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Introduction to Biology Exam Questions - 3127 Verified Questions

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Introduction to Biology Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Introduction to Biology provides a foundational understanding of the principles governing living organisms. This course explores topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and biological diversity, emphasizing the scientific processes used to study life. Students will gain insights into the complexity of biological systems and the interrelationships between organisms and their environments, laying the groundwork for more advanced studies in the life sciences.

Recommended Textbook

Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr

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3127 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which cell lacks a nucleus?

A) bacterial cell

B) fungus cell

C) animal cell

D) protist cell

E) plant cell

Answer: A

Q2) Which organisms are NOT eukaryotes?

A) fungi

B) bacteria

C) plants

D) animals

E) protists

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The number of electrons in the third energy level

A)1

B)2 C)3

D)6

E)8

Answer: B

Q2) Carbon dioxide is an example of a(n) ____.

A) atom

B) ion

C) compound

D) mixture

E) element

Answer: C

Q3) 14Cis a radioactive isotope, and it turns into ____________________ when it decays.

Answer: nitrogen

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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) glucose

A)a six-carbon sugar

B)found in DNA and RNA

C)principal components of cell membranes

D)affect metabolic reaction rates

Answer: A

Q2) Glucose and fructose ____.

A) form rings with the same number of carbon atoms

B) have two oxygen atoms as part of their ring structure

C) have identical functional groups

D) contain the same number of hydrogen atoms and hydroxyl groups

E) form the same polysaccharide molecule

Answer: D

Q3) A(n) _____________________ is a term given to a macromolecule (large molecule) made up of individual subunits.

Answer: polymer

Q4) Write the empirical formula for a carbohydrate. Answer: (CH O)n

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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) The space between the two membranes of the mitochondrion accumulates ____.

A) proteins

B) H<sup>+</sup>

C) carbohydrates

D) H O

E) CO

Q2) Golgi body

Q3) Which of the following is thought to be the descendant of ancient bacteria?

A) nuclei

B) Golgi bodies

C) ER

D) mitochondria

E) lysosomes

Q4) Prokaryotes ____.

A) have a nucleus

B) are multicellular

C) always have cell walls

D) are either bacteria or archaeans

E) always have flagella

Q5) nuclear envelope

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) In oxidation-reduction reactions, ____.

A) both molecules give up electrons

B) both molecules gain electrons

C) cells harvest energy

D) the molecule that accepts electrons is reduced

E) hydrogen ions are usually absorbed

Q2) What type of energy is the energy in chemical bonds?

A) solar energy

B) activation energy

C) kinetic energy

D) potential energy

E) thermal energy

Q3) The enzyme responsible for breaking down alcohol is ____.

A) alcohol methylase

B) alcohol polyphosphorylase

C) hydroxyl alcoholgenase

D) transmethylogenase

E) alcohol dehydrogenase

Q4) The enzyme that works in conjunction with ATP to produce bioluminescence is called

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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ____ a photon's wavelength, the ____ its energy.

A) shorter; greater

B) longer; greater

C) shorter; less

D) longer; more variable

E) shorter; more variable

Q2) causes some protists to appear blue

A)chlorophyll b

B)chlorophyll a

C)phycoerythrobilin

D)phycocyanobilin

E)beta-carotene

Q3) High-energy phosphate bonds are formed during this process.

A)reduction of NADP+

B)phosphorylation of ADP

C)photolysis of water

D)oxidation of chlorophyll

E)reduction of chlorophyll

Q4) Consider the Calvin-Benson cycle and the noncyclic photosynthetic pathway. Why is the cyclic pathway so important?

8

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Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss how photosynthesis is a natural partner for aerobic respiration.

Q2) What type of cells is especially impacted by defects in the mitochondria?

