Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology Exam Practice Tests
Introduction to Biology offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles governing living organisms and life processes. Students will explore the structure and function of cells, basic molecular biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. The course emphasizes the scientific method, critical thinking, and the interconnections between biological systems, providing a solid foundation for further study in the life sciences. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory activities, students will develop an understanding of how living things interact with each other and their environments.
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Discover Biology Core Topics 5th Edition by Anu Singh Cundy
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Living cells are separated from the outside environment by a flexible A)nucleus.
B)membrane.
C)cell wall.
D)DNA circle.
Answer: B
Q2) Because the California sea lions that live along the Pacific coast freely migrate and regularly interbreed with one another biologists classify the group as a
Answer: population
Q3) Once experimental data verifies a prediction the hypothesis is considered proven.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A good hypothesis is easy to prove.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evolutionary tree diagrams representing the relationships between various organisms can be drawn only when those organisms share a
A)common cellular metabolism.
B)distinct lineage.
C)common cellular organization.
D)common ancestor.
Answer: D
Q2) With the exception of the _____ the following kingdoms are placed within the domain Eukarya.
A)Protista
B)Plantae
C)Bacteria
D)Fungi
Answer: C
Q3) Aerobic organisms can survive without oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The father of modern scientific naming is ____________________.
Answer: Carolus Linnaeus
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Chapter 3: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a red tide
A)air pollution turns the sunrise and sunset bright red, which, in turn, makes beaches appear red.
B)fish die from water pollution and bleed as they wash up on the shoreline.
C)single-celled protists become so numerous that they color the water red, brown, yellow, or other colors.
D)fish eat large quantities of red-colored food items and temporarily become red themselves.
Answer: C
Q2) Which statement best summarizes the adaptive value of phloem?
A)Phloem is specialized for transporting water and dissolved nutrients.
B)Phloem is specialized for transporting food molecules like sugar.
C)Phloem forms the root structures that house symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
D)None of the above describe phloem.
Answer: B
Q3) Flowers are the organs of reproduction in angiosperms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Animalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sharks and the ray-finned fishes differ in several ways; the most significant difference is the composition of the skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the most poisonous marine organisms is a cnidarian known as the sea wasp or box jellyfish; the motile adult organism is best described as a(n)
A)polyp.
B)medusae.
C)cnidoblast.
D)anthozoan.
Q3) The success of the amniotic egg was the development of a completely water- and airtight shell that prevented moisture loss.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tetrapods are so named because they possess four limbs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Endoderm forms the ____________________ layer of an animal embryo.
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Chapter 5: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrons are found
A)in the nucleus of an atom.
B)only in complex molecules.
C)in one or more shells that surround the atom's nucleus.
D)in both the nucleus and inner shell of an atom.
Q2) An atom that becomes charged due to the gain or loss of an electron is called a(n)____________________.
Q3) Fevers in young children are a particular concern because oxygen is less effectively transported by hemoglobin at high temperature. How might this be explained?
A)The hemoglobin becomes denatured and cannot transport the oxygen.
B)The oxygen becomes denatured and cannot bind to the hemoglobin.
C)Oxygen has too much thermal energy to be bound by hemoglobin.
D)Oxygen evaporates at high temperature and is not available for binding with hemoglobin.
Q4) The strongest possible chemical link between two atoms is a(n)
A)covalent bond.
B)hydrogen bond.
C)noncovalent bond.
D)ionic bond.
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Chapter 6: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biologists call an agent that spreads an infectious disease a vector. What is the vector for malaria?
A)a protist of the species Plasmodium
B)a mosquito of the species Anopheles
C)a bacterium of the species Listeria
D)The vector is presently unidentified.
Q2) A ribosome has internal cristae.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Molecules of _____ are consumed by mitochondria during cellular respiration.
A)O
B)CO
C)H O
D)NO
Q4) The microfilaments that allow cells to move contain the protein
Q5) ____________________ pinch off from a membrane, enclose material, and then fuse with another membrane to release their contents at their destination.
Q6) The ____________________ found in eukaryotic cells have cristae.
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Chapter 7: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) The principle of cell ____________________ is that different cells in the same organism may have different functions.
Q2) When the solute concentration outside of a cell is equal to the solute concentration inside of the cell, the cell is in a(n)____________________ solution.
Q3) Which of the following would supply energy directly to an active carrier protein?
A)starch
B)sugars
C)ATP
D)fatty acids
Q4) Objects suspended in the extracellular fluid can cross the plasma membrane and enter a cell by
A)pinocytosis.
B)receptor-mediated endocytosis.
C)phagocytosis.
