Introduction to Biology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles that govern living organisms and their environments. Covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and biological diversity, this course lays the groundwork for understanding the scientific methods used in biological research. Students will gain insight into the interconnectedness of life, the processes that sustain organisms, and the role of biology in addressing real-world problems, preparing them for advanced studies in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Concepts and Investigations 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Scientific Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that prokaryotes
A) have a nucleus in their cells, while eukaryotes do not.
B) do not have a nucleus in their cells, though eukaryotes do.
C) do not have DNA, as eukaryotes do.
D) have cell walls, while eukaryotes do not.
Answer: B
Q2) Charles Darwin observed an orchid flower with very long,thin tubes that prevent many species from feeding on flower nectar and pollinating the flower.He offered a prediction that some species of pollinator would eventually be found that can feed and pollinate through the small tube.You decide to test Charles Darwin's proposal by placing nets over some orchids that allow small pollinators to enter,but prevent the large sphinx moth from entering.You then compare the number of seeds produced by plants with and without the nets.The seed production is
A) a theory.
B) a dependent variable.
C) an independent variable.
D) a standardized variable.
E) a hypothesis.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In living cells,a process by which cells break polymers down into monomers by breaking covalent bonds is
A) hydrolysis.
B) dehydration synthesis.
C) reproduction.
D) All of the answer choices are correct.
Answer: A
Q2) Cohesion is a property of water in which water molecules tend to stick together.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A conscientious person habitually reads nutrition labels on food packages for weight watching and general health.The main nutritional molecules are made up of A) buffers.
B) trace elements.
C) isotopes.
D) bulk elements.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the largest distinction between the theory of spontaneous generation and the cell theory.
A) Spontaneous generation can be observed with the microscope, while cell theory is newer and has not yet been proven.
B) Spontaneous generation only happens with animalcules and germs, while cell theory applies to other, more complex organisms.
C) Spontaneous generation proposes life can form from available molecule components, while cell theory explains cell reproduction functions.
D) Spontaneous generation is found in organisms that don't have cells, while cell theory happens in organisms that do have cells.
Answer: C
Q2) In muscle contraction,____ and myosin filaments slide across each other.
A) flagella
B) actin
C) tubulin
D) cilia
E) intermediate filaments
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first and second laws of thermodynamics apply to nonliving systems like gasoline engines but do not apply to reactions in living cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The process of phosphorylation
A) adds a phosphate group to a molecule.
B) removes a phosphate group from a molecule.
C) may change the shape of the target molecule.
D) All of the answer choices are correct.
E) may energize the target molecule.
Q3) CFTR moves chloride ions out of cells by active transport.What can be inferred from this statement?
A) Normal initial chloride concentrations are lower on the inside of the cell.
B) Normal resulting chloride concentrations are higher on the outside of the cell.
C) CFTR functions as the cystic fibers attach to and pull chlorides through holes in the membrane.
D) Water will also cross the membrane, with the chlorides, through the CFTR proteins.
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The sea slug Elysia chlorotica is a(n)
A) heterotrophic plant.
B) heterotrophic animal.
C) heterotrophic protist.
D) autotrophic plant.
E) autotrophic protist.
Q2) The energy sources needed for the light reactions and the carbon reactions respectively are
A) sunlight and ATP.
B) sunlight and carbon dioxide.
C) ATP and carbon dioxide.
D) Sunlight serves as the energy source for both sets of photosynthetic reactions.
E) ATP and sunlight.
Q3) The main organic molecule product of the carbon reactions is
A) NADPH.
B) a carbohydrate.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) ATP.
E) oxygen.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Q1) Anaerobic respiration uses oxygen as its final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sole source of ATP production in cells using fermentation only is
A) photosynthesis.
B) Krebs cycle.
C) the Calvin cycle.
D) electron transport.
E) glycolysis.
Q3) What did scientists conclude from the data shown in this figure?
A) Active beetles saved energy at higher temperatures.
B) Generating heat led to increased pollination of Philodendron flowers by beetles.
C) Active beetles saved energy at lower temperatures.
D) Resting beetles saved energy at lower temperatures.
E) Resting beetles saved energy at higher temperatures.
Q4) Proteins in your diet can be used as input to the cellular respiration pathways.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Q1) A somatic mutation is a mutation that occurs in cells that give rise to gametes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The scientist (scientists)who used X-ray diffraction to help reveal the geometric structure of DNA is (are)
A) Wilkins and Franklin.