A) lung cells

B) skin cells

C) heart cells

D) nerve cells

E) bone cells

Q3) fermentation

A)produces NADH and CO ; pyruvate oxidized

B)produces ATP, NADH, and CO

C)splits glucose into two pyruvate molecules

D)regenerates NAD+as pyruvate is converted to ethanol or lactate

E)uses a membrane-bound system that sets up production of ATP

Q4) What molecule corresponds to the item labeled as "62" in the accompanying figure?

A)CO

B)NADH

C)ADP + Pi

D)FADH

E)ATP

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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fred Griffith's experiment, in which he used two strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae, demonstrated that _____.

A) pathogenic bacteria function differently in mice than in other organisms

B) harmless bacteria can become transformed into disease-causing bacteria by a bacteria transformation factor

C) pure DNA extracted from disease-causing bacteria transformed harmless strains into killer strains

D) dead cells lose their genetic information

E) DNA is a protein rich in nitrogen and phosphorus

Q2) Which technique did Rosalind Franklin use to determine many aspects of DNA's structure?

A) transformation

B) transmission electron microscopy

C) density-gradient centrifugation

D) x-ray crystallography

E) chromatography

Q3) A bacterium undergoes four rounds of replication. How many cells would result, and how many of those cells would still have part of an original DNA strand from the starting bacterium?

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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein

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Sample Questions

Q1) Before messenger RNA fully matures,

A) all exons are deleted and removed.

B) a poly-A tail and modified guanine "cap" are added.

C) anticodons are assembled.

D) the transfer RNA transfers the messenger RNA to the ribosome.

E) the single RNA strand duplicates itself in much the same way as DNA.

Q2) Each tRNA has a(n) __________ that base-pairs with a codon, and each binds to the amino acid specified by the codon.

Q3) A polysome is

A) one of the units of a ribosome.

B) the nuclear organelle that synthesizes RNA.

C) an organelle that functions similarly to a ribosome during meiosis.

D) the two units of a ribosome considered together.

E) an mRNA molecule with several ribosomes attached.

Q4) A frameshift mutation results in

A) a normal protein due to the redundancy of the genetic code.

B) errors in DNA replication

C) errors in DNA splicing

D) a change in all mRNA codons downstream from the mutation

E) a change in the third position of one codon

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Chapter 10: Gene Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) X chromosome inactivation results in the

A) total inactivation of both X chromosomes.

B) inactivation of only the paternal X chromosome.

C) inactivation of only the maternal X chromosome.

D) inactivation of either the paternal X chromosome or the maternal X chromosome.

E) nonrandom inactivation of X chromosomes in the initial cells of tissues.

Q2) Which statement about promoters is true?

A) They are long sequences in DNA.

B) They are locations in DNA where regulatory proteins do not gather.

C) They control transcription.

D) They are associated with all genes.

E) They slow the rate of transcription.

Q3) The two different forms of fibronectin mRNA produced by two different kinds of cells is an example of

A) transcriptional control.

B) post-transcriptional control..

C) transport control.

D) translational control.

E) post-translational control.

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Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce

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Sample Questions

Q1) Imagine a cell entered mitosis but was unable to make microtubules. At what stage of mitosis would it remain?

Q2) period when interphase begins in a cell

A)G2

B)mitosis

C)S

D)G1

E)cytokinesis

Q3) Cytokinesis occurs after this phase of mitosis.

A)interphase

B)prophase

C)metaphase

D)anaphase

E)telophase

Q4) Which statement is TRUE about mitosis in animal cells?

A) The location of the centromere is the same for each chromosome.

B) All spindle fibers become attached to kinetochores.

C) The spindle apparatus is composed of actin protein molecules.

D) The spindle begins to disassemble during telophase.

E) Some centromeres overlap midway at the spindle.

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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction

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Sample Questions

Q1) During meiosis II, ____.

A) cytokinesis results in the formation of a total of two cells

B) sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated from each other

C) homologous chromosomes pair up

D) homologous chromosomes separate

E) sister chromatids exchange parts

Q2) In mitosis, one diploid nucleus becomes

A) two haploid nuclei.