D)all of the above
Q5) Steroids are unable to cross the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
9
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Chapter 8: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term thermal energy describes the
A)orderly movement of electrons along a conductor (such as a wire).
B)movement of photons as they travel through space.
C)attractive power of two magnets toward one another.
D)random movement or vibration of the molecules of any substance (water molecules in a beaker, for example).
Q2) Some kinds of drain cleaners use enzymes rather than strong, more dangerous chemicals. These enzymes must be able to
A)catalyze a catabolic reaction.
B)raise the activation energy of the reaction that clears the clog.
C)create energy that can be used to break up the clog.
D)allow excess heat to be passed off into the environment.
Q3) Photosynthesis creates energy and cellular respiration destroys energy. A)True B)False
Q4) Carbon dioxide is one product of the metabolic process called ____________________ that occurs in both plants and animals.
Q5) The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is the ____________________ energy.
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Chapter 9: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) During alcoholic fermentation, pyruvate is converted to ethanol in order to A)increase the efficiency of cellular respiration by producing additional molecules of ATP.
B)release O<sub>2</sub> as a by-product so that cellular respiration can continue.
C)create lactic acid to stimulate muscle contraction.
D)recycle NADH back into NAD+ so that the cell can continue glycolysis.
Q2) All of the following elements can be found in the photosynthetic intermediary molecules leading to sugar; which element does not remain in the final product?
A)carbon
B)phosphorous
C)hydrogen
D)oxygen
Q3) NAD is an energy carrier in living organisms that couples
A)oxygen production and the generation of carbon dioxide during cellular respiration.
B)the synthesis of ATP with the synthesis of water.
C)photosynthesis and metabolism.
D)the catabolic aspects of cellular respiration with the synthesis of ATP.
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Chapter 10: Cell Division
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Q1) As the ____________________ separate during prophase, they determine opposite ends, or spindle poles, of a cell that is beginning mitosis.
Q2) DNA molecules are both exceptionally long (6 feet in humans)and exceptionally thin; to minimize breakage yet facilitate transcription, the DNA is wrapped around ____________________ to form a complex know as chromatin.
Q3) Which set of symbols represents the stages of interphase?
A)G<sub>0</sub>, G<sub>1</sub>, and G<sub>2</sub> B)S<sub>1</sub>, S<sub>2</sub>, and G<sub>0</sub> C)G<sub>0</sub>, G<sub>1</sub>, and S
D)S, G<sub>1</sub>, and G<sub>2</sub>
Q4) The G phase of the cell cycle is distinguished by A)an active preparation for DNA synthesis.
B)a doubling of chromosomes.
C)an absence of preparation for DNA synthesis.
D)the appearance of a metaphase plate.
Q5) Meiosis I is almost identical to the events in mitosis.
A)True B)False
Q6) Chromosomes become visible during the ____________________ stage of mitosis.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Stem Cells, Cancer, and Human Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who has already had children develops skin cancer from overexposure to the sun. Is it possible for her children to have inherited this cancer from her?
A)No, because only mutations that occur in gametes can be passed on to the next generation.
B)No, because any cancer that develops after a person is an adult cannot have a genetic component.
C)Yes, because almost all cancers are caused by genetic factors.
D)Yes, because the woman's children have exactly the same genome as their mother does.
Q2) Grilling meat appears to be associated with an avoidable exposure to carcinogens that form when
A)the growth hormones used by the livestock industry react at high temperature with meat proteins.
B)the antibiotics routinely used by the livestock industry degrade at high temperature.
C)certain amino acids and fats react at high temperature to form HCAs and PAHs.
D)combustion products from the charcoal, natural gas, or propane mutate the DNA in the cooked food.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) The chance of a parent's passing on a given allele to a child _____ each time he or she has another child.
A)is reduced
B)is increased
C)is the same
D)changes
Q2) Which of the following represents all of the possible gametes that can be formed by an individual with the genetic makeup FfGgHH?
A)FGH, FgH, fGH, fgH
B)Ff, Gg, HH
C)FG, FH, Fg, fH, fG, fg, GH, gH
D)FfGhHH, FFGGHH, ffgghh
Q3) A tall plant mates with itself and produces all tall offspring. This cross is repeated for many generations with the same results. The parental plant is most likely
A)heterozygous.
B)completely dominant.
C)mutated.
D)true-breeding.
Q4) The genetic makeup of an organism, such as Gg, is its ____________________.
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) The tendency to develop diseases, such as cancer and heart disease, is
A)usually the result of a mutation in one gene.
B)the result of new combinations of alleles formed during meiosis.
C)the result of the interaction of multiple genes and environmental factors.
D)the result of multiple mutations caused by crossing-over.