B) Avery and Macleod.
C) Watson and Crick.
D) Chargaff.
E) Hershey and Chase.
Q3) The DNA subunits that form the "rungs" joining the two sides of the DNA molecule are formed by
A) hydrogen bonds between nitrogen base pairs.
B) covalent bonds between nitrogen base pairs.
C) phosphodiester bonds between the deoxyribose sugars.
D) ionic bonds between the phosphate pairs.
Q4) The type of RNA that delivers amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis is tRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication, mitosis, and the Cell Cycle
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Q1) Why does a replication fork have a leading and lagging strand?
A) because DNA synthesis always goes from 5' to 3'
B) because DNA polymerase only attaches nucleotides to the 3' end of strands
C) because DNA synthesis can grow off of either the 3' or 5' end
D) because DNA synthesis always goes from 3' to 5'
E) Both answers, with DNA synthesis proceeding from 5' to 3', and DNA polymerase only acting on the 3' end, are correct.
Q2) The complement strands of DNA have the same exact nitrogen base sequence,providing the semiconservative replication needed by cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The building block of nucleic acids is a(n)
A) glucose molecule.
B) None of the answer choices are correct.
C) nucleotide.
D) glycerol molecule.
E) amino acid.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Q1) The chromosome content of most human cells does not include
A) a pair of non-homologous X and Y chromosomes (in males).
B) 2 pairs of sex chromosomes.
C) 23 pairs of chromosomes.
D) a pair of homologous X chromosomes (in females).
E) 22 pairs of autosomes.
Q2) A male having an extra X chromosome (XXY)would have Turner syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In plants,haploid gametophytes produce gametes by A) non-disjunction.
B) mitosis.
C) meiosis.
D) sporulation.
E) fertilization.
Q4) Without genetic diversity,a population might more easily fall victim to parasites and pathogens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Genotype means
A) the number of chromosomes in an individual.
B) the observable expression of the genes in an individual.
C) the genes an individual has.
D) the number of gametes in an individual.
E) the combination of alleles in an individual.
Q2) In this figure,the genotype of the resistant parental bollworms is ___ while the susceptible parental bollworms have a ___ genotype.
A) rr; RR
B) Rr; rr
C) RR; rr
D) RR; Rr
E) Rr; RR
Q3) What did the researchers conclude from the data shown in the figure?
A) Resistance to Bt toxin is dominant.
B) Resistance to Bt toxin is recessive.
C) The size of larvae is dependent on treatment with Bt toxin.
D) Resistance to Bt toxin is not genetic.
E) The number of larvae is dependent on treatment with Bt toxin.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Q1) The larges difference in chromosomes found between humans and chromosomes,at (human)chromosome 2,is hypothesized to be
A) an evolutionary selection that merged two chromosomes in humans after evolving from a common ancestor with other primates.
B) the result of the specific family lineage of the chimpanzee, Clint, who provided the DNA and chromosome samples for study.
C) the only genetic difference that prevents humans and chimpanzees from closer resemblence, behaviors, and communication.
D) a widely divergent set of genes found in the human chromosome 2, that is not found in the shorter chimpanzee chromosomes.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) The first organism (organisms)to have been produced as transgenic organisms was (were)
A) eukaryotic yeasts.
B) agricultural plants.
C) viruses.
D) bacteria.
E) Dolly the cloned sheep.
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Chapter 12: The Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Q1) What did the researchers conclude based on the data shown in figure (b)?
A) Harvesting fish in a slot limit led to an increase in average size over time.
B) Harvesting larger fish led to a decrease in average size over time.
C) Harvesting fish in a slot limit led to a decrease in average size over time.
D) Harvesting larger fish led to an increase in average size over time.
E) Harvesting fish randomly led to an increase in average size over time.
Q2) Since the conditions needed for the Hardy-Weinberg principle do not occur in real populations,this principle has no importance in population studies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The relatively short-term changes in allele frequencies within a population is A) fitness.
B) adaptation.
C) microevolution.
D) convergent evolution.
E) natural selection.
Q4) Evolution does answer the question as to how life originally began.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) Najash is an extinct fossil species that has distinct functional pelvis and hindlimbs.Choose the best answer which explains this in evolutionary theory.theory?
