
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles of living systems, exploring topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. This course examines the molecular and cellular basis of life, the mechanisms of heredity, and the processes that drive the adaptation and survival of organisms. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory experiences, students gain a foundational understanding of biological concepts and their relevance to modern scientific challenges and everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Q1) How did the control group differ from the experimental group in the butterfly experiment?
A) They were different species.
B) Their native habitat of the forest differed.
C) They were spotless and soundless.
D) They tasted worse.
E) They preferred different flowers species.
Answer: C
Q2) A control group
A) receives the same treatment as the experimental group.
B) is an untreated group of individuals or subjects.
C) is sometimes exposed to harsh conditions.
D) is often an unnecessary waste of material.
E) is not subjected to experimental error.
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT strongly associated with the word "acid"?
A) excess hydrogen ions
B) magnesium hydroxide
C) contents of the stomach
D) HCl
E) pH less than 7
Answer: B
Q2) Atomic isotopes
A) are electrically unbalanced.
B) behave the same chemically and physically but differ biologically from other isotopes.
C) are the same physically and biologically but differ from other isotopes chemically.
D) have varying numbers of neutrons.
E) are produced when substances are exposed to radiation.
Answer: D
Q3) the two units that combine in various ways to form lipids
Answer: J
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Q1) The type of junction that connects microfilaments inside the cell to the ECM outside the cell are
A) tight junctions.
B) adhering junctions.
C) gap junctions.
D) plasmodesmata.
E) both gap junctions and tight junctions.
Answer: B
Q2) If you could stick a microscopic pin into the center of a bacterium,what would the order of the structures you would encounter from the outside in?
A) capsule, cell wall, plasma membrane, cytoplasm
B) cell wall, capsule, plasma membrane, cytoplasm
C) plasma membrane, cell wall, capsule, cytoplasm
D) cell wall, plasma membrane, capsule, cytoplasm
E) capsule, plasma membrane, cell wall, cytoplasm
Answer: A
Q3) cytoplasm

Answer: E
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Q1) Which of the following statements is CORRECT about enzymes?
A) Most enzymes are proteins.
B) Enzymes speed up reactions that are intended to happen anyway.
C) Enzymes do not change the output of a reaction.
D) Enzymes can perform over and over.
E) All of these are correct.
Q2) What is the most likely source of various hangover symptoms?
A) acetate
B) acetaldehyde
C) ethanol
D) alcohol dehydrogenase
E) carbon dioxide
Q3) An orderly sequence of reactions with specific enzyme-mediated reactions occurring at each step is the definition of
A) energy carriers.
B) metabolic pathways.
C) the induced-fit model.
D) intermediary compounds.
E) activation.
Q4) minimum amount of energy required to start a reaction
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Q1) Deep in the ocean where there is no light,some bacteria can use the energy of chemicals to make carbohydrates.Animals,such as tube worms,derive their carbohydrates from consuming those chemosynthetic bacteria.Given these facts,a tube worm would be considered to be a(n)____,whereas the bacteria would be a(n)____.
A) producer; consumer
B) autotroph; heterotroph
C) prokaryote; eukaryote
D) heterotroph; autotroph
E) decomposer; producer
Q2) For six molecules of carbon dioxide fixed in the light-independent reaction,how many molecules of PGA are produced?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 12
E) 18
Q3) pathway used by white muscle fibers
Q4) light
Q5) light-dependent reactions
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Q1) Which of the following is one of Chargaff's rules about DNA structure?
A) phosphate groups are connected to sugars by covalent bonds
B) base pairs connect to each other by hydrogen bonds
C) the amounts of adenine and thymine are the same as are the amounts of cytosine and guanine
D) the DNA molecule forms into a double helix
E) the strands in a DNA molecule run in opposite directions
Q2) What happens first in DNA replication?
A) the DNA molecule unwinds
B) DNA polymerase brings new nucleotides to the old DNA strand
C) DNA ligase activity begins
D) hydrogen bonds are broken
E) none of these things happen first
Q3) Rosalind Franklin's research contribution was essential in
A) establishing the single-stranded nature of DNA.
B) establishing the principle of base pairing.
C) establishing most of the principal structural features of DNA.
D) sequencing DNA molecules.
E) determining the bonding energy of DNA molecules.
Q4) this mutagen has wavelengths of less than 320 nanometers
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Q1) Which of the following carries amino acids to ribosomes?