Q2) Human males have one chromosome that females do not, known as the ____________________ chromosome.
Q3) If a recessive allele causes a fatal disease that kills the affected individual before he or she can reproduce, why doesn't that allele quickly become extinct in the population?
A)Alleles are never lost from a population.
B)The homozygous dominant individuals protect the recessive allele in their genomes.
C)The recessive allele is carried in the genome of heterozygotes, who do not suffer from the disease.
D)The homozygous recessive individuals give their alleles to other individuals before they die from the disease.
Q4) Two chromosomes that have the same set of genes, but perhaps different versions of those genes, are called ____________________ chromosomes.
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Chapter 14: Dna and Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not a way that cells can control gene expression?
A)Tightly packed DNA is not expressed.
B)Cells break down DNA that codes for unexpressed proteins.
C)Cells regulate the breakdown of mRNA.
D)Cells can inhibit translation.
Q2) Proteins found in the blood respond to blood vessel damage by clumping together forming a clot that physically blocks the hole in the vessel and prevents further blood loss. If clotting proteins were active all the time, they would create clots throughout your circulatory system. Which of the following would be the most efficient way for the body to regulate the expression of the proteins involved in clotting?
A)Produce and store the clotting protein in an inactive form. When the protein is needed, use another protein to activate the clotting protein.
B)Use a repressor protein to keep clotting genes turned off until they are needed.
C)Tightly package the genes for clotting proteins so that RNA polymerase cannot access them unless they are needed.
D)Constantly make the clotting proteins, but then break them down instantly after translation if they are not needed.
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Chapter 15: From Gene to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changing even a few bases in a molecule of DNA always affects the protein product adversely.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true of transcription?
A)It destroys the DNA template.
B)The DNA molecule must unwind.
C)Base pairing is unimportant.
D)The end result is a protein.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the function of genes?
A)They control the production of enzymes.
B)They control the production of structural proteins.
C)They control the production of all proteins.
D)They control the production of amino acids.
Q4) Proteins are produced directly from DNA, with no intermediate steps.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The base sequence of mRNA specifies the sequence of amino acids in a ____________________.
Q6) Most molecules of RNA are ____________________-stranded.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Dna Technology
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Q1) DNA ____________________ occurs when complementary single-stranded DNA molecules from two different sources undergo base pairing.
Q2) During gel electrophoresis, DNA moves from the A)edges of the gel to the middle of the gel.
B)middle of the gel to the edges.
C)negative end of an electrical field to the positive end of the electrical field.
D)positive end of an electrical field to the negative end of the electrical field.
Q3) Genetically modified plants can pass their recombinant DNA to wild plants of the same species through their pollen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ catalyzes the formation of covalent bonds between two DNA fragments, creating a single piece of DNA.
Q5) There are no risks associated with DNA technology.
A)True B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Evolutionary changes on a small scale are called ____________________.
Q2) How do we know that dinosaurs had lice?
A)Dinosaur fossils show clear evidence of louse eggs and bites.
B)Lice are found only in birds and mammals. The common ancestor that lice evolved on must have been the common ancestor of these two groups, a dinosaur.
C)Dinosaur DNA has been found in the guts of fossilized lice.
D)The DNA of both mammalian and bird lice contains sequences that are unique to dinosaur DNA. Lice can only have obtained these sequences if they lived on dinosaurs.
Q3) The number of different types of organisms found on Earth is a result of
A)continental drift.
B)Darwin's theories.
C)speciation.
D)common descent.
Q4) Nonheritable genetic changes can cause evolution within a population.
A)True B)False
Q5) Chimpanzees could carry a species of lice that evolved from the gorilla louse. A)True B)False
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) One factor that complicates the treatment of AIDS is the
A)low mutation rate of HIV.
B)high mutation rate of HIV.
C)random mating between viral particles.
D)nonrandom mating between viral particles.
Q2) Although millions of prairie chickens once occupied Illinois, in 1993 only 50 remained. Starting in 1992, scientists moved almost 300 prairie chickens from large populations in other states to Illinois to _____ Illinois prairie chicken populations.
A)prevent the development of nonheritable mutations in
B)introduce genetic variation back into
C)induce stabilizing selection in
D)cause genetic drift in
Q3) Which of the following is not a reason that farmers give antibiotics to their livestock?
A)to promote faster growth
B)to reduce illness
C)to develop new antibiotics
D)to grow more livestock with less food
Q4) Genetic drift causes random changes in ____________________ frequency.
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Chapter 19: Speciation and the Origins of Biological Diversity
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Q1) For two populations to accumulate enough genetic differences to cause speciation, the factors that promote these differences
A)must operate in populations that are not physically separated.