A) Najash was an evolutionary dead end, since no other snake species have anything but vestigial structures.
B) Najash is both a transitional species, and shares homologous structures with other vertebrates, such as reptiles.
C) Najash is a transitional species, that has not yet lost its pelvis and hindlimbs.
D) Najash hindlimbs and pelvis bones represent vestigial structures in that species.
E) Najash shares homologous features with other vertebrates, such as reptiles.
Q2) The abundant remains of ammonites in Oklahoma indicate that Oklahoma was
A) once covered by a shallow ocean.
B) part of a vast tropical forest.
C) once a part of a mountain range that has now eroded.
D) once a vast desert with almost no rainfall.
E) always a semi-arid grassland.
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15
Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of reproductive isolation in which two populations live in the same habitat but remain isolated from one another due to one being active during the daytime only and the other being active only during the night is
A) mechanical isolation.
B) temporal isolation.
C) behavioral isolation.
D) sexual selection.
E) gametic isolation.
Q2) Formation of a tetraploid plant from two different diploid parental species of plants is an example of ____ speciation.
A) postzygotic
B) prezygotic
C) sympatric
D) parapatric
E) allopatric
Q3) A biological species is defined as a population whose members can interbreed.
A)True
B)False
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16
Chapter 15: The Origin and History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to endosymbiosis theory,host archaea engulfed ___,which then allowed both popopulations to survive together.
A) anaerobic bacteria
B) aerobic archaea
C) photosynthetic archaea
D) aerobic bacteria
E) photosynthetic bacteria
Q2) Which of the following did not occur during Precambrian time?
A) photosynthesis evolved
B) eukaryotes arose
C) O<sub>2</sub> accumulated in the Earth's atmosphere
D) life originated
E) ancestors of all modern animals appeared
Q3) The coding region of chimpanzee genes and human genes are 99% identical.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Natural selection would have favored progenotes that could use more diverse food sources.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stage of viral replication in which the host cell produces viral nucleic acids and proteins is
A) attachment.
B) release.
C) penetration.
D) assembly.
E) synthesis.
Q2) Poliomyelitis is an RNA virus that can invade the nervous system and cause paralysis within a matter of hours.The nearly complete elimination of polio worldwide is due to A) quarantine.
B) vaccination.
C) antibiotics.
D) mosquito control.
E) improved water quality.
Q3) Most scientific evidence points to the HIV viruses originating in Africa.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Methicillin is a medicine that inhibits cell wall production.Why does this make it a suitable antibiotic for eliminating bacterial infections in humans?
A) Human cells and bacterial cells are completely different, so methicillin does not affect human cells.
B) The cell wall of human cells is not sensitive to methicillin.
C) All humans have a gene giving methicillin resistance.
D) Human cells do not have cell walls.
E) Human cells have a plasma membrane in addition to the cell wall that allows them to survive in the presence of methicillin.
Q2) Escherichia coli and Salmonella can remain in one location in our intestines.They would most likely contain which of the following?
A) cilia
B) pili
C) glycocalyx
D) flagella
E) spirochetes
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19
Chapter 18: Protists
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Q1) Entamoeba histolytica can cause amoebic dysentery.It moves using pseudopodia,can only feed by phagocytosis,and is unicellular.Entamoeba histolytica is which of the following?
A) a slime mold
B) an apicomplexan
C) a diatom
D) a protozoan
E) an alga
Q2) Trichonympha is a unicellular flagellated protist that lives within termites and allows the termite to be able to "digest" wood.Trichonympha is which of the following?
A) an alga
B) an apicomplexan
C) a slime mold
D) a protozoan
E) a diatom
Q3) Protists can be heterotrophs.
A)True
B)False
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20
Chapter 19: Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gaseous hormone produced by plants that helps control fruit ripening is A) dextrose.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) chlorophyll.
D) ethylene.
E) carotene.
Q2) The fruits of plants primarily function in
A) Both seed protection and seed dispersal are correct.
B) providing food for animals.
C) Both providing food for animals and seed protection are correct.
D) seed dispersal.
E) seed protection.
Q3) The adaptations that are most responsible for gymnosperms and angiosperms being able to live and reproduce in much drier habitats than bryophytes and plants such as club mosses are the production of
A) seeds, spores, and fronds.
B) All of the answer choices are correct.
C) spores and gemmae.
D) vascular tissue, spores, fronds, and gemmae.