B) one haploid nucleus.

C) two diploid nuclei.

D) four diploid nuclei.

E) four haploid nuclei.

Q3) The cell in the accompanying illustration is in ____.

A) prophase I.

B) metaphase I.

C) anaphase I.

D) prophase II.

E) anaphase II.

Q4) Discuss the unique reproductive capacity of the bdelloid rotifer.

Q5) At __________, the fusion of two gametes produces a(n) __________.

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits

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Sample Questions

Q1) In sweet peas, dominant allelesC and P are necessary for colored flowers. In the absence of either (__ pp or cc __) or both (cc pp), the flowers are white. Give the probable genotype of a plant with colored flowers and a plant with white flowers that produced 38 plants with colored flowers and 42 plants with white flowers.

Q2) In radishes, long or round are homozygous forms of an incompletely dominant gene, and oval is the phenotype of the heterozygote. If a long radish is crossed with a round radish, give the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of theF2generation.

Q3) An individual that has two dominant alleles for a trait (AA) is __________.

Q4) The role of environmental factors on gene expression is illustrated by ____.

A) the varying plant height of genetically identical yarrow plants when grown at different elevations

B) the flower color of hydrangeas

C) the coloration in snapdragon plants

D) male-pattern baldness

E) genetic variety in eye color

Q5) Classically, nature and nurture have been considered as two very separate factors impacting phenotype. Considering what we have learned of methylation, is this always the case?

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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Achondroplasia ____.

A) is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition

B) affects about one in one million people

C) affects only homozygotes

D) is characterized by abnormally short arms and legs

E) is inherited as an X-linked disorder

Q2) Polyploidy can be described as ____.

A) only occurring artificially

B) only occurring when there is one set of chromosomes

C) fatal to all living things

D) occurring in about 20% of flowering plants

E) fatal in humans but common in flowering plants

Q3) Down syndrome involves trisomy ____.

A) 3

B) 5

C) 15

D) 19

E) 21

Q4) Explain why Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), a recessive condition, most commonly occurs in boys.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes

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Sample Questions

Q1) __________ are multiple copies of a short DNA sequence that occur at a given locus.

Q2) There is concern that transgenic genes have been found in unrelated crops. Could such genetic transformation occur without traditional breeding programs?

Q3) Human insulin, which does not provoke allergic reac-tions, has been produced by transgenic E.coli since ____.

A) 1952

B) 1962

C) 1972

D) 1982

E) 1992

Q4) The function of these is to cut apart foreign DNA molecules.

A)restriction enzymes

B)recombinant DNA

C)plasmids

D)clones

E)restriction sites

Q5) Why are cDNA libraries desirable for the expression of eukaryotic genes in prokaryotes?

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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Based on what we know today, what is the best explanation for why the emu, ostrich, and rhea are so similar despite being geographically separated?

Q2) 19th-century naturalists tried to reconcile traditional beliefs with physical evidence of ____________________.

Q3) Plate tectonic theory is based on ____.

A) a model in which cool material in the earth's crust rises and spreads laterally beneath the crustal plates

B) the idea that Earth's crust is fragmented into rigid crusts that are sinking slowly beneath crustal plates

C) the idea that sedimentary rock formation causes continents to drift apart slowly on their crustal plates

D) observations that the sea floor is slowly spreading away from oceanic ridges, driven by plumes of magma welling up from Earth's interior

E) evidence that severe disturbances in Earth's crust shaped the continents in a single large event

Q4) Why are fossils older than 60 000 years hard to date using C14?

Q5) ____________________ are evidence of life in the distant past.

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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the population of flowers illustrated in the accompanying Punnett square is in genetic equilibrium, the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype in the new generation will be ____.

A) p2

B) 2pq

C) p2 + q<sup>2</sup>

D) q<sup>2</sup>

E) p2 + 2pq

Q2) Imagine the birds that eat peppered moths went extinct. What would happen to the peppered moth population?

