Introduction to Biology Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides a foundational overview of the core principles and processes of living organisms. This course explores essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will examine the scientific method, basic biochemistry, and the relationship between organisms and their environments. Through lectures, laboratory investigations, and discussions, students gain a solid understanding of how living systems operate and interact, preparing them for further study in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Q1) How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis?
A)There is no difference-the terms are interchangeable.
B)A theory is an explanation for a very general phenomenon or observation;hypotheses treat more specific observations.
C)A hypothesis is an explanation for a very general phenomenon;theories treat more specific issues.
D)Theories define scientific laws;hypotheses are used to set up experiments.
Answer: B
Q2) Many phylogenetic trees are based on DNA sequence similarities.What is the practical result of this similarity?
A)Closely related species will not look similar to each other.
B)Artificial selection can bring closely related species even closer to each other.
C)Species with very similar DNA will have similar structures,enzymes,and appearance.
D)Mitochondrial DNA might be different from nuclear DNA.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) Why do chemical reactions tend to speed up when the concentration of the reactants is increased?
A)The reactants move faster.
B)The reactants collide more often.
C)The reactants have greater energy.
D)All of the above apply.
Answer: B
Q2) Chemical evolution refers to which of the following?
A)Large molecules tended to break apart because of the intense sunlight and heat from volcanoes.
B)Water condensed to form the first oceans.
C)Small molecules reacted to form larger,more complex molecules.
D)Earth's crust solidified,even as massive bombardment from outer space continued. Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) When,and by whom,was the lock-and-key model of enzyme specificity developed?
A)1894 by Fischer
B)1894 by Miller
C)1936 by Fischer
D)1956 by Fischer
E)1974 by Haldane and Oparin
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following best describes the first living entity-the one responsible for the origin of life?
A)It was a monomer.
B)It was large and extremely complex.
C)It could make a copy of itself.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following answers best describes the above metabolic pathway?
A)Anabolic;endergonic
B)Catabolic;endergonic
C)Anabolic;exergonic
D)Catabolic;exergonic
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) All organisms have which of the following attributes?
A)They can reproduce.
B)They can perform metabolism.
C)They are composed of cells.
D)They can reproduce and they are composed of cells.
E)They can reproduce,perform metabolism,and are composed of cells.
Q2) In the context of chemical evolution,DNA's structure is interesting because it suggests a possible copying mechanism.What about DNA's structure facilitates copying?
A)It has the same number of purines and pyrimidines.
B)The nitrogenous bases are located on the inside of the double helix.
C)The strands of the double helix are complementary.
D)DNA always goes from 5 to 3.
Q3) Which of the following best describes DNA's secondary structure?
A) -pleated sheet
B)double parallel helical strands
C)turn-loop-turn
D)double antiparallel helical strands
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the hydrolysis of -glycosidic linkages in starch?
A)amylase
B)phosphorylase
C)glycolase
Q2) Which of the following can vary among monosaccharides?
A)the number of carbon atoms
B)the presence of a carbonyl group
C)the presence of hydroxyl groups
D)all of the above
Q3) In animals,the role of carbohydrate polymers is primarily A)body protection.
B)information storage.
C)energy storage.
D)enzymes.
Q4) A glycosidic linkage is analogous to which of the following in proteins?
A)an amino group
B)a peptide bond
C)a disulfide bond
D)a -pleated sheet
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) Which of the following crosses lipid bilayers the slowest?
A)a sodium ion
B)a small,polar molecule like water
C)a large,polar molecule like glucose
D)a small,nonpolar molecule like oxygen (O )
Q2) What region of a steroid is hydrophilic?
A)the methyl (-CH )groups
B)the terminal hydroxyl group
C)the ring structures
D)the long hydrocarbon chain
Q3) Steroids are
A)a class of lipid with a four-ring structure.
B)a class of transmembrane transport proteins.
C)a portion of all phospholipids.
D)powered by ATP.
Q4) Suppose some blood cells were in an isotonic solution.What would happen to them?
A)They would shrink.
B)They would expand.
C)They would remain the same size.
D)The outcome is not predictable.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Flagella and cilia bend or move,imparting mobility to cells.How do these structures move?
A)The basal body at the base of the structure hydrolyzes ATP,causing a conformational change that results in movement of the cilium or flagellum.
B)Two microtubules at the core of the structure serve as motor proteins.
C)Axonemes are structured such that movement is constant.
D)Dynein is a motor protein that hydrolyzes ATP and is responsible for movement of the cilium or flagellum.
Q2) Mitochondria are separated into two compartments,the matrix and the intermembrane space,by their inner and outer membranes.How does the presence of two compartments contribute to the function of mitochondria?
A)It enables mitochondrial DNA and ribosomes to remain separated from the functional compartment of the mitochondria.
B)The two compartments permit different but complementary functions to be accomplished in the organelle.
C)The double-membrane feature of mitochondria is what enables them to glycosylate proteins.
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) Scientists have found that extracellular matrix components may induce specific gene expression in embryonic tissues such as the liver and testis.For this to happen,there must be direct communication between the extracellular matrix and the developing cells.Which kind of transmembrane protein would most likely be involved in this kind of induction?
