipids except:
A) waxes
B) cholesterol
C) female sex hormones
D) phospholipids
E) glycogen
Answer: E
Q3) Many mammals supply energy to their young in the form of __________.
Answer: lactose
Q4) The polysaccharide found in the cell walls of plants is __________.
Answer: cellulose
Q5) Nucleic acids are long polymers of repeating subunits called __________.
Answer: nucleotides
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Chapter 4: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cilia and flagella differ from each other primarily in:
A) function
B) length
C) internal structure
D) internal chemistry
Q2) Which of the following is not an organelle?
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Lysosome
D) Chloroplast
E) Ribosome
Q3) Cells engulfing large particles is called __________________.
Q4) Give the three major principles of the cell theory.
Q5) Which of the following processes requires BOTH a channel protein AND energy?
A) Active transport
B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Osmosis
D) Simple diffusion
Q6) The surface of a nucleus is bounded by a special kind of membrane called the
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Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Q1) Objects that are not actively moving but have the capacity to do so are said to possess:
A) kinetic energy
B) potential energy
C) entropy
D) living energy
Q2) A competitive inhibitor interferes with:
A) the active site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind
B) the repressor site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind
C) the allosteric site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind
D) the oxidized site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind
E) the reduced site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind
Q3) List and explain four uses for ATP in a cell.
Q4) Explain the components of an ATP molecule.
Q5) In __________ reactions,the products contain more energy than the reactants.
Q6) Chemical reactions that release energy are called ______ reactions.
A) exergonic
B) endergonic
C) catalysis
D) catalytic
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Q1) When carbon dioxide is low in the leaf,the Calvin cycle cannot proceed efficiently,and the result is:
A) light-independent reactions
B) shutting down photosynthesis
C) photorespiration
D) cellular respiration
Q2) Molecules capable of absorbing lots of light are _______________.
Q3) Which is incorrect about photosynthesis?
A) The light reactions take place in the cytoplasm and the light-independent reactions occur in the chloroplast.
B) The light-independent reactions don't require light but can occur in its presence.
C) The light-dependent reactions produce NADPH and ATP.
D) The light-dependent reactions release oxygen.
E) Photosystems act as antenna to capture photons.
Q4) Inside the inner membranes of chloroplasts,chlorophyll pigments are grouped into a light-gathering network called a _______________.
Q5) The internal membranes within the chloroplast are organized into flattened sacs called ____________.
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Q1) What is needed for the end product of glycolysis,pyruvate,to enter the Krebs cycle?
A) More glucose for energy
B) ATP
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Oxygen
Q2) During fermentation in yeast,acetaldehyde accepts a hydrogen atom from NADH and is converted to _______________.
Q3) Glycolysis takes place in the ____________,and the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain take place in the __________.
A) mitochondrial matrix;inner mitochondrial membrane
B) cytoplasm;endoplasmic reticulum
C) intermembrane space of the mitochondria;mitochondrial matrix
D) cytoplasm;mitochondria
E) mitochondria;cytoplasm
Q4) The Krebs cycle turns _______ times per glucose.
Q5) Describe how adding a phosphate to ATP or removing a phosphate group from ATP stores or releases energy.
Q6) When an atom gains an electron,it is said to be __________.
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytoplasm is cleaved in two during the _____________________ phase of the cell's life cycle.
Q2) Proteins with positive charges that are wrapped around DNA within chromosomes are:
A) chromatids
B) histones
C) centromeres
D) kinetochores
Q3) What is telomerase?
A) A protein found in abundance on colon cancer cells
B) An enzyme that inhibits the formation of small blood vessels that feed a tumor
C) An enzyme that adds bases back to the tip of chromosomes every time a cell divides
D) A chemical that allows the telophase stage of mitosis to proceed
E) A chemical involved in RNA synthesis
Q4) Genes known as _________ encode proteins that stimulate cell division.
Q5) Explain how the new molecular therapies might stop the growth of cancer.
Q6) Mitosis is cell division that produces somatic cells,while meiosis produces
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Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some organisms are able to reproduce both sexually and asexually.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Genetic recombination is possible because of ________ during or after meiosis.