Q3) __________ selection favors intermediate forms of a trait where __________ selection favors extreme forms.

Q4) In __________ speciation, populations in contact along a common border speciate.

Q5) __________ species of many plants (and a few animals) originated by chromosome doublings and hybridizations.

Q6) __________ shifts the range of variation in traits in one direction.

Q7) Microevolution is change in the __________ of a population.

Page 19

Q8) __________ is rapid diversification into new species that occupy novel niches.

Q9) __________ can lead to the loss of genetic diversity.

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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species

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Sample Questions

Q1) __________ is a set of methods that allow us to reconstruct phylogeny.

Q2) The convergence in external morphology of sharks, penguins, and porpoises is attributed to

A) reduced genetic variability in these groups.

B) selection pressures that are common to these groups.

C) reproductive isolation of these groups.

D) identical genes in all three groups.

E) use and disuse of the limbs.

Q3) The Dlx gene encodes a transcription factor that signals clusters of embryonic cells to ____ and gives rise to an appendage.

A) fold into the cardiac muscle

B) protrude from the body

C) form reproductive structures

D) induce apoptosis in cells lining the appendages

E) develop into the immune system

Q4) Why is morphological convergence not a good explanation for vertebrate forelimbs?

Q5) Mutations in genes that affect __________ may cause morphological shifts in a lineage.

Q6) Similar body parts that reflect shared ancestry are called __________.

Page 21

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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these organisms is NOT included in the Eukarya?

A) heterotrophic bacteria

B) heterotrophic protists

C) fungi

D) animals

E) plants

Q2) Rickettsia prowazekii

A) a substance that occurs only or predominantly in cells of a specific type.

B) simple transitional forms between early organic compounds and the first living cells

C) a bacterial species thought to be a close relative of the bacteria ancestral to mitochondria

D) first organisms with the noncyclic pathway of photosynthesis

E) bacteria able to withstand high levels of mutation-causing radiation

F) offered support for endosymbiosis

G) dome-shaped fossil remains of photoautotrophic bacteria (some nonfossil structures also form).

H) RNAs that function as enzymes

I) earliest known organism that can be assigned to a modern group

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Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea

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Sample Questions

Q1) Archaeans include three main groups methanogens (methane producers), extreme __________ (salt lovers), and extreme __________ (heat lovers).

Q2) Of all organisms, prokaryotes are the ____.

A) smallest

B) least abundant

C) least metabolically diverse

D) least widespread

E) least evolved

Q3) The __________ is a circular molecule of DNA that resides in a region of cytoplasm called the __________.

Q4) Why are endospores so dangerous to food production?

Q5) Which prokaryotic nutritional groups uses CO and sunlight to produce energy?

A) photoautotrophs

B) chemoautotrophs

C) photoheterotrophs

D) chemoheterotrophs

E) methanoheterotrophs

Q6) A(n) __________ is a virus that infects only bacteria.

Q7) Why are viruses not considered to be alive?

Page 23

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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The term "plankton" ____.

A) refers to a taxonomic division of algae

B) is a common term for microscopic organisms that drift or swim weakly in water

C) includes only multicellular forms

D) refers to small aquatic plants

E) would apply to large brown algae

Q2) The causative agents of Chagas disease and African sleeping sickness are ____.

A) trypanosomes

B) euglenoids

C) hydrogenosomes

D) diplomonads

E) parabasalids

Q3) Four of the following are shared characteristics of parabasalids and diplomonads. Which is the exception?

A) heterotrophy

B) flagella

C) oxygen-poor or anaerobic habitats

D) abundant mitochondria

E) presence of a pellicle

Q4) __________ and __________ are single-celled heterotrophs with a secreted shell.

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Chapter 22: The Land Plants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A(n) __________ dominates bryophyte life cycles.

Q2) Mosses have ____.