A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) hnRNA
D) rRNA
E) all of these
Q2) In protein synthesis,RNA synthesis is also called
A) transcription
B) translation
C) transformation
D) transmutation
E) transsubstantiation
Q3) Four of the five answers listed below are related to translation.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) RNA polymerase
B) mRNA
C) tRNA
D) ribosome
E) amino acid
Q4) complex with proteins to form ribosomes
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Q1) The chromosomes are moving to opposite sides of the cell during A) anaphase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.
Q2) All of these terms refer in some way to sex cells except A) gametes.
B) germ cells.
C) haploid cells.
D) zygotes.
E) there is no exception; all of these terms refer to sex cells in some way.
Q3) Sister chromatids detach from one another and become visibly separate chromosomes during A) anaphase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.
Q4) the beginning of interphase

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Q1) In the example above,what is the probability that this couple will have a normal child?
A) 0
B) 1/4
C) 1/3
D) 2/3
E) 1/2
Q2) In incomplete dominance,
A) one allele is not dominant to another allele.
B) the genotype can be determined by the phenotype.
C) the heterozygote is somewhat intermediate to the two homozygotes.
D) the intermediate phenotype may be the result of enzyme insufficiency.
E) all of these are true.
Q3) Mendel's dihybrid crosses (but not his monohybrid crosses)showed that A) some genes were linked together.
B) the two alleles controlling a trait were divided equally among the gametes.
C) alleles for different traits were inherited independently.
D) one of the pair of alleles is dominant to the other.
E) the crossing of two different homozygous forms will not produce any offspring in the first generation that would look like either of the parents.
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Q1) Which of the following organisms is used in the genetic engineering of plants?
A) E. coli
B) T. aquaticus
C) A. tumefaciens
D) P. flourescens
E) B. thuringiensis
Q2) What organ system is affected in SCIDs?
A) digestive
B) immune
C) reproductive
D) nervous
E) cardiovascular
Q3) What is a transgenic organism?
A) an organism with multiple copies of the same gene
B) an organism that has genes from another species
C) an organism that does not use DNA to specify proteins
D) an organism that has had its entire genome sequenced
E) an organism that has been DNA profiled
Q4) method that rapidly generates many copies of a specific DNA fragment
Q5) an individual's unique array of short tandem repeats
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Q1) bees and butterflies appear
Q2) What is the correct order of land mass formation starting with the oldest and moving towards the most recent?
A)Pangaea ????? Gondwana ????? Earth's crust
B)Earth's crust ????? Pangaea ????? Gondwana
C)Earth's crust ????? Gondwana ????? Pangaea
D)Gondwana ????? Earth's crust ????? Pangaea
E)Pangaea ????? Earth's crust ????? Gondwana
Q3) Which of the following animals did Darwin study that helped form his ideas on evolution?
A) dogs
B) armadillos
C) glyptodons
D) finches
E) all of these were animals Darwin studied
Q4) mineral which is found in asteroids and the K-T boundary layer
Q5) Malthus
Q6) half life is 5,370 years
Q7) trilobites evolved
Q8) modern humans evolve
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Q1) When individuals choose mates are a particular trait they desire it is called
A) stabilizing selection.
B) sexual selection.
C) artificial selection.
D) Red Queen selection.
E) disruptive selection.
Q2) What organic compound was widely used as a rat poison until 1980?
A) warfarin
B) amygdalin
C) linamarin
D) cyanide
E) myristicin
Q3) lineage that rapidly diversifies into several new species
Q4) Which type of reproductive isolation mechanism is most closely related to allopatric speciation?
A) temporal
B) mechanical
C) behavioral
D) ecological
E) genetic

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Q1) Bacteria can exchange genes with other bacteria by a method called
A) binary fission.
B) meiotic recombination.
C) conjugation.
D) translation.
E) compilation.
Q2) Which of the following obtain both energy and carbon from organic compounds?
A) photoautotrophs
B) chemoautotrophs
C) photoheterotrophs
D) chemoheterotrophs
E) more than one of these
Q3) What was the basic problem with the Miller-Urey early atmosphere experiments?
A) there was no lightning on the early Earth
B) there was no hydrogen gas in Earth's early atmosphere
C) they used oxygen gas which was not present in Earth's early atmosphere
D) the mixture of gases they used was not representative of Earth's early atmosphere
E) more than one of these is correct
Q4) weapon used against pathogenic bacteria
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Q1) In flowering plants,pollen grains form in the flower's male parts called
A) stamens.
B) anthers.
C) carpels.
D) megaspores.
E) endosperms.
Q2) Air pollution researchers use which of the following fungi to help them monitor air pollution levels?
A) mycorrhizal fungi
B) mushrooms
C) yeast
D) lichens
E) rust fungi
Q3) The oldest fossils discovered of fungi date back to ___ million years.