A) independent assortment
B) crossing over
C) fertilization with a nonrelated gamete
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) The pairing of homologous chromosomes:
A) occurs during anaphase II
B) occurs during telophase I
C) is called crossing over
D) is called synapsis
E) only occurs in mitosis
Q4) All of the following are sources of genetic variety except:
A) random fertilization
B) independent assortment
C) crossing over
D) synapsis
Q5) The development of an adult from an unfertilized egg is called ___________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red-green colorblindness is a sex-linked trait.A woman with normal color vision,whose father was colorblind,mates with a colorblind man.What chance do each of their sons have of being colorblind?
A) 50% chance
B) 100% chance
C) 0% chance
D) 10% chance
Q2) Down syndrome in humans is due to:
A) monosomy (one copy of chromosome #21)
B) two Y chromosomes
C) trisomy (three copies of chromosome #21)
D) three X chromosomes
Q3) Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment states that genes located on different chromosomes are inherited independently of one another.If this is the case,what happens when two genes are located on the same chromosome,are they inherited together,do they separate,or both?
Q4) A genetic family tree can more correctly be called a ____________.
Q5) A dominant human genetic disorder that does not reveal itself until middle age is
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Chapter 11: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by "semiconservative replication?"
Q2) An unexpected change in a cell's genetic makeup is called a ____________.
Q3) Biochemist Erwin Chargaff found that in DNA there was a special relationship between individual bases that we now refer to as Chargaff's rule.His observation was that:
A) A = T and G = C
B) C = T and A = G
C) A + T = C + G
D) G = T and C = A
Q4) Which type of mutation will have the most evolutionary consequence?
A) A mutation in a lung cell
B) A mutation in a kidney cell
C) A mutation in a stomach cell
D) A mutation in a germ-line cell
Q5) Meselson and Stahl proved that:
A) DNA is the genetic material
B) DNA is made from nucleotides
C) DNA replicates in a semiconservative manner
D) DNA contains nitrogen
Q6) The two strands of DNA are said to be __________ to one another.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of DNA information to direct the production of particular proteins is called:
A) transcription
B) translation
C) gene expression
D) replication
E) polymerization
Q2) Biologists have found that the genetic code is universal,that the same triplet codons code for the same amino acids in almost all living things.Explain how this can be considered evidence for evolution.
Q3) Which site on the ribosome does the new tRNA bring an amino acid to?
A) A
B) P
C) E
D) C
Q4) The three types of RNA involved in protein synthesis are mRNA,_______________,and ________________.
Q5) Explain why mRNA must be processed before it leaves the nucleus.
Q6) The genetic code is a ____________ code.
Q7) Describe the differences between DNA and RNA.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The New Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how genomic imprinting works.
Q2) In therapeutic cloning,why are the embryonic cells used to treat an individual not rejected by that individual?
A) Because the individual's immune system is suppressed with drugs
B) Because the cells are embryonic
C) They are rejected,and that is why this has not worked yet
D) Because the embryonic cells are cloned from the same individual they are injected into
Q3) A cell is called __________ if it has the ability to form any body tissue or even an adult animal.
Q4) A promising vector is being investigated for use in gene therapy.It is the:
A) adenovirus
B) NIH virus
C) rhino-associated virus
D) adeno-associated virus
Q5) "Golden" rice is so-named because it contains:
A) vitamin C
B) vitamin A and iron
C) nitrogen
D) golden bacteria
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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Different finches on each of the Galápagos Islands is the result of:
A) extinction
B) population growth
C) adaptive radiation
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) ________________ results from microevolutionary changes that increase the likelihood of survival and reproduction.
A) Adaptation
B) Macroevolutionary change
C) Inheritance of acquired traits
D) Selection
Q3) Give two examples of nonrandom mating.
Q4) During fossilization,remains of an organism may become suspended in fossilized plant sap,which is called ________.
Q5) Give an example of behavioral isolation.
Q6) The differences produced between breeds produced by artificial selection are more distinctive than differences between wild species.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: How We Name Living Things
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Q1) To what phylum do honeybees belong?