A) xylem

B) lignin

C) true stems

D) rhizoids

E) independent sporophytes

Q3) In the accompanying illustration depicting the life cycle of a conifer (pine), which numbered item represents the sporophyte?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5

Q4) Orchids are members of this division.

A)lycophytes

B)bryophytes

C)monocots

D)conifers

E)eudicots

Page 25

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Chapter 23: Fungi

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Q1) The ____ are a group of fungi with hyphae that grow inside the wall of plant root cells.

A) ascomycetes

B) zygomycetes

C) microsporidia

D) basidiomycetes

E) glomeromycetes

Q2) In humans, fungi are most likely to infect ____.

A) Skin

B) Blood

C) Bone

D) Muscle

E) connective tissue

Q3) The club fungi are members of which of the following?

A) ascomycetes

B) basidiomycetes

C) glomeromycetes

D) chytrids

E) zygomycetes

Q4) What is the danger of Ug99 to global food production?

Page 26

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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates

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Q1) The animal gut cavity may be a fully lined coelom or a partially lined __________.

Q2) Nematocysts are used for ____.

A) reproduction

B) excretion

C) muscle action

D) circulation

E) defense

Q3) You stumble upon an unidentified arthropod with no antennae and eight legs. This organism is likely closely related to _____.

A) grasshoppers

B) ticks

C) crayfish

D) millipedes

E) trilobites

Q4) __________ are asymmetrical and do not have tissues or organs.

Q5) In annelids, ____ regulate the composition of body fluid.

Q6) What evidence is there that choanoflagellates were the ancestors to animals?

Q7) __________ are multicelled heterotrophs without cell walls.

Q8) Why might tardigrades make good organisms for space flight?

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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates

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Q1) Mammals appeared 220 million years ago but did not begin to greatly diversify until 65 million years ago. Why is this?

Q2) Consider the accompanying figure. Four of the following are true statements about the structure indicated by "D." Which statement is false?

A) It first evolved in arthropods.

B) It extends anteriorly into the head region.

C) It provides support for muscle contraction.

D) It is replaced in most adult vertebrates by the vertebral column.

E) It is one of the four exclusive features of chordates.

Q3) The feeding habits of lampreys are best described as ____.

A) suspension feeding

B) predatory

C) parasitic

D) scavenging

E) filter feeding

Q4) A(n) __________ is an organ that allows exchange of nutrients between an embryo and its mother.

Q5) __________, or four-legged walkers, evolved from lobe-finned bony fishes.

Q6) How do lampreys differ from modern jawed fishes?

Page 28

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Chapter 26: Human Evolution

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Q1) ____ is/are considered to be the ancestor to both Homo neanderthalensis and Homo sapiens.

A) Homo habilis

B) Paranthropus loisei

C) Homo floresiensis

D) Denisovians

E) Homo erectus

Q2) The Neanderthals belong to this species.

A)Homo habilis

B)Homo erectus

C)Homo sapiens

D)Homo neanderthalensis

Q3) Which of the following is a hominin?

A) chimpanzee

B) Australopithecus

C) baboon

D) bonobo

E) gorilla

Q4) Why is it so difficult to identify the beginnings of the hominin line?

Q5) Did Homo sapiens mate with Homo neanderthalensis?

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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues

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Q1) Shoots and roots consist of ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________ tissue systems.

Q2) xylem

A)tissue that supports rapidly growing pant parts

B)cells that die when mature, but their thick cell walls remain to lend sturdiness to the plant

C)replaces the epidermis on the surfaces of older stems and roots

D)ground tissue located inside the ring of vascular bundles in a eudicot stem

E)cells that regulate the diffusion of water vapor and other gases into and out of the plant

F)outermost layer of a young plant

G)comprised of sieve elements and their associated companion cells

H)ground tissue is primarily composed of this type of cell

I)gives rise to xylem and phloem during secondary growth

J)layer of cells that form the outer boundary of the vascular cylinder

K)gives rise to vascular tissue during primary growth

L)consists of two types of cells: vessel elements and tracheids

M)parenchyma cells that contain chloroplasts

Q3) The absorption of water and minerals occurs at the structure labeled __________.