A)integrins
B)collagens
C)actins
D)fibronectins
Q2) Plasmodesmata are cell-cell junctions that can be found between
A)skeletal muscle cells.
B)plant cells.
C)cells of connective tissue in animals.
D)none of the above.
Q3) What is the function of the middle lamella in plant cells?
A)adhesion of adjacent cells
B)to keep the cell walls of adjacent cells from dehydrating
C)to maintain the plant circulatory system
D)for gas and nutrient exchange between adjacent cells
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE concerning ATP synthase?
A)It generates ATP by chemiosmosis in cellular respiration and photosynthesis.
B)It performs the same function in cellular respiration and photosynthesis,with similar structure and biochemical composition in each.
C)It is an enzyme that is a tiny rotary motor.
D)It is a component of the electron transport chain in cellular respiration and photosynthesis.
Q2) Two ATP molecules are expended in the energy investment phase of glycolysis.Why is this energy necessary to begin the process of glucose catabolism?
A)It isn't;glucose contains 686 kcal/mole in its chemical bonds,so its catabolism is spontaneous.
B)It is needed to generate the electron carrier NAD .
C)It is needed to prime the enzymes of glycolysis.
D)Glucose is a stable molecule;thus,some energy must be invested to make the molecule unstable and begin the process of catabolism.
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11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Sagebrush is a C4 plant,while wheat is a C3 plant.Based on the type of photosynthesis that would occur in these plants in an arid (dry)southern region of the United States,which of the following is true?
A)Sagebrush is expected to outcompete wheat in the cooler spring and early summer seasons,whereas wheat outcompetes sagebrush in the hotter mid-to-late summer.
B)Wheat is expected to outcompete sagebrush in the cooler spring and early summer seasons,whereas sagebrush outcompetes wheat in the hotter mid-to-late summer.
C)Sagebrush produces 4 molecules of G3P per 'turn' of the Calvin cycle,while wheat produces only 3 molecules of G3P per "turn" of the Calvin cycle.
D)Sagebrush carries out the initial fixation of CO into an organic acid only at night.
E)Wheat carries out the initial fixation of CO into an organic acid only at night.
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) Cancer-causing mutated tumour suppressor genes result from which of the following?
A)programmed cell death
B)mutations in genes encoding proteins that normally inhibit progression through the cell cycle
C)mutations that cause overexpression of genes encoding proteins that normally stimulate progression through the cell cycle
D)cell-contact inhibition
Q2) One reason cancer cells are easier to culture than normal cells extracted from an organism is that
A)cancer cells do not need to adhere to a substratum to grow.
B)nutrient requirements for cancer cells are precisely defined.
C)cancer cells are better models for demonstrating what happens in an intact organism.
D)cancer cells grow in a more regulated fashion.
Q3) The term contact inhibition refers to the
A)exchange of signals between cells using cell surface receptions.
B)cessation of cell growth when two cells touch each other.
C)action of non-competitive inhibitors on the catalytic activity of enzymes.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) In 1985,Hassold and Chiu found that the likelihood of miscarriage increased with maternal age.What is the most likely explanation for the relationship between age and miscarriage?
A)Women in their mid-thirties and older have more health problems that interfere with their ability to maintain pregnancy.
B)Older women typically have hormonal imbalances that prevent them from carrying a baby to term.
C)The DNA replication that takes place immediately prior to meiosis is less accurate in older women.
D)Ova are arrested in meiosis until ovulation.As a result,completion of meiosis in the older woman is more likely to result in aneuploidy or other chromosomal abnormalities.
Q2) Refer to Figure 12.4.Put the stages of meiosis shown here in the order that they would occur in a cell.
A)a,c,d,b
B)c,a,b,d
C)c,a,d,b
D)a,b,c,d
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) A black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced 12 black offspring.When the albino was crossed with a second black animal,6 blacks and 6 albinos were obtained.What is the best explanation for this genetic situation?
A)Albino is recessive;black is dominant.
B)Albino is dominant;black is incompletely dominant.
C)Albino and black are codominant.
D)Albino is recessive;black is recessive.
E)None of the above applies.
Q2) Phenylketonuria is an inherited disease caused by a recessive autosomal allele.If a woman and her husband are both carriers,what is the probability that their first child will be a phenotypically normal girl?
A)1/4
B)1/16
C)1)0
D)3/16
E)3/8
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) Where would Okazaki fragments be found in the image above? Note: The black boxes represent RNA primers and the polarities of the template strands are indicated.
A)A,B
B)C,D
C)A,C
D)B,D
E)A,D
Q2) Refer to Figure 14.1.What bases will be added to the primer as DNA replication proceeds? The bases should appear in the order that they will be added.
A)C,A,G,C,A,G,A
B)T,C,T,G,C,T,G
C)A,G,A,C,G,A,C
D)U,G,U,C,G,U,C
Q3) In Figure 14.2,which is the template strand?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) How might a single base substitution in the sequence of a gene affect the amino acid sequence of a protein encoded by the gene,and why?
A)Only a single amino acid could change,because the reading frame is unaffected.
B)The amino acid sequence would be substantially altered,because the reading frame would change with a single base substitution.