B)must have a greater effect than does the amount of ongoing gene flow.
C)need to be combined with the forces of genetic drift.
D)should include polyploidy.
Q2) The great diversity of life on Earth is caused by ____________________-the formation of new species.
Q3) Geographic isolation limits the _____ between populations of a species.
A)genetic differences
B)adaptation
C)directional selection
D)gene flow
Q4) A ____________________ species may exist when an organism's range loops around a geographic barrier. Neighboring populations in the range mate, but populations on opposite sides of the barrier cannot mate.
Q5) Sympatric speciation requires geographic isolation of populations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is not an advantage of being bipedal?
A)The additional height gained by standing on two legs allowed humans to easily see approaching predators.
B)Standing up freed up human hands allowing them to carry and use tools.
C)Standing up makes it easier to climb trees.
D)Walking on two feet is faster than walking on four feet.
Q2) Evidence that the Cretaceous mass extinction was created by the impact of an asteroid is the existence of a huge ____________________ buried under sediments off the coast of Mexico.
Q3) Populations of ancient humans
A)used random mating to increase the genetic differences between populations.
B)were very similar due to a large amount of gene flow between populations.
C)were essentially identical due to a high level of interbreeding.
D)had large differences due to genetic drift.
Q4) The big toe is opposable in all primates.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using Uranium-235, a ____________________ with a half-life of 700 million years, allows scientists to determine the approximate age of a fossil.
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Chapter 21: The Biosphere
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Q1) The rotation of Earth causes winds to ____________________ as they move across the Earth's surface.
Q2) The Earth's tropical areas are found at ____________________ latitudes than temperate areas.
Q3) Terrestrial biomes are generally named based on the A)dominant types of plant life.
B)geographical location of the biome.
C)dominant types of animal life.
D)climate of the region.
Q4) The biosphere can be divided into major terrestrial and aquatic life zones called ____________________.
Q5) The particular type of terrestrial biome that develops is strongly influenced by A)the animal species living in the area.
B)temperature, rainfall, and altitude.
C)other nearby biomes.
D)the plant species living in the area.
Q6) An ecosystem consists of both biotic (living)and ____________________ (nonliving)factors.
Q7) A measure of the energy that producers are able to store as biomass is ____________________.
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Chapter 22: Growth of Populations
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Q1) The human population crash that occurred on Easter Island was due to A)fire.
B)expanding forests and the consequent loss of farmland.
C)the aftermath of a volcanic eruption.
D)deforestation, soil erosion, and resource depletion.
Q2) In 1978, a drought on the Galapagos Islands caused a reduction in the production of seeds that one of Darwin's finches, a kind of bird, fed upon. This caused a decrease from 1,400 to 200 birds. This population change factor
A)would not be not considered a part of the carrying capacity for these birds.
B)was density-dependent.
C)was density-independent.
D)resulted in exponential growth for the bird population.
Q3) When an isolated population reaches its carrying capacity
A)the birth rate > the death rate.
B)the birth rate = the death rate.
C)the birth rate < the death rate.
D)It is not possible to generalize these values.
Q4) The carrying capacity of a habitat always remains the same.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) The sea star Pisaster ochraceus was removed from selected intertidal communities along the Washington coast. After 10 years how did those communities compare to control communities?
A)The communities were statistically indistinguishable from one another.
B)Without sea stars, mussels became abundant and crowded out other community members.
C)Other predatory sea stars replaced Pisaster.
D)The mussel populations declined, but most species were unaffected.
Q2) An animal eats fruit from a plant and later deposits seed in its feces far from the plant. This is an example of a A)pollinator mutualism.
B)gut inhabitant mutualism.
C)behavioral mutualism.
D)none of the above
Q3) Organisms that eat producers are known as A)cannibals.
B)secondary producers.
C)primary consumers.
D)predators.
Q4) A(n)____________________ is a single sequence of who eats whom in a community.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) What best explains this observation: consumers directly use approximately 20 percent of a forest's net primary productivity (NPP), whereas decomposers directly use approximately 80?
A)Decomposers are more efficient at obtaining energy than consumers.
B)Forest ecosystems do not have a very high NPP, so they cannot support as many consumers as other ecosystems can.
C)Consumers eat only certain parts of organisms, such as fruits or muscle tissue, whereas decomposers obtain energy from the entire body of the food organism.
D)Secondary consumers eat the primary consumers more quickly than the primary consumers can eat the producers, thus leaving most of the NPP available to the decomposers.
Q2) A community of organisms together with the chemical and physical environment in which the organisms live is known as a(n)____________________.