Q4) The seeds are located inside the structure labeled __________.

Page 30

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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport

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Q1) A layer of endodermal cells around the cylinder deposits a waterproof band called a(n) __________ in their abutting walls.

Q2) This nutrient is a component of chlorophyll and many enzymes.

A)iron

B)boron

C)manganese

D)zinc

E)copper

Q3) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert ____ to ____, which is a form of nitrogen that plants can use.

A) nitrogen gas; ammonia

B) ammonia; nitrogen gas

C) nitrogen gas; nitrates

D) nitrogen gas; nitrites

E) ammonia; nitrates

Q4) Phytoremediation uses the ability of plants to take up __________ dissolved in soil water.

Q5) What are guard cells and how are they able to control the opening and closing of stomata.

Q6) Explain the cohesion-tension theory.

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Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants

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Q1) The production of female gametes begins when a mass of tissue, called the ____, starts growing on the inner wall of an ovary.

A) zygote

B) ovule

C) endosperm

D) carpel

E) stigma

Q2) The embryonic shoot tip is indicated by the letter ____.

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

E) E

Q3) ____ may be the main factor contributing to colony collapse disorder (CCD) with honeybees.

A) Herbicide use

B) Insecticides use

C) Habitat loss

D) Disease

E) Parasite infestation

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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants

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Q1) statolith

A)growth response that orients parts of a plant in a direction influenced by light

B)plays a critical role in apical dominance

C)an organism's response to changes in length of day relative to night

D)organelle involved in sensing gravity

E)light-sensitive pigment that helps set plant circadian rhythm based on length of night

F)low-temperature stimulation of flowering

G)closes stomata in times of stress

H)stimulates fruit ripening

I)flowers only when hours of darkness fall below a critical value

J)flavonoid in cocoa responsible for the unusual absence of heart disease in the Kuna

K)occurring on a 24-hour cycle

L)flowers only when hours of darkness are greater than some critical value

M)activates systemic acquired resistance

N)stimulates growth of lateral buds

O)mobilizes food reserves in germinating seeds

Q2) Explain how gibberellin "removes the brakes" from some cellular processes.

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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues

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Q1) This tissue plays a particularly important role in the thermoregulation of many marine mammals.

A)loose connective tissue

B)dense connective tissue

C)adipose

D)cartilage

E)blood

Q2) What is the most abundant protein in the human body?

A) polysaccharides

B) elastin

C) collagen

D) amino acid

E) triglycerides

Q3) What is one function of the integumentary system?

A) blood cell formation

B) immune function

C) synthesis of proteins

D) protection against desiccation

E) exchange of gases

Q4) hair

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Chapter 32: Neural Control

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Q1) limbic system

A)integrates body position, motions, balance

B)in cnidarians; based on reflex pathways devoted to swimming and feeding

C)messages from here arouse the brain and maintain wakefulness

D)the cortical region that coordinates muscles required for speech

E)all parts of nerve cells outside the brain and spinal cord

F)acetylcholine is an example

G)reflex control center for breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure

H)axons of the central nervous system that are sheathed with fatty myelin

I)at top of the brainstem bordering the cerebral hemispheres; influences learning and emotional behavior

J)motor neurons that are divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions

K)membrane coverings over brain and spinal cord

L)part of the brainstem; plays roles in reward-basesd learning and voluntary movements

M)connects right and left cerebral hemispheres

N)group of nerve cell bodies that form an integrative center

O)contains centers concerned with body temperature regulation and with salt and water balance

Q2) An action potential is a brief reversal of the __________ potential.

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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception

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Q1) This structure contains rods and cones in vertebrates.

A)cornea

B)lens

C)retina

D)ommatidium

E)vitreous body

Q2) A stretch receptor is classified as a ____.