C)All amino acids following the substitution would be affected,because the reading frame would be shifted.
D)It is not possible for a single base substitution to affect protein structure,because each codon is three bases long.
Q2) In the process of transcription,
A)DNA is replicated.
B)RNA is synthesized.
C)proteins are synthesized.
D)mRNA attaches to ribosomes.
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Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
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Q1) What is inosine,and what role does it play in translation?
A)Inosine is a purine base that,when in an anticodon opposite the third base of a codon,provides flexibility in base pairing.
B)Inosine is a sugar that,when metabolized near a ribosome,provides energy for the formation of peptide bonds.
C)Inosine is an enzyme that,when linked to the active site of a ribosome,catalyzes the process of translocation.
D)Inosine is a regulatory molecule that,when bound to a ribonuclease,controls the rate of degradation of mRNA.
Q2) -amanitin is a toxin produced by the death cap mushroom.It blocks the synthesis of mRNA.What effect would it have on health of the organism that ate death cap mushrooms?
A)It would block DNA synthesis.
B)It would tie up Mg² and,through this action,inhibit glycolysis.
C)It would denature existing proteins.
D)It would cause death.
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) A technique that can be used to identify mutant bacterial cells is called
A) indicator plating.
B)replica plating.
C)master plating.
D)comparison plating.
Q2) In the first step of their experiments,Jacob and Monod treated E.coli cells with UV light or X-rays in order to
A)decrease the number of viable cells.
B)induce DNA repair enzymes.
C)increase the frequency of mutations in all genes.
D)selectively mutate the lac operon,leaving all other genes unmutated.
Q3) Imagine that you've run a DNA footprinting analysis.Many closely spaced bands (DNA fragments)are seen in the lane of the gel prepared from DNA without protein.In the adjacent lane prepared from DNA mixed with protein,a subset of the bands is seen,but there is a large region where no bands are observed.This empty region represents
A)the region where protein did not bind to DNA.
B)the region where protein bound to DNA.
C)a region where there was no DNA for protein binding.
D)a region where protein was digested by the enzyme.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) A scientist has a vial containing DNA and tries to digest it with DNA digesting enzymes.After analyzing it,she finds that no digestion occurred.What would be the most likely reason for this?
A)The DNA was tightly packed into 30nm chromatin fibres.
B)The DNA was packed into regions called euchromatin.
C)The DNA was tightly packed into 10nm chromatin fibres.
D)The DNA was embedded in the plasma membrane and was not accessible for the enzyme.
Q2) Twenty-five years ago,when Oshima and colleagues discovered that a mutation in the GAL4 gene led to the inability to synthesize all five enzymes required for galactose catabolism (breakdown),they couldn't be blamed for wanting to apply a bacterial model to explain this finding.What they expected,but did not find,was
A)for all five genes to constitute an operon.
B)five widely separated genes,each containing a GAL4 binding site in its regulatory region.
C)for chromatin decondensation to play an important role in regulating the genes of galactose catabolism.
D)for transcription to be important in regulating the genes of galactose catabolism.
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) Why is it essential that genetic markers used in mapping disease genes be polymorphic?
A)If the marker isn't polymorphic,its position cannot be known.
B)If the marker isn't polymorphic,it cannot be physically linked to a gene associated with human disease.
C)If the marker isn't polymorphic,then it will not be inherited in any predictable manner.
D)If the marker isn't polymorphic,then it's impossible to use genetic mapping techniques to establish an association between the marker and the disease gene.
Q2) Imagine that you compare two DNA sequences found in the same location on homologous chromosomes.On one of the homologs,the sequence is AACTACGA.On the other homolog,the sequence is AACTTCGA.Within a population,you discover that each of these sequences is common.These sequences
A)contain a SNP that may be useful for genetic mapping.
B)identify a protein-coding region of a gene.
C)cause disease.
D)protect against disease.
E)none of the above.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) In the microarray shown in the figure above,if you were searching for genes whose expression was inhibited by hormone treatment,you would search for sequences spotted on the array that showed ________ fluorescence.
A)no
B)high levels of
C)green
D)red
E)yellow
Q2) Sequencing eukaryotic genomes is more difficult than sequencing genomes of bacteria or archaea because of
A)the large size of eukaryotic genomes.
B)the large amount of eukaryotic repetitive DNA.
C)the high proportion of G-C base pairs in eukaryotic DNA.
D)A and B only.
E)all of the above.
Q3) The goal of annotating a whole genome sequence is to
A)establish the nucleotide sequence.
B)learn the number of nucleotides contained within the genome.
C)identify genes and their positions within the genome.
D)learn how gene products interact to produce phenotypes.
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Communication within and between cells of an embryo can include all of the following except
A)increased concentration of signaling molecules.
B)changes in binding to regulatory sequences.
C)changes in gene transcription.
D)changes in gene sequences.
Q2) Which of the following human cells contains the gene for alcohol dehydrogenase,a liver enzyme that processes alcohol?
A)sperm and egg cells
B)liver cells
C)heart cells
D)Only the cells in A and B contain the gene for this enzyme.
E)All of the cells in A,B,and C contain the gene for this enzyme.