A) Annelida
B) Chordata
C) Arthropoda
D) Sporozoa
Q2) Mitochondria are present in organisms in the following kingdoms except:
A) Plantae
B) Fungi
C) Protista
D) Archaea
E) Animalia
Q3) Why are mitochondria and chloroplasts believed to have entered early eukaryotic cells by endosymbiosis of bacteria?
A) They are the same size as bacteria.
B) They contain DNA.
C) They are not derived from the endomembrane system as other organelles are.
D) All of the choices are correct.
Q4) A cladogram must contain an ____________ to serve as a baseline of comparison for the other groups.
Q5) A _________ is a group of organisms related by their ancestry.
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Chapter 16: Prokaryotes: The First Single-Celled Creatures
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Q1) Bats are a healthy carrier for which of the following diseases?
A) SARS
B) West Nile Virus
C) Hantavirus
D) Influenza
E) AIDS
Q2) Lysogenic conversion is responsible for all the following diseases except:
A) scarlet fever
B) plague
C) botulism
D) cholera
E) diphtheria
Q3) The HIV virus attaches to the __________,and is thus taken into certain immune cells.
A) flagellum
B) receptor protein CD4
C) glycocalyx
D) marker proteins type A or B on red blood cells
Q4) In __________________,atmospheric nitrogen is converted to a more usable form.
Q5) How do viruses gain entry into cells?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Protists: Advent of the Eukaryotes
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Q1) The most common type of asexual reproduction seen in the protists is _________.
Q2) Eukaryotes are first seen in the fossil record __________ years ago.
A) 200,000
B) 2 million
C) 10 million
D) 1.7 billion
Q3) The bacteria that today are most similar to chloroplasts are:
A) thermoacidophiles
B) nonsulfur purple bacteria
C) methanogens
D) cyanobacteria
Q4) _____________ is a common name for green photosynthetic protists.
Q5) Unicellular,photosynthetic protists with two flagella of unequal length belong to this group.
A) Foraminifera
B) Dinoflagellates
C) Choanoflagellates
D) Euglenoids
Q6) The development of an adult from an unfertilized egg is a form of asexual reproduction known as _______________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Fungi Invade the Land
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Q1) The _________________ are fungi that have lost the ability to reproduce sexually.
A) ascomycetes
B) basidiomycetes
C) zygomycetes
D) imperfect fungi
Q2) The septa in hyphae:
A) rarely form a complete barrier
B) are commonly found in plants and animals as well as fungi
C) are only found in the Zygomycota
D) prevent cytoplasm from flowing
Q3) Fungi differ from plants in all the following ways except:
A) Fungi have filamentous bodies.
B) Fungi have nuclear mitosis.
C) Fungi are heterotrophic.
D) Fungi have cell walls made of cellulose.
E) Fungi have nonmotile sperm.
Q4) The slender filaments that make up the body of a fungus are called
Q5) A fungal filament in which all the nuclei are genetically similar is said to be a
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Chapter 19: Evolution of the Animal Phyla
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Q1) Which of the following is missing in parasitic flatworms compared to the free-living flatworms?
A) Testes
B) Eyespots
C) Digestive tract
D) Excretory system
Q2) The key evolutionary development seen for the first time in the sponges is that of:
A) a complete digestive tract
B) major organ systems
C) body symmetry
D) multicellularity
Q3) Most of the phyla of the animal kingdom are of animals that occur:
A) on land
B) in the sky
C) in the ocean
D) in freshwater habitats
Q4) Chordates are characterized by having a ________________,a dorsal,flexible supportive rod.
Q5) An example of an echinoderm is a ______________________.
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Chapter 20: History of the Vertebrates
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Q1) Bony fish have a sensory system located along the sides of their bodies called the
Q2) Reproductive methods among the ____________ are the most advanced of any fish.
A) Chondrichthyes - sharks
B) Osteichthyes - bony fish
C) Placodermi - armored fish
D) Acanthodii - spiny fish
Q3) Which is incorrect about sharks?
A) They belong to the class Chondrichthyes.
B) They have jaws.
C) Most are predators but some are filter feeders.
D) They have an internal bony skeleton.
E) Their eggs are internally fertilized.