A) 5
B) 50
C) 500
D) 5000
E) 500,000
Q4) equisetum; homosporous; rhizomes present; aerial stems joined
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Q1) Which of the following allowed for evolutionary innovations in body form?
A) bilateral symmetry
B) segmentation
C) coelomate evolution
D) ectoderm development
E) gastrovascular cavities
Q2) Which of the following was the most likely food source for first terrestrial tetrapods?
A) leaves
B) insects
C) small mammals
D) worms
E) eggs
Q3) This animal has a small coelom,soft unsegmented body,and a radula.This animal is ___.
A) a slug
B) a leech
C) a scallop
D) an earthworm
E) more than one of these
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Q1) To a person studying utilization of classroom space on campus,the most useful data concerning students in a classroom would be expressed by the number of
A) total individuals.
B) individuals per square meter.
C) individuals per room.
D) rooms per building.
E) students of each age.
Q2) the United States has the biggest one of these
Q3) Elephants,humans,and dogs all fit into this model
Q4) Limiting factors
A) produce more pronounced effects as a population grows.
B) prevent a population from producing a J-shaped curve.
C) can be either density-dependent or density-independent.
D) act together in concert to form the environmental resistance to population growth.
E) have all of these characteristics.
Q5) the number of organisms of a particular population in a given area
Q6) Pandemics are examples of this
Q7) A harsh winter is an example of this.
Q8) the birth rate minus the death rate
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Q1) Which of the following pollutants is associated with thyroid cancer?
A) nitrate
B) nitrous oxide
C) ammonia
D) phosphate
E) more than one of these
Q2) primary consumer
Q3) Secondary succession can occur
A) after a fire.
B) on a new sand dune.
C) on bare rock.
D) immediately after the formation of a manmade lake.
E) on a glacier.
Q4) Resource partitioning is the result of
A) parasitism.
B) mutualism.
C) competition.
D) predation.
E) commensalism.
Q5) an earthworm

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Q1) Nonrenewable mineral resources are used in which of the following electronic devices?
A) phones
B) computers
C) televisions
D) MP3 players
E) nonrenewable mineral resources are used in all of these electronic devices
Q2) Which of the following factors affects global climate change?
A) shifts in Earth's orbit
B) changes in the tilt of Earth's axis
C) changes in solar output
D) human caused increases in greenhouse gases
E) all of these factors affect global climate change
Q3) Which term refers to a species that evolved in area and still resides that area?
A) invasive
B) endemic
C) endangered
D) exotic
E) persistent
Q4) main producers are dinoflagellates
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Q1) A stem cell is a cell that
A) can differentiate into specialized cell types.
B) has already differentiated.
C) can develop into two or three cell types.
D) can only develop into skin cells.
E) can only develop into bone cells.
Q2) Which tissue type attaches to bones and is responsible for producing body movements?
A) skeletal muscle
B) neural
C) epithelial
D) smooth muscle
E) connective
Q3) Which tissue type allows the body to detect and respond to internal and external changes?
A) nervous
B) adipose
C) epithelial
D) connective
E) skeletal muscle
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Q1) Synthetic versions of muscle-building hormones are also known as ___ hormones.
A) anabolic
B) catabolic
C) metabolic
D) bully
E) nutritional
Q2) the protein to which ATP attaches
Q3) Which of the following human bones is not necessary for normal functioning?
A) tibia
B) ulna
C) radius
D) fibula
E) more than one of these bones is not necessary for normal functioning
Q4) When you bring your hand to your shoulder,your biceps muscle ___ and your triceps muscle ___.
A) contracts---relaxes
B) relaxes---contracts
C) contracts---contracts
D) relaxes---relaxes
E) lengthens---shortens
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Q1) When you are lifting weights,the arterioles servicing your biceps are
A) constricted.
B) dilated.
C) supplying less blood.
D) shut down.
E) doing more than one of these.
Q2) Most carbon dioxide is carried in blood as ___ which is formed in ___.
A) carbonic acid...the plasma
B) the bicarbonate ion...red blood cells
C) carbon dioxide...hemoglobin
D) carbon dioxide...red blood cells
E) the bicarbonate ion...the plasma
Q3) Which of the following structures of the human heart contains oxygen-rich blood?
A) right atrium
B) right ventricle
C) pulmonary artery
D) aorta
E) more than one of these structures of the human heart contains oxygen-rich blood.
Q4) the windpipe
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Q1) When an infection occurs by the same pathogen,the immune response is more rapid the next time around thanks to
A) effector cells.
B) memory cells.
C) naive T cells.
D) neutrophils.
E) eosinophils.