Q3) During development,what a cell differentiates into depends in part on its location along three body axes.Which axis runs towards the organism's belly?
A)dorsal
B)anterior
C)posterior
D)ventral
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) Where do you suppose the first microtubules will be observed in the fertilized egg?
A)immediately beneath the plasma membrane
B)at the site of sperm entry
C)opposite the site of sperm entry
D)around the nucleus
Q2) Cytoplasmic contents in the fertilized egg move along microtubule networks.What kinds of proteins would you predict would facilitate these movements?
A)enzymes
B)kinesins
C)tubulins
D)keratins
E)collagens
Q3) What is the role of calcium signalling in prevention of polyspermy?
A)Calcium is toxic to the sperm and kills the sperm preventing fertilization.
B)Calcium signalling results in formation of a fertilization envelope.
C)Calcium signalling directs the sperm to another egg in the vicinity.
D)Increases in calcium ensure there is no room for the sperm to fertilize the egg.
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) Which of the following axes in the plant are analogous to the anterior-posterior axis in an animal?
A)lateral axis
B)adaxial-abaxial axis
C)proximal-distal axis
D)apical-basal axis
Q2) Yolk and endosperm share a number of functions.Which of the following does NOT describe a similarity between them?
A)Yolk and endosperm both provide nutrition for embryos.
B)Yolk and endosperm both contain proteins.
C)Yolk and endosperm are both the result of a second fertilization process.
D)Yolk and endosperm are both cellular products.
Q3) The basal cell in a plant embryo
A)develops from the root of the embryo.
B)forms the suspensor that anchors the embryo.
C)differentiates after gastrulation.
D)divides to form cotyledons.
E)divides to form hypocotyls.
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25
Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Evolution by natural selection changes the population but not the individual.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A population of rabbits grows explosively because resources are high.However,now that numbers have increased substantially,there is not enough food for all individuals and the population is threatened.What will happen under such circumstances?
A)The rabbits will share the food with each other;if everyone gets a little bit of food,the population will survive.
B)A random group of the rabbits will survive and reproduce to form the next generation.
C)There will be competition for the food and some rabbits will not survive to reproduce.
D)Some rabbits will move away to find another food source so that individuals remaining in the population will survive.
Q3) Explain how one of the following supports the idea that species change through time: artificial selection,extinction,transitional forms,vestigial traits,or antibiotic resistance.
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Humans have domesticated a number of plants and animals.In the domestication process,a few individuals of a species are "captured" to have a starting population and then these are bred for many generations.This is an example of a ________ and you would therefore predict that domesticated organisms would show ________.
A)founder effect;a lot of genetic variation
B)bottleneck effect;little genetic variation
C)bottleneck effect;many useful adaptations for surviving floods
D)gene flow;speciation
E)founder effect;little genetic variation
Q2) Which of the following is the most predictable outcome of increased gene flow between two populations?
A)lower average fitness in both populations
B)higher average fitness in both populations
C)increased genetic difference between the two populations
D)decreased genetic difference between the two populations
E)increased genetic drift
Q3) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Two researchers experimentally formed tetraploid frogs by fertilizing diploid eggs from Rana porosa brevipoda with diploid sperm from Rana nigromaculata.When they mated these tetraploid frogs with each other,most of the offspring that survived to maturity were tetraploid,with chromosome sets of both diploid parent species.Based on these results,if this type of tetraploid formed in the wild,what would be the result? (Y.Kondo and A.Kashiwagi.2004.Experimentally induced autotetraploidy and allotetraploidy in two Japanese pond frogs.Journal of Herpetology 38(3):381-92.)
A)The two parent species would interbreed and fuse into one species.
B)The two parent species would recognize each other as mates.
C)The tetraploids would be reproductively isolated from both parent species.
D)The tetraploids would be selected against.
E)All of the above answers are correct.
Q2) Why is speciation by polyploidy more likely in plants than in animals?
A)Plant gametes can be produced from somatic cells that have undergone many rounds of mitosis.
B)Plant gametes lack postzygotic isolating mechanisms.
C)Plants lack the DNA repair enzymes that animals have.
D)Plants are sessile and cannot speciate via dispersal.
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) You find a new fossil deposit,containing many species with shells but no soft-bodied species.What is the most logical conclusion?
A)There were no soft-bodied organisms at this time and location.
B)Conditions were not right to fossilize soft-bodied organisms.
C)There was a mass extinction event among hard-bodied,but not soft-bodied,species at this location.
Q2) Which of the following are typically responsible for island extinctions?
A)introduced species and habitat destruction
B)overharvesting and introduction of nonnative predators and herbivores
C)earthquakes followed by tsunamis
D)increased CO levels and global warming
Q3) Applying the principle of parsimony to the trait "ability to fly," which of the two phylogenetic trees above is better?
A)Tree 1
B)Tree 2
C)Both trees are equally parsimonious.
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biologists sometimes divide living organisms into two groups: autotrophs and heterotrophs.How do these two groups differ?
A)They use different sources of energy.
B)They use different electron acceptors.
C)They use different sources of carbon.
D)They differ in the way they generate ATP.
Q2) What experiment can distinguish between high-GC Gram-positive bacteria and low-GC Gram-positive bacteria?