Q4) Bony fishes possess a lateral line system to:
A) regulate oxygen concentrations in their blood
B) cleanse the blood from toxins
C) detect changes in water pressure
D) store urine until excreted
E) regulate their buoyancy
Page 22
Q5) Bony fish evolved ________________________ to help keep them afloat.
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Chapter 21: How Humans Evolved
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Q1) Which is incorrect about anthropoids?
A) They evolved after the prosimians.
B) They were active during the night.
C) They lived in groups.
D) Their direct descendents are the monkeys.
Q2) In hominid evolution,which came first?
A) Bipedalism
B) Large brains
C) Bigger feet
D) Larger arms
Q3) According to a variety of gene data,which hypothesis is correct?
A) The Recently-Out-of-Africa model
B) The Multiregional hypothesis
C) They both may be correct
D) Neither is correct
Q4) The anthropoids include:
A) monkeys
B) apes
C) humans
D) All of these
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Chapter 22: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Q1) Muscle cells are unique because of the contractible protein fibers,called _____________________,within them.
A) tropomyosin
B) sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) myofilaments
D) collagen fibers
Q2) __________________ are the nerve cells of the body.
Q3) Sweat glands are part of the endocrine system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the nature and function of connective tissues.
Q5) The evolution of bilateral symmetry enabled animals to:
A) evolve feeding organs
B) reproduce sexually
C) evolve cephalization
D) become motile
Q6) ___________________ surround the body as a rigid,exterior case,and are exhibited in arthropods.
Q7) Another name for red blood cells is ___________________.
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Q8) The fluid portion of blood is called __________.
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Chapter 23: Circulation
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Q1) How do veins prevent the backflow of blood within them?
A) By having thick,muscular walls
B) Because of the tiny lumen inside them
C) They are capable of contracting
D) They possess flaplike valves
Q2) Generally speaking,gills are never complex structures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _________________ are the blood cells that carry oxygen throughout the body.
A) Erythrocytes
B) Leukocytes
C) Thrombocytes
D) Platelets
Q4) Cardiovascular disease is the second leading cause of death in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does the structure of lymphatic capillaries differ from that of capillaries of the circulatory system?
Q6) Once inside the lymphatic system,tissue fluid is called ______________.
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Chapter 24: Respiration
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Q1) Which of the following is incorrect concerning hemoglobin?
A) It is made of amino acids.
B) It is made inside red blood cells.
C) It never leaves red blood cells.
D) It can bind to nitric oxide.
E) It is composed of 3 protein chain subunits.
Q2) Which of the following is incorrect about gills?
A) In fish,they are protected by an operculum.
B) Fish pump water over the gills.
C) In echinoderms,the gill is a thin sheet of tissue that waves through the water.
D) Terrestrial arthropods also have gills.
Q3) Capturing energy by animals is in effect a process that utilizes ______ and produces ______.
A) oxygen;carbon dioxide
B) N<sub>2</sub>;carbon
C) nitrogen;H<sub>2</sub>O
D) carbon dioxide;oxygen
E) ATP;AMP
Q4) Each lung is covered by a thin,smooth membrane called a ___________ membrane.
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Chapter 25: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency is known as ________.
A) pellagra
B) rickets
C) pernicious anemia
D) beriberi
E) scurvy
Q2) Microvilli are present to increase the area available for absorption in the:
A) small intestine
B) large intestine
C) stomach
D) gallbladder
Q3) The islets of Langerhans are in the ________ and produce ________.
A) pancreas;insulin
B) stomach;hydrochloric acid
C) stomach;intrinsic factor
D) mouth;saliva
E) liver;bile
Q4) What are the three main functions of the stomach?
Q5) Why are so many nutritionists recommending that Americans increase the intake of fiber in their diets?
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Chapter 26: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) What is the waste product of fish?
A) Urea
B) Ammonia
C) Uric acid
D) Urine
Q2) The filtering device at the top of each nephron is called a:
A) loop of Henle
B) ureter
C) Bowman's capsule
D) glomerulus
Q3) The process of removing and ridding the body of toxic nitrogenous wastes from the blood is called ______________.
Q4) In humans,an excessive accumulation of uric acid in the joints produces a condition known as ______.