E) pollen grains and seeds.
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Chapter 20: Fungi
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Q1) The leaf-cutter ants of Central America use leaves as food to cultivate the basidiomycete Lepiota in special underground chambers.Streptomyces bacteria coat parts of the ants' cuticles and secrete a potent antibiotic that kills an ascomycete that attacks the cultivated fungus.What ecological relationship exists between Lepiota and the ants?
A) predation
B) mutualism
C) parasitism
D) commensalism
E) interspecific competition
Q2) The main nutrient storage molecule in fungi is
A) glucose, a monosaccharide.
B) glycogen, a carbohydrate.
C) cellulose, a carbohydrate.
D) starch, a polysaccharide.
E) chitin, a carbohydrate.
Q3) A yeast is a multicellular fungus.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Animals
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Q1) If an animal is an invertebrate,this means that the animal
A) does not have a complete digestive tract.
B) has a backbone.
C) does not have a backbone.
D) does not have true tissues.
E) has a complete digestive tract.
Q2) Pinworms and hookworms belong to the phylum containing the A) Flatworms.
B) Cnidarians.
C) Sponges.
D) Nematodes.
E) Annelids.
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the echinoderms?
A) They have bilateral symmetry in larvae.
B) They exhibit cephalization.
C) They have spiny skin.
D) They have radial symmetry in adults.
E) They have a complete digestive tract.
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Chapter 22: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) When preparing slides to look at mitosis,the tips of onion roots are a good source.This is because the tip of the root is which of the following?
A) endodermis
B) apical meristem
C) dermal tissue
D) vascular tissue
E) pericycle
Q2) The main phloem conducting cells are
A) companion cells.
B) tracheids.
C) sieve tube elements.
D) stomata.
E) vessel elements.
Q3) Cuticle is
A) the structure that is built up around guard cells, for opening the stomata.
B) a waxy layer on the epidermis, for conserving water.
C) None of these answer options are correct.
D) the name of the organic molecules that flow through the xylem.
E) the tough, complex molecule that forms secondary, rigid cell walls in sclerenchyma cells.
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Chapter 23: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Water is pulled from a plant's roots to its leaves by transpiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to pressure-flow theory,how does sap move from the sieve tube into a sink?
A) osmosis of the dissolved sugars across the sieve tube and the sink plasma membranes
B) a positive pump pressure
C) gravitational action as phloem moves down from the source
D) active membrane transport through the plasma membranes
E) a negative pump pressure
Q3) What is the cost of being a carnivorous plant?
A) reduced mobility
B) reduced respiration
C) reduced photosynthesis
D) reduced nutrients
E) reduced water
Q4) The cohesion-tension theory explains how water moves within a plant.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Q1) A seed is an embryo and its food supply is inside a seed coat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The whorl of a flower that consists of all the sepals is the A) stamen.
B) calyx.
C) carpel.
D) corolla.
E) stigma.
Q3) Whorl three of a flower is made up of the A) stem region.
B) male parts of a flower.
C) petals.
D) female parts of a flower.
E) sepals.
Q4) Abscisic acid is a plant hormone that activates a plant's defenses against predators. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Q1) What cell types would you expect to find in a sample of spinal tissue?
A) neurons and adipocytes
B) platelets and neuroglia
C) neurons and neuroglia
D) platelets and adipocytes
E) neurons and platelets
Q2) Which phrase defines smooth muscle?
A) used for slow, involuntary movements
B) used to move bones
C) beats the heart
D) shows striations
E) contains multi-nucleate cells
Q3) The type of connective tissue which stores lipids is called
A) adipose.
B) bone.
C) cartilage.
D) dense connective.
E) blood.
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Chapter 26: The Nervous System
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Q1) On an axon,the small spacings between the insulation surrounding the axon are called
A) trigger zones.
B) axons.
C) synapses.
D) dendrites.
E) nodes of Ranvier.
Q2) The connection point between an interneuron and a motor neuron is a synapse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In nerve impulse transmission,the neuron sending the message across a synapse is called the
A) postsynaptic cell.
B) Schwann cell.
C) presynaptic cell.
D) motor cell.
E) receptor neuron.
Q4) The purpose of the nodes of Ranvier is to start nerve impulses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Senses
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Q1) In humans,which of the following is used primarily to detect light?