A) chemoreceptor

B) mechanoreceptor

C) photoreceptor

D) thermoreceptor

E) nociceptor

Q3) Refer to the accompanying photograph. Which statement best explains why the owl has its head almost upside down?

A) Photoreceptors are concentrated near the bottom of the eye.

B) Photoreceptors are concentrated near the top of the eye.

C) Loud music from a passing car has caused damage to the sense of balance.

D) An obstruction in its ear has caused this instinctual behavior.

E) The presence of prey above has caused this physical alert.

Q4) The __________ is a system of fluid-filled sacs and canals in the inner ear.

Page 36

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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control

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Q1) Melatonin secretion influences ____.

A) secondary sex characteristics

B) glucagon production

C) adrenal function

D) seasonal affective disorder

E) Graves' disease

Q2) Insulin is produced in this gland.

A)pituitary

B)adrenal

C)pancreas

D)thyroid

E)thymus

Q3) This hormone controls water retention and loss.

A)estrogen

B)luteinizing hormone

C)somatotropin

D)oxytocin

E)antidiuretic hormone

Q4) Binding of a protein hormone may lead to formation of a(n) __________, which relays a signal into the cell.

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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement

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Q1) This is a toe bone.

A) clavicle

B) lumbar vertebra

C) tibia

D) phalanges

E) metacarpal

Q2) The knee is an example of a ____.

A) cartilaginous joint

B) ligament

C) meniscus

D) synovial joint

E) fibrous joint

Q3) The prospect of inhibiting myostatin and growing larger muscles may be tempting to a great many people. Is there any danger to increasing muscle mass? Explain your answer.

Q4) Fluid filled space in this joint provides lubrication.

A)fibrous joint

B)cartilaginous joint

C)synovial joint

Q5) The spinal cord runs through, and is protected by, the __________.

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Chapter 36: Circulation

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Q1) The anatomical structure shown in the accompanying figure is of ____.

A) venous valves

B) pulmonary veins

C) the inferior valve

D) the right myocardial sac

E) the heart apex

Q2) Blood is moved efficiently through the veins and back to the heart is by ____.

A) one way valves to prevent backflow

B) sphincter muscles to prevent backflow

C) contraction of the ventricles

D) contraction of the atria

E) blood pooling in the capillary bed

Q3) Irregular heart beat is known as _____.

A) tachycardia

B) arrhythmia

C) bradycardia

D) atrial fibrillation

E) hypertension

Q4) The SA node, also known as the __________ spontaneously generates the action potentials that set the pace for cardiac contractions.

Page 39

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Chapter 37: Immunity

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Q1) Ig stands for __________.

Q2) What is characteristic of adult frogs?

A) gills

B) sucking air into their lungs

C) countercurrent exchange

D) pushing air into their lungs

E) drawing water by inhalation across their gills

Q3) The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the human lungs in the ____.

A) bronchi

B) alveoli

C) bronchioles

D) trachea

E) glottis

Q4) Research on HIV vaccines is progressing, but success to date has been limited to vaccines that are of limited effectiveness against a few strains of the HIV virus. However, flu vaccines are similar in their limitations. Why are 'limited effectiveness flu vaccines released, but not HIV vaccines?

Q5) Why is it beneficial to urinate after sexual activity?

Q6) __________ fights infection by increasing the metabolic rate.

Q7) __________ immunity specifically targets billions of different antigens.

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Chapter 38: Respiration

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Q1) Respiratory proteins such as __________ in red blood cells and __________ in muscle bind oxygen and help maintain gradients that favor gas exchange.

Q2) People who smoke both marijuana and tobacco have ____ respiratory problems than tobacco-only smokers.

A) less

B) more

C) more serious

D) less serious

E) the same amount of

Q3) Paired lungs are characteristic of ____.