A)analysis of cell shape
B)Gram-staining test
C)DNA analysis
D)analysis of metabolic pathways
Q3) You might be interested to know how many different types of bacteria live on the shower curtain in your bathroom.What is the most efficient method for answering this question?
A)enrichment culture
B)direct sequencing
C)Enrichment culture and direct sequencing are equally efficient methods.
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) According to the phylogenetic tree in the figure above,Giardia intestinalis constitutes a ________ group.
A)paraphyletic
B)monophyletic
C)polyphyletic
Q2) Which of the major lineages of eukaryotes contain pronounced "feeding grooves" for digesting prey or organic debris?
A)Plantae
B)Excavata
C)Alveotata
D)Rhizaria
Q3) According to the endosymbiotic theory,why was it adaptive for the larger (host)cell to keep the engulfed cell alive,rather than digesting it as food?
A)The engulfed cell provided the host cell with ATP.
B)The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide.
C)The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose.
D)The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive.
E)The host cell would have been poisoned if it had digested the engulfed cell.
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Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
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Q1) What is characteristic of xylem cells that are mature?
A)They have only primary walls made of cellulose.
B)They have only secondary walls made of lignin.
C)They contain cytoplasm at maturity.
D)They have both primary and secondary walls.
E)All of these answers apply.
Q2) Spores and seeds have basically the same function,dispersal,but are vastly different because
A)spores have a protective outer covering;seeds do not.
B)spores have an embryo;seeds do not.
C)spores have stored nutrition;seeds do not.
D)spores are unicellular;seeds are not.
E)spores depend primarily on animals for dispersal;seeds do not.
Q3) The closest relatives of the familiar pine and spruce trees are
A)ferns,horsetails,lycophytes,and club mosses.
B)hornworts,liverworts,and mosses.
C)gnetophytes,cycads,and ginkgoes.
D)elms,maples,and aspens.
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32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Microsporidians are considered parasitic because of the ability to penetrate their host cells using this structure.
A)mycelium
B)polar tube
C)sporangia
D)chitin
Q2) Referring to Simard et al.(1997),which design element is the control in this experiment and why?
A)the bags over the seedlings to contain the different types of carbon dioxide
B)the fact that all the seedlings are different species
C)the cedar seedling,because it is not bagged
D)the cedar seedling,because it forms arbuscular mycorrhizae
Q3) Why are mycorrhizal fungi superior to plants at acquiring mineral nutrition from the soil?
A)Hyphae are 100 to 1000 times smaller than plant roots.
B)Fungi secrete extracellular enzymes that can break down large molecules.
C)Fungi can transport compounds through their mycelium from areas of surplus to areas of need.
D)All of the above answers apply.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) Parasitism is one of the most successful life strategies ever to evolve.Which of the following is consistent with this finding?
A)Parasites almost always predigest their hosts' tissues and,therefore,spend less energy and require fewer structural adaptations.
B)Parasites,unlike predators,feed on almost all the tissues of their host.
C)Parasites do not generally kill their hosts,thus they can feed on the same host throughout the host's normal life span and do not have competition from decomposers.
D)Parasites generally kill their host and can feed for a very long time because they are much smaller than their host.
Q2) Comb jellies may not be the most familiar animal to you,but they are critical in the food chain because they make up a significant portion of the planktonic biomass.Their feeding strategy is predatory and involves adhesives or mucous on their tentacles or other body parts.What feeding tactic do these animals use?
A)suspension feeder
B)fluid feeder
C)deposit feeder
D)food-mass feeder
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Which of these mollusc features substitutes for the coelom by providing a space for organ development and circulation of bodily fluids?
A)visceral mass
B)foot
C)mantle
D)none of the above
Q2) What is not true of all arthropods?
A)They metamorphose during development.
B)They have jointed limbs.
C)They grow by molting.
D)They have segmented bodies.
E)They have an exoskeleton or cuticle.
Q3) A cephalopod's tentacles are modified from its A)mantle.
B)visceral mass.
C)foot.
D)shell.
E)radula.
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Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Which one of these groups does not belong to the phylum Echinodermata?
A)sea cucumber
B)sea urchins
C)lancelets
D)basket stars
E)sand dollars
Q2) The presence of vestigial hip and leg bones in boas and pythons is considered evidence for what evolutionary link?
A)A snake was the common ancestor for the tetrapods.
B)Snakes have limbed ancestors.
C)Some snake species needed limbs-probably for evading predators by climbing.
D)None,because with the new molecular genetics studies,the presence of vestigial structures is irrelevant to evolutionary biology.
Q3) What is believed to be the most significant result of the evolution of the amniotic egg?
A)Tetrapods could lay their eggs in a variety of terrestrial locations.
B)Tetrapods can grow much larger.
C)Newborns are much less dependent on their parents.
D)Embryos are protected from predators.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) Does treating a viral infection with antibiotics affect the course of the infection?
A)No;antibiotics do not kill viruses,because viruses use host proteins to replicate and antibiotics affect bacterial proteins.
B)No;antibiotics do not kill viruses,because viruses self-assemble into active particles.