Q3) An atom of phosphorous may remain out of the biological part of its cycle for many millions of years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Phosphorus is the only major nutrient whose cycle is ____________________.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Due to the reduction in pack ice-an effect of global warming-polar bears are eating more geese and goose eggs instead of seals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although not directly toxic to living organisms, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)have had unanticipated impacts on the atmosphere. The ecological impacts of CFCs will be
A)relatively benign because even as secondary pollutants their toxicity remains low.
B)limited to the terrestrial ecosystem only.
C)limited to high-altitude communities where ultraviolet radiation is more intense.
D)uniformly serious, with effects experienced in almost all ecosystems and trophic levels.
Q3) The levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
A)peaked around 1950 and have begun slowly decreasing since then.
B)are high but not higher than the highest estimated levels in the last 420,000 years.
C)are estimated to be higher than at any time in the past 420,000 years.
D)began decreasing when the use of CFCs stopped.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Animal A has a surface area of 6 cm² and a volume of 1 cm³. Animal B has a surface area of 24 cm² and a volume of 8 cm³. If each animal were in the same environment,
A)animals A and B would gain and lose solutes at the same rate, but animal A would gain heat faster.
B)animal B would gain water faster than animal A, but animal A would lose solutes faster.
C)animal A would gain or lose heat, water, and solutes faster than animal B.
D)animal B would lose heat faster than animal A but gain water faster.
Q2) Kidneys conserve water but not solutes.
A)True B)False
Q3) The circulation of blood through the body eventually increases the rate of heat transfers by A)evaporation. B)conduction. C)convection. D)radiation.
Q4) The lack of water, otherwise known as ____________________, can lead to heatstroke.
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) In mammals, the mechanical breakdown of food involves teeth. In worms, the mechanical breakdown is accomplished by a ____________________.
Q2) The lower region of the small intestine is structured to create large amounts of surface area so that it can more efficiently
A)produce enzymes to break food down into smaller molecules.
B)grind food down into smaller molecules.
C)absorb the chemical building blocks produced by digestion.
D)eliminate waste products.
Q3) Food passing though our digestive tract would contain the fewest nutrients in the A)small intestine.
B)stomach.
C)colon.
D)esophagus.
Q4) In third world countries, vitamin ____________________ are more common and lead to various diseases and disorders.
Q5) Out of the four classes of organic compounds found in organisms, ____________________ are capable of storing the largest amount of energy.
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Which of the following statements about gas concentrations in air and water is true?
A)Carbon dioxide is not found in water.
B)Carbon dioxide occurs in similar concentrations in air and water.
C)Oxygen occurs in similar concentrations in air and water.
D)Oxygen occurs in higher concentrations in air than in water.
Q2) People with sickle-cell anemia have deformed hemoglobin molecules and often suffer muscle pains, even at low levels of exertion. These symptoms might come about because the deformed hemoglobin
A)is unable to carry the amount of oxygen required for normal activities of muscles.
B)cannot diffuse across the cells' membranes from the blood plasma.
C)causes damage to the muscle cells as it enters the muscle.
D)decreases the person's ratio of surface area to volume.
Q3) The human ____________________ system is used for the internal transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Q4) More gas will diffuse through a ____________________ surface area than a ____________________ surface area.
Q5) Human red blood cells contain the red pigment ____________________.
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) Supplementing the body with hormones
A)can be dangerous because most hormones are needed in large amounts.
B)can be dangerous because most hormones are needed in small amounts.
C)holds no risk because hormones are organic molecules.
D)is safer in children as compared to adults.
Q2) Some hormones do not need receptors and can directly interact with genes in a target cell's nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)has been linked to A)breast cancer.
B)arthritis.
C)osteoporosis. D)hot flashes.
Q4) Progesterone and luteinizing hormone have the same effects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Parathyroid hormone is released into the blood when the amount of calcium in the blood is too ____________________ [high or low].
Q6) A(n)____________________ is a specialized organ in which hormones are produced.
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) The position of our body is reported by mechanoreceptors called ____________________.
Q2) The cerebral cortex of the human brain is much more highly and intricately folded than the same region in other animals. Why might this be the case?
A)The folds create more surface area for the production and release of the hormones that allow the human nervous system to interact with the endocrine system.
B)The folds are the remnants of the compression of the brain that occurs during childbirth.
C)The folds increase the surface area available for the complex thoughts and processing that occur in that region of the human brain.
D)Evolution has caused the brain to increase in size faster than the skull has increased in size. Folding allows our larger brain to more easily fit into our skulls.
Q3) Action potentials can transmit information rapidly but weaken as they move along a neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nodes of Ranvier are found only in ____________________ neurons.
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Chapter 31: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