A) ulcers
B) gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
C) gout
D) high blood pressure
E) rickets
Q5) The regulation of the body's osmotic composition is called
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Chapter 27: How the Animal Body Defends Itself
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Q1) Injured cells release chemicals that trigger expansion of blood vessels as well as movement of blood and immune system cells into the area.This response is the:
A) inflammatory response
B) counterattack
C) fever
D) complement system response
Q2) The ______________ are cells that release neutralizing chemicals that kill bacteria and themselves in the process.
A) monocytes
B) macrophages
C) basophils
D) neutrophils
Q3) Will there soon be a vaccine for the virus causing AIDS? Explain.
Q4) How is it that vertebrates are able to produce antibodies to virtually every foreign antigen with which they come in contact?
Q5) Why does the body often respond to an infection with a fever?
Q6) The outermost barrier to penetration by microbial invaders is the
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Chapter 28: The Nervous System
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Q1) A __________ produces a rapid,automatic motor response to a stimulus.
Q2) One hypothesis as to the cause of Alzheimer Disease maintains that an abnormal form of an internal protein forms _______________ which interfere with the normal function of the neuron.
Q3) Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter which forms an excitatory synapse in ____ muscle and an inhibitory synapse in _____ muscle.
A) smooth;skeletal
B) skeletal;cardiac
C) cardiac;skeletal
D) skeletal;smooth
Q4) The left and right hemispheres of the brain are linked by tracts that cross in the area called the:
A) thalamus
B) corpus striatum
C) medulla oblongata
D) corpus callosum
Q5) Compare the sympathetic nervous system with the parasympathetic nervous system.
Q6) Describe the condition of a neuron when it is not transmitting a nervous impulse,that is,when it is at rest.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: The Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two senses that detect changes in chemical concentration are:
A) touch and pressure
B) sight and smell
C) hearing and balance
D) taste and smell
Q2) The sharpest vision occurs at the ___________ where the concentration of cones is highest.
A) area of the retina closest to the lens at the front of the eye
B) optic nerve
C) fovea
D) parallax
Q3) All of the following animals use echolocation to locate objects except:
A) whales
B) bats
C) cats
D) shrews
E) dolphins
Q4) The sensory receptors that sense changes in the body's internal environment are called _______________.
Q5) Describe the path that sound travels to reach the inner ear.
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Q1) The adrenal glands are located:
A) at the base of the neck
B) on the kidneys
C) in the brain
D) in the testes
E) attached to the thyroid gland
Q2) One of the two adrenal medulla hormones that can be thought of as an extension of the sympathetic nervous system is:
A) ACTH
B) epinephrine
C) aldosterone
D) cortisol
Q3) _______________ hormone stimulates the male gonads to produce testosterone and triggers ovulation in females.
A) Adrenocorticotropic
B) Follicle-stimulating
C) Luteinizing
D) Growth
Q4) _______________ hormone is produced by the four little parathyroid glands.
Q5) The adrenal ___________ releases adrenaline and norepinephrine.
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Sexual reproduction first evolved among the:
A) land-dwelling vertebrates
B) insects
C) amphibians
D) marine organisms
Q2) __________________ is the male sex hormone,responsible for secondary sexual characteristics.
Q3) In some frogs,the eggs develop in the stomach and the young frogs leave through their parent's mouth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Choose the most effective means of birth control from the following list.
A) Condom
B) Birth control pill
C) Diaphragm
D) Spermicidal foam
Q5) What are the advantages of internal fertilization?
Q6) During which period of prenatal development is it especially critical not to consume alcohol and why?
Q7) The muscular ring at the base of the uterus is the ___________.
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Chapter 32: Evolution of Plants
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Q1) Which phyla lacks a vascular system?
A) Pterophyta
B) Gnetophyta
C) Ginkgophyta
D) Hepaticophyta
E) Arthophyta
Q2) Seedless vascular plants,like ferns,require ________ for fertilization.
A) water
B) bees
C) wind
D) animals
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) A common name for secondary plant growth in stems is ________.
Q4) What three features serve to distinguish vascular plants from nonvascular plants?