C)Yes;antibiotics activate the immune system,and this decreases the severity of the infection.
D)Yes;antibiotics can prevent viral entry into the cell by binding to host-receptor proteins.
Q2) In doing gene therapy,researchers frequently use attenuated viruses.The goal of gene therapy is to insert a normal copy of the mutated,disease-causing gene into the patient's genome,so that they will start producing normal protein.Which type of virus is suited to this application?
A)lytic viruses
B)lysogenic viruses
C)either lytic or lysogenic viruses
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) When comparing root systems of plants growing on a square foot in a corn field and on a meadow,what result do you expect to receive?
A)The overall mass of roots will be identical in a cornfield and on a meadow.
B)The mass and length of roots in a cornfield will be higher because soil is fertilized.
C)The mass and length of roots on a meadow will be higher because soil is poorer and there is higher diversity of plants.
D)The overall mass of roots on a meadow will be lower,but the length will be higher since roots need to grow deeper to reach nutrients.
Q2) In 2005,a spot 1 centimeter from the center of a woody stem is in the bark.In what tissue will the same spot (1 cm from the center)be in 2050?
A)bark
B)secondary phloem
C)vascular cambium
D)secondary xylem
E)impossible to tell
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Which of the following features of plant cells allows for symplastic movement of water?
A)porous cell walls
B)cytoskeleton
C)plasmodesmata
D)large central vacuole
E)semipermeable membranes of mitochondria
Q2) As an undergraduate research assistant in the lab of the famous Dr.S.Nameerf,your duties involve measuring water potential in experimental soil-plant-atmosphere systems.Assume you make a series of measurements in a system under normal daylight conditions,with stomata open and photosynthesis occurring.Which of the following correctly depicts the trend your measurement data should follow if the cohesion-tension mechanism is operating?
A) soil < roots = leaves < atmosphere
B) atmosphere < leaves = roots < soil
C) soil < roots < leaves < atmosphere
D) atmosphere < leaves < roots < soil
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Soil leaching is usually
A)beneficial for plants.
B)neutral for plants.
C)harmful for plants.
Q2) To understand the role of zinc in plant growth and development,you are growing a tomato plant using hydroponics.Which plant organs do you expect to have defects if you provide the plant with a solution devoid of zinc?
A)leaves
B)stems
C)roots
D)all organs
E)aboveground organs
Q3) What is the function of proton pumps localized in the plant plasma membrane?
A)to create ATP
B)to transfer phosphorous groups from ATP to proteins
C)to transfer metal ions across the plasma membrane
D)to transfer anions across the plasma membrane
E)to create a membrane potential
Q4) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) What do phototropin and ABA have in common?
A)They induce stomata closing.
B)They regulate opening and closing of water pores in the plasma membrane.
C)They regulate activity of H -ATPases.
D)They are localized in the plasma membrane.
E)All of the above apply.
Q2) Lettuce seeds need full sunlight to germinate;therefore,germination is inhibited when their phytochrome molecules are in the Pfr conformation.
A)true
B)false
Q3) How could you test the hypothesis that caterpillar saliva and a wound are both necessary to attract the parasitoid wasps?
A)Slash the corn leaves with a razor blade.
B)Put caterpillar saliva on a leaf wound.
C)Put caterpillar saliva on an intact leaf.
D)All of the above actions are necessary for testing the hypothesis.
Q4) Plant C is a long-day plant.
A)true
B)false
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gardener in Canada wants to surprise his mother on her birthday and make her favorite Shrubalthea bush flower in May instead of the end of June.The bush is growing in the greenhouse.Which of the following might make the Shrubalthea bush flower early?
A)fertilizing the bush
B)grafting leaves of a Shrubalthea that was exposed to long nights
C)grafting leaves of a Shrubalthea that was exposed to short nights
D)exposing flower buds of the Shrubalthea bush to long nights
E)exposing flower buds of the Shrubalthea bush to short nights
Q2) A population of flowers varies from deep blue to nearly white.Bees are active during the day and prefer color.Moths are active at night,when colors are not very visible and white is more conspicuous.Design a scenario in which the blue and white flowers form two species where there once was one species.You must end with a conclusion that the two new species cannot interbreed (a definition of a species).
Q3) After double fertilization in angiosperms,what development sequence is correct?
A)The embryo in the seed develops into endosperm.
B)The ovary wall becomes the fruit.
C)The ovule becomes the fruit.
D)The entire carpel dries up and falls off the plant.
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Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is not a good strategy for increasing the surface area relative to the volume?
A)Increase the amount of branching.
B)Increase the amount of folding.
C)Enlarge and make more spherical.
D)Make flatter.
E)None of these are good strategies.
Q2) Which class of tissue has many different types and functions in humans dictated by the unique extracellular matrix surrounding that tissue?
A)connective
B)muscle
C)epithelial
D)nervous
E)none of the above
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43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) A potassium ion gradient is set up in the Malpighian tubules through an active transport process.As a result,potassium concentration is higher in the lumen of the tubules than in hemolymph.How would the potassium gradient affect water movement?
A)Water would be forced out of the lumen of the Malpighian tubules through an osmotic gradient.
B)The potassium gradient would have no effect on water movement.