A) photoreceptor
B) proprioreceptor
C) chemoreceptor
D) mechanoreceptor
E) electroreceptor
Q2) If a person has been prescribed eyeglasses with lenses that shorten the path of light,it is most likely to correct for that person
A) being farsighted.
B) being nearsighted.
C) having astigmatism.
D) being cross-eyed.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) What is the stress faced by naked mole rats in their crowded burrows?
A) less carbon dioxide in their blood
B) elevated tissue acidity
C) dehydration
D) food shortages
E) insufficient rest
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Page 29
Chapter 28: The Endocrine System
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Q1) If you see a patient who is losing bone calcium,what gland might be overactive in the patient?
A) testes
B) ovaries
C) parathyroid
D) thyroid
E) adrenal
Q2) A vole with extra ADH would have both altered kidney function and altered social behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following has its primary effect on the brain's pain receptors?
A) adredocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
C) endorphins
D) oxytocin
E) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Q4) The two hormones produced by the thyroid are thyroxine and triiodothyronine.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) If you found a mutation,involving the loss of two bases,which was present in humans living on all four continents which you could test but was absent in close relatives such as gorillas and chimps,what would this imply?
A) Two bases were actually insertions in the nonhuman primates.
B) Deletion arose before the branch between humans and nonhuman primates.
C) Deletion arose multiple nonhuman primates.
D) Deletion arose at least six times in different human populations.
E) Deletion arose after the branch between humans and nonhuman primates.
Q2) The two closely allied organ systems that allow for running,swimming,and flying under the direction of the nervous system are the _____ systems.
A) skeletal and endocrine
B) muscular and endocrine
C) muscular and skeletal
D) circulatory and muscular
E) circulatory and skeletal
Q3) Calcium ions are required for muscular contraction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: The Circulatory System
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Q1) If you were shown a patient with a problem having water and dissolved substances diffuse between the blood and interstitial fluid,you should first examine the state of the patient's
A) arteries.
B) veins.
C) lymph vessels.
D) capillaries.
E) sieve tubes.
Q2) Why would having a four-chambered heart,as in birds and mammals,optimize efficiency of oxygen delivery to tissues?
A) Diffusion of oxygen from oxygenated blood into tissues would be increased.
B) Diffusion of oxygen from oxygenated blood into tissues would be decreased.
C) Less energy would be required to pump oxygen into the blood.
D) Less energy would be required to pump oxygen into the tissues.
E) Less energy would be required to pump oxygen into the lungs.
Q3) Cardiac output depends on heart rate and stroke volume.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: The Respiratory System
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Q1) What is the independent variable,the one manipulated by the experimenters,in this figure?
A) partial pressure of oxygen in the tracheae
B) number of times the spiracles are open
C) number of moth pupae
D) external concentration of oxygen
E) size of each moth pupa
Q2) The hormone erythropoietin (EPO)stimulates the production of red blood cells.What effect would this have on transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide?
A) Oxygen transport would increase; carbon dioxide transport would not be affected much.
B) Oxygen transport would decrease; carbon dioxide transport would not be affected much.
C) Oxygen transport would increase; carbon dioxide transport would decrease.
D) Oxygen transport would decrease; carbon dioxide transport would increase.
E) Oxygen and carbon dioxide transport would both increase.
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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animals that hunt and eat essentially only other animals are A) omnivores.
B) carnivores.
C) herbivores.
D) detritivores.
E) folivores.
Q2) Larger animals generally need more energy and building blocks than do smaller animals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An enzyme that breaks down protein is A) lipase.
B) lactase.
C) pepsin.
D) amylase.
E) bile.
Q4) An autotroph obtains the energy that it needs to maintain homeostasis from the sun.
A)True
B)False
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids
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Q1) The major excretory organ of the human urinary system is the
A) gall bladder.
B) pancreas.
C) liver.
D) adrenal gland.
E) kidney.
Q2) Hyponatremia is a condition characterized by low sodium in the blood.This is a concern for marathon runners who drink too much water,and can cause life-threatening pressure on the brain.Why would this occur?
A) Neurons would take up the sodium from the blood and not be able to polarize.
B) Neurons would be stimulated to all fire at once.
C) Neurons would swell by osmosis.
D) Neurons die in low levels of sodium.
E) Neurons cannot give the kidneys signals to reabsorb sodium ions.
Q3) In animals,which of the following help retain body heat?