Q2) Precancerous cervical cells can be detected by
A) routine Pap smears.
B) self-examination.
C) a series of blood tests.
D) x-ray examinations.
E) ultra-sound.
Q3) Gardasil HPV vaccine consists of
A) viral capsid proteins that assemble into virus like particles (VLPs).
B) inactivated HPV.
C) synthetic HPV.
D) antibodies from infected patients.
E) none of these.
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Q1) coenzyme action in carbohydrate and amino acid metabolism
Q2) Which of the following foods provide a complete complement of amino acids?
A) beans
B) rice
C) corn
D) corn and beans
E) beans and rice
Q3) Which of the following is true of vitamins?
A) they are inorganic substances needed in small amounts
B) fat-soluble vitamins include C and B vitamins
C) they are stored in body fat
D) large amounts of vitamin K during pregnancy can cause birth defects
E) taking large amounts of vitamin D can cause death
Q4) "Blood pressure forces fluid out of capillaries and into the entrance to a kidney tubule." This is a description of
A) filtration.
B) reabsorption.
C) secretion.
D) elimination.
E) excretion.

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Q1) This area of the retina has the most photoreceptors and is relatively free of blood vessels.This area of the retina is the A) cornea.
B) optic disk.
C) fovea.
D) sclera.
E) choroid.
Q2) The order of signal transmission beginning with a stimulus is from
A) sensory neuron to interneuron to motor neuron.
B) motor neuron to sensory neuron to interneuron.
C) interneuron to sensory neuron to motor neuron.
D) sensory neuron to motor neuron to interneuron.
E) motor neuron to interneuron to sensory neuron.
Q3) The shortage of the neurotransmitter that causes Parkinson's disease occurs in the region of the brain that controls
A) memory.
B) motor function.
C) comprehension.
D) sensory perception.
E) hearing.
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Q1) Which of the following hormones is NOT produced in ovaries?
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) testosterone
D) all of these are produced in the ovaries
E) more than one of these is NOT produced in the ovaries
Q2) posterior lobe of pituitary
Q3) The important feature of all cells that react to a specific hormone is (are)the
A) type of blood supply they receive.
B) proximity of the endocrine gland.
C) presence of an appropriate receptor molecule.
D) characteristics of their plasma membranes.
E) presence of specific genes responsive to the hormone.
Q4) anterior lobe of pituitary
Q5) Insulin stimulates
A) muscle and fat cells to take up glucose.
B) increased levels of glucose in the blood.
C) a decrease in muscle cell activity.
D) an increase in exercise.
E) liver cells to release glycogen.
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Q1) The birth control pill is a mixture of synthetic
A) testosterone and estrogens.
B) progesterone and estrogens.
C) LH and FSH.
D) LH and estrogens.
E) compounds of all of these.
Q2) In humans,the fluid immediately surrounding the embryo is contained in the A) allantois.
B) placenta.
C) chorion.
D) amnion.
E) yolk sac.
Q3) Shortly after fertilization,successive cell divisions convert the zygote into a multicellular embryo during a process known as A) meiosis.
B) parthenogenesis.
C) gastrulation.
D) cleavage.
E) blastulation.
Q4) secreted by the hypothalamus,this hormone stimulates the release of LH and FSH
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Q1) pericycle
Q2) From the outside to the inside,which is the correct order of tissues in a eudicot root?
A) epidermis>>cortex>>endodermis>>vascular tissue
B) epidermis>>endodermis>>vascular tissue>>cortex
C) endodermis>>cortex>>epidermis>>vascular tissue
D) epidermis>>vascular tissue>>endodermis>>cortex
E) endodermis>>epidermis>>cortex>>vascular tissue
Q3) The chewy,stringy supporting strands in celery are which cells?
A) xylem
B) collenchyma
C) phloem
D) sclerenchyma
E) parenchyma
Q4) vascular tissue that conducts water and dissolved salts throughout a plant
Q5) apical meristem
Q6) also known as runners
Q7) vascular tissue that conducts and distributes food to plant cells
Q8) This tissue is for pliable support.
Q9) leaves wrap around the stem
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Q1) How many varieties of apples account for 90% of the apples sold in U.S.grocery stores?
A) 5
B) 15
C) 25
D) 50
E) 150
Q2) Four of the five answers listed below are parts of a germinating seed.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) ovary
B) cotyledon
C) embryo
D) coat
E) endosperm
Q3) In eudicots,endosperm
A) consists mainly of glucose and water.
B) is consumed by the embryo as the seed develops.
C) is transferred to the cotyledons.
D) is largely unused as the seed develops.
E) matures into a fruit.
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