C)There would be a net movement of water into the lumen of the tubules.
D)Water would be conserved,forming a hypertonic solution in the Malpighian tubules.
Q2) Through studies on the Malpighian tubules,researchers found that K accumulated on the inner face of the tubule,against its concentration gradient.What can you infer about the mechanism of transport?
A)Potassium transport is a passive process.
B)Movement of potassium into the lumen of the Malpighian tubules is an energy-requiring process.
C)Potassium moves out of the tubules at a faster rate than it moves into the lumen of the tubules.
D)Sodium ions will follow potassium ions.
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) What is the importance of the mucins that are released by salivary glands?
A)They aid in degradation of triglycerides to fatty acids and monoglycerides.
B)They are beginning the process of starch digestion.
C)They are hormonal molecules that stimulate the release of gastric juice by the stomach in anticipation of receipt of the contents of the mouth.
D)They are glycoproteins that make food slippery enough to slide easily through the esophagus.
Q2) What is the importance of consuming an adequate amount of proteins in a diet?
A)They are most commonly used to meet cell energy demands.
B)Proteins serve a variety of functions,and the body does not store excess quantities of protein.
C)They are used as cofactors for metabolic reactions and are required in minute quantities.
D)Proteins are necessary to produce urea and other important metabolites.
Q3) Fangs,like those found in wolves,are designed to
A)grind and chew.
B)tear flesh.
C)swallow the prey whole.
D)filter feed.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) In what way does hemoglobin act as a buffer against changes in blood pH?
A)Subsequent binding of oxygen is drastically reduced after the first one is bound.
B)Hemoglobin binds some of the excess protons released by carbonic acid.
C)Hemoglobin produces protons or hydroxide ions as needed to alter the blood pH.
D)Hemoglobin removes excess protons from the red blood cells so that they can be excreted through the kidneys.
E)All of the above answers apply.
Q2) Insect trachea come in direct contact with the internal organs to which they deliver oxygen.What parameter of Fick's Law does this optimize?
A)A
B)K
C)P
D)D
Q3) Where does the blood within the pulmonary vein travel next?
A)alveolar capillaries
B)left atrium of the heart
C)right atrium of the heart
D)pulmonary artery
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following statements about action potentials is FALSE?
A)All action potentials for a given neuron are identical in magnitude.
B)All action potentials for a given neuron are identical in duration.
C)Action potentials are propagated down the length of the axon.
D)Movement of ions during the action potential occurs mostly through the sodium pump.
E)The frequency of action potentials,not their size,is the meaningful signal.
Q2) The Nernst equation specifies the equilibrium potential for a particular ion.This equilibrium potential is a function of
A)hydrostatic pressure.
B)ion concentration gradient.
C)osmotic gradient.
D)temperature (thermal)gradient.
E)both B and D
Q3) If twice as many inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)as excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)arrive at a postsynaptic neuron in close proximity,is the integration of signals by the postsynaptic neuron likely to produce an action potential?
A)yes
B)no
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A)to store and release ATP
B)to store and release ACh
C)to store and release Ca
D)to store and release myosin
E)to store and release troponin
Q2) Corneal surgery is now routinely performed to improve vision.This surgery
A)improves the circulation of nutrients to the eye.
B)improves the focusing of light onto the retina.
C)increases the amount of light entering the eye.
D)increases the sensitivity of the photoreceptors.
E)answers B and C both apply.
Q3) What is the function of sensory receptor cells?
A)to receive a signal from the environment
B)to transduce a signal from the environment
C)to integrate a signal from the environment
D)all of the above
E)A and B only
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) If a portion of the pancreas is surgically removed from a rat and the rat subsequently loses its appetite,one explanation is that the removed portion contains cells that secrete a chemical signal that somehow stimulates appetite.Given this scenario,what type of chemical signalling is occurring?
A)autocrine
B)paracrine
C)endocrine
D)neuroendocrine
Q2) The regulation of blood sugar levels and our stress responses are controlled in part by a negative feedback loop involving cortisol,ACTH,and CRH.What would likely be the result during times of stress if cortisol receptors in the hypothalamus were nonfunctional?
A)Blood sugar levels would rise to dangerous levels.
B)Blood sugar levels would be unaffected.
C)ACTH production would cease.
D)CRH production would cease.
E)Cortisol production would cease.
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) All vertebrates rely exclusively on sexual reproduction.
A)true
B)false
Q2) Why does external fertilization typically occur much more often in aquatic animals than in terrestrial animals?
A)The gametes are hydrophobic,so they must be suspended in water to avoid clumping.
B)The gametes must be produced in large numbers,which can occur only in aquatic environments.
C)The gametes must be kept wet to avoid desiccation.
D)All of the above answers apply.
E)None of the above answers apply.
Q3) Which of the following structures in females is analogous in function to the vas deferens in males?
A)urethra
B)oviduct
C)uterus
D)cervix
E)vagina
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is a difference between B cells and T cells?
A)One has a major role in antibody production,while the other has a major role in cytotoxicity.
B)One uses a receptor called BCR,while the other recognizes a receptor called TCR.
C)One is activated by membrane bound antigens,while the other is activated by free-floating antigens in blood or lymph.
D)All of the above are differences.
E)Only A and B are differences.
Q2) Which of the following is the best definition of autoimmune disease?
A)a condition in which B cells and T cells respond independently to antigens and do not interact correctly
B)a condition in which the acquired immune system fails to recognize the second infection by the same antigen
C)a condition in which a molecule belonging to the host is treated like an antigen and triggers an immune response
D)a condition in which the immune system creates random antibodies without being triggered by an antigen
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) If the Earth were to reorient such that the North Pole always received direct sunlight (always faced the Sun),how would that change Earth's climate?
A)The equators would not change in climate.
B)The South Pole would get colder.
C)The equators would get warmer.
D)The North Pole would get more wind.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding turnover is true?
A)In fall turnover,dense water at 4°C sinks and disturbs sediments in the benthic zone.
B)In fall turnover,dense water at 4°C rises and disturbs sediments in the benthic zone.
C)The surface water gets to 4°C only by cooling.
D)Fall turnovers and spring turnovers are exactly the same.
Q3) On Earth,the general trend is that with decreasing latitude and increased solar radiation,there is ________ produced by photosynthesis (by plants,etc).
A)an increase in biodiversity because of increased oxygen supplies
B)a decrease in biodiversity because of increased oxygen supplies
C)an increase in biodiversity because of increased biomass (food)
D)a decrease in biodiversity because of increased biomass (food)
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Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
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Q1) You observe scrub jays hiding food and notice that one particular individual only pretends to hide food.Your experiments associate the presence of other siblings with the frequency of pretending to cache food.A colleague shows you animals of the same species that do not perform this pretend caching.How does this information affect your conclusions about this behaviour?
A)It suggests that this behaviour might be learned.
B)It prevents you from making conclusions.
C)It suggests that your experimental design is flawed.
D)It does not affect anything.
Q2) In the diagrams shown in the figure above,which dance is indicating that the food is the farthest from the hive?
A)dance A
B)dance B
C)dance C
D)All of the above indicate the same distance from the hive.
Q3) Lobsters can navigate back home at night using Earth's magnetic field.Is this statement a proximate cause or an ultimate cause?
A)proximate cause
B)ultimate cause
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) A model that estimates the likelihood that a population will avoid extinction for a given period of time is called a(n)
A)metapopulation.
B)population viability analysis.
C)age pyramid.
D)life table.
Q2) The white rhinoceros is large [more than 1 000 kg (2 200 lb)],has a herbivorous diet and lives in the open grasslands and savannahs on the African continent.They require a lot of food (~80 kg)and water (80 L)each day to survive.Given this information you would expect (predict)these rhinoceros to exhibit
A)a high population density and short generation time.
B)a high population density and long generation time.
C)a low population density and short generation time.
D)a low population density and long generation time.
Q3) If 60 snow geese were alive in 1926 and 856 existed in 2001,what is r?
A)0)070
B)0)035
C)0)094
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54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Figure 53.11,a species has the highest chance of extinction when
A)the island is large and close to the mainland.
B)the island is small and close to the mainland.
C)the island is large and remote.
D)the island is small and remote.
Q2) What is the main difference between asymmetric competition and symmetric competition?
A)One species is outcompeted completely in asymmetric competition.
B)Competition is barely measurable in symmetric competition.
C)The fitness reduction is roughly equal between each species in symmetric competition.
D)None of the above answers applies.
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of a mutualism?
A)fungi residing in plant roots,such as endomycorrhizae
B)bacteria fixing nitrogen in plants
C)rancher ants that protect aphids in exchange for sugar-rich honeydew
D)birds eating insects jumping out of the path of army ants
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) What is the leading hypothesis as to why terrestrial productivity is higher in equatorial climates?
A)Productivity increases with temperature.
B)Productivity increases with water availability.
C)Productivity increases with available sunlight.
D)Hypothesis is most likely a combination of the other answers.
Q2) How much nitrogen is fixed from human processes?
A)It is equal to the amount fixed by natural means.
B)It is about half that fixed by natural means.
C)It is about double that fixed by natural means.
D)We cannot calculate this value.
Q3) If plants in a northern temperate area use 26,400 kcal/m² of energy from solar radiation in photosynthesis,and the total amount of solar radiation energy reaching that area is 2,640,000 kcal/m²,what is the overall gross photosynthetic efficiency?
A)0)01%
B)0)1%
C)1%
D)100%
Q4) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy?
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In looking at the figure above,what can be said about edge effects?
A)Biomass declines sharply along edges of forest fragments.
B)Biomass increases along the edges of forest fragments.
C)Species diversity decreases along the edges of forest fragments.
D)Fragmentation does not affect biomass.
Q2) Which one of the following is likely not a hotspot for birds?
A)Amazon River basin
B)East Africa
C)Southwest China
D)Southwest United States
Q3) By knowing the interrelatedness of various snake species,the type of antivenom can be chosen depending on the species involved in the bite.Based on Figure 55.2,which snake antivenom would you administer to a person bitten by an Australian copperhead?
A)taipan
B)common brown snake
C)red-bellied black snake
D)death adder
E)tiger snake
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