Q5) All of the following are parts of the carpel except:
A) ovary
B) style
C) stamen
D) stigma
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Chapter 33: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Specialized parenchyma cells,known as ________________ cells,occur along with sieve-tube members.
Q2) ___________ is accumulated secondary xylem.
Q3) Of the nutrients needed for plant growth,active uptake of __________ regulates turgor pressure within cells of leaves.
A) carbon dioxide
B) oxygen
C) ions
D) nitrogen
Q4) Explain how scientists believe plants are able to raise water to great heights at the top of the tree.
Q5) Leaf blades grow larger as a result of cell division in the:
A) apical meristems
B) marginal meristems
C) lateral meristems
D) All of these are correct.
Q6) The stalk of a leaf is called the _______________.
Q7) Describe the primary growth of a stem and explain how growth of lateral shoots is suppressed.
35
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Chapter 34: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) Synthetic __________,such as 2,4-D,are routinely used to control weeds and are applied in concentrations higher than would occur in the plant tissues.
A) auxins
B) cytokinins
C) gibberellins
D) ethylenes
Q2) Flowering plants respond to day and night length in part through the pigment ________________,which occurs in two forms.
Q3) Describe double fertilization.
Q4) This hormone,in combination with auxin,stimulates cell division in plants and determines the course of differentiation.
A) Abscisic acid
B) Cytokinin
C) Auxin
D) Gibberellin
E) Ethylene
Q5) When pollen from a flower's anther pollinates the same flower's stigma,the process is called _____________________.
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Chapter 35: Populations and Communities
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Q1) _____________ species avoid competition by living in different portions of the habitat or using different resources.
A) Sympatric
B) Allopatric
C) Co-evolved
D) Predator
Q2) According to the logistic growth model,as N approaches K: A) growth rate increases
B) growth rate begins to slow C) growth rate stabilizes
D) there will be less competition for resources
Q3) The principle of competitive exclusion states that no two species with the same niche can coexist indefinitely when resources are limiting.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The three types of survivorship curves are idealized situations.What type of curve probably happens more frequently in nature?
Q5) ______________ are the fundamental units of ecology.
Q6) A symbiotic relationship in which both species benefit is called ___________.
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Chapter 36: Ecosystems
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Q1) _______ is characterized by unusually cold ocean temperatures in the eastern Pacific.
Q2) In an inverted aquatic biomass pyramid,which organism is likely found at the bottom?
A) Sharks
B) Phytoplankton
C) Trout
D) Zooplankton
E) Smelts
Q3) When you eat a hamburger,you are the:
A) decomposer
B) producer
C) primary consumer
D) secondary consumer
E) tertiary consumer
Q4) A _________________ in a community is made up of the organisms feeding at the same number of steps away from the Sun.
Q5) ____________ is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperatures in the eastern Pacific.
Q6) The community plus its habitat make up an ____________________.
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Chapter 37: Behavior and the Environment
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Q1) When migrating,an inexperienced animal will rely on compass sense,while an experienced animal will rely more on map sense.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When green sea turtles travel over 1400 miles of open ocean to the Ascension Island,they are exhibiting:
A) map sense
B) compass sense
C) timely sense
D) direction sense
E) No one knows exactly how they do this.
Q3) A type of selection that favors altruism directed toward relatives is called:
A) kin selection
B) sexual selection
C) group selection
D) mate selection
Q4) Give an example for each of the following types of communication within social groups.Alarm calls;Alarm pheromones;Trail pheromones;Dance language.
Q5) Discuss optimal foraging theory.
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Chapter 38: Human Influences on the Living World
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Q1) Ten thousand years ago,when human populations began growing in number,the main reason was:
A) access to better medicine
B) a warming climate
C) extinction of large predators
D) the advent of agriculture
Q2) The greenhouse effect will probably have both positive and negative effects on agriculture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The wealthiest 20% of the world's population consumes _________% of its resources.
Q4) All of the following characteristics describe a developing country except:
A) short life expectancy
B) high infant mortality
C) low fertility rate
D) low per capita income
E) rapid doubling time
Q5) Our country has lost ____________ of its topsoil since 1950.
Q6) Water deep within underground aquifers is called ______________.
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