A) spiders

B) all birds

C) all fishes

D) all amphibian life stages

E) all insects

Q4) nasal cavity

Q5) bronchus

Q6) Respiration is a physiological process by which O enters the internal environment and CO leaves by diffusing across a(n) __________.

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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition

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Q1) gastrin

A)made in the small intestine and pancreas; act on peptide fragments

B)glucose, fructose, and galactose are examples

C)made in the pancreas; acts on fats

D)made by the pancreas and salivary glands; acts on starch

E)made by the small intestine; acts on two-unit sugars

F)made by the pancreas; acts on proteins and polypeptides

G)contains cholesterol; helps emulsify fats

H)made in the stomach; acts on proteins

I)stimulates hydrochloric acid secretion

J)circular muscle; acts like valve

Q2) Vitamin C ____.

A) helps blood to clot

B) is needed to make collagen

C) is used to create coenzymes

D) is fat soluble

E) protects cell membranes

Q3) pharynx

Q4) pancreas

Q5) rectum

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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment

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Q1) The channel between the bladder and the body surface is the _____.

A) renal medulla

B) fallopian tube

C) urethra

D) ureter

E) epididymis

Q2) The nephron begins in the ____.

A) glomerulus

B) loop of Henle

C) cortex

D) ureter

E) medulla

Q3) ____ is a passive transport plasma membrane protein that forms a pore through which water (but not solutes)can flow freely across the membrane.

A) ADH

B) A sodium ion

C) Ketone bodies

D) Aquaporin

E) Angiotensinogen

Q4) __________ such as reptiles control core temperature mainly by behavior.

Page 43

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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems

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Q1) epididymis

A)acts to trigger ovulation in females

B)structures that secrete mucus and nutrients absorbable by sperm; open into the ejaculatory duct

C)forms as an outgrowth of the yolk sac; becomes part of umbilical cord and urinary bladder

D)a drug that causes severely deformed arms and legs in developing embryos

E)two of these connect seminiferous tubules with vasa deferentia

F)opening between uterus and vagina

G)organ that supplies the embryo/fetus with nutrients and removes wastes

H)connects epididymis with ejaculatory duct

I)hormones that stimulate uterine contractions in the female

J)cap over the head of a sperm; contains lytic enzymes to penetrate egg membranes

K)inner cell mass plus trophoblast; attaches to uterine wall

L)testosterone secreting cells in the testis

M)sensitive to sexual stimulation; develops from same embryonic tissues as does the penis in males

N)the uterine lining

O)stimulates maturation of an ovarian follicle

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Chapter 42: Animal Development

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Q1) gastrula

A) visible marker of the site where an amphibian's body axis will be established and where gastrulation will begin

B) the formation of three embryonic tissue layers

C) the fusion of male and female nuclei

D) the entire body divides transversely; each half grows and regenerates the missing part

E) selective gene expression results in different cell types

F) subdividing of the zygote by mitosis; no growth occurs

G) region of zygote that has less yolk and is pigmented

H) an embryonic stage of development that has three primary tissue layers before organogenesis begins

I) the formation of organs

J) one body part develops in response to signals from an adjacent part

K) the growth, shaping, and spatial coordination of tissues and organs so that a predefined pattern of the whole organism results

L) occurs in the formation of the human hand

Q2) __________ regulates the maturation of the mammary glands, and then oxytocin causes __________.

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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior

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Q1) Lorenz

A)studied nest decorating behavior in birds

B)imprinting in goslings

C)capacity of an animal to complete complex, stereotyped responses to first-time encounters with key stimuli

D)problem solving without trial-and-error

E)behavior is modified by experience

F)voluntary behavior is modified in response to consequences of that behavior

G)communal display ground

H)occurs during a sensitive period in which a following response or social attachment becomes fixed on a particular moving object

I)self-sacrificing behavior

Q2) The primary signal sent out by receptive female primates is likely to be this.

A)tactile

B)auditory

C)visual

D)chemical

Q3) __________ is one form of learning that happens only during a sensitive period early in life.

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