A) fur, fat, and feathers
B) fat and feathers
C) fur and feathers
D) fur and fat
E) fur
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Chapter 34: The Immune System
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Q1) HIV-positive people track the progress of their disease with blood tests that measure the number of
A) blood platelets.
B) B cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) plasma cells.
Q2) A molecule that stimulates an immune system reaction by B cells and T cells is termed a(n)
A) antibody.
B) antigen.
C) substrate.
D) phagocyte.
E) complement protein.
Q3) B cells and T cells are
A) basophils.
B) monocytes.
C) lymphocytes.
D) eosinophils.
E) neutrophils.
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Chapter 35: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Q1) If a woman in labor has her cervix dilate,but her contractions remain too weak,what should be given to help her labor progress?
A) oxytocin
B) progesterone
C) estrogen
D) calcium
E) testosterone
Q2) If you were observing a newly discovered animal and wanted to determine if it reproduces sexually or asexually,you could best
A) examine parents and offspring to see if the offspring are genetically identical to parents.
B) examine males to see if sperm can be produced.
C) try to observe mating behavior.
D) look carefully for nests with eggs.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Q1) The odd bouncing of one,then the entire herd of Thompson's gazelles when a predator is nearby,is called A) bobbing.
B) dribbling.
C) mobbing.
D) cavorting.
E) stotting.
Q2) Many small animals,such as raccoons and squirrels,become used to and stop reacting to loud noises,sights,and actions of people in cities or suburbs.They react differently from how they would,if encountering people in the wild.This is an example of A) habituation.
B) taxis.
C) reflex.
D) observational.
E) imprinting.
Q3) Ethologists asking "how"-type questions in their studies are studying proximate causes of animal behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Population Ecology
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Q1) In a survivorship curve,a type II species,like a song bird,is a species that has
A) the highest probability of dying at a very young age.
B) an equal probability of dying at any age.
C) the highest probability of dying as it reaches its maximum life span.
D) a strong possibility of becoming extinct in a relatively short period of time.
E) an extremely short life span.
Q2) Conditions whose growth-limiting effects increase as a population grows are density-independent factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a population growth curve that is affected by environmental resistance,the formula G = rN(K - N)/K is used to calculate the number of new individuals added after each time interval.In this equation K represents the
A) number of individuals added per unit time.
B) per capita rate of increase.
C) environmental resistance.
D) number of individuals at the start of a time interval.
E) carrying capacity for the organism being studied.
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Chapter 38: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) What did the scientists conclude from the data shown in the figure?
A) Plants survived the heat best with virus-infected fungi.
B) Plants survived the heat best without fungi.
C) Plants survived the heat best with virus-free fungi.
D) Plants survived the heat best when not infected by the virus.
E) Plants survived the heat best when infected by the virus.
Q2) Raw sewage within a water ecosystem can kill fish because respiration by the microbes in the sewage reduces the concentration of oxygen within the water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term abiotic means "nonliving."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a type of symbiosis?
A) predation
B) mutualism
C) None of the answer choices are correct.
D) commensalism
E) parasitism
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Chapter 39: Biomes
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Q1) The different seasons of the year are due to the A) tilt of the earth's axis as earth travels around the sun.
B) distance from earth to the sun.
C) rotation of the earth on its axis.
D) rotation of the moon around the Earth.
E) gravitational pull of the moon as it travels around the Earth.
Q2) If you moved plants from a desert-like white sand area north of Perth,Australia,to a moist-soiled forest south of Perth,what would probably happen?
A) The plants would probably do poorly since the two biomes are so different.
B) The plants would probably become weeds.
C) The plants would probably switch to asexual reproduction.
D) The plants would probably find different pollinators.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) Small plants that grow on the bark or leaves of another plant are called A) epiphytes.
B) endophytes.
C) parasites.
D) lichens.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
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Chapter 40: Preserving Biodiversity
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Q1) Any chemical,physical,or biological change in the environment that harms living organisms is
A) nitrification.
B) an upwelling.
C) deforestation.
D) ozone depletion.
E) pollution.
Q2) An increase in the surface temperature of the earth caused by heat-trapping gases in the atmosphere is known as
A) the greenhouse effect.
B) the biome effect.
C) bioremediation.
D) desertification.
E) the nursery effect.
Q3) Air pollution in the lower atmosphere charterized by a visible haze is called a fug.
A)True
B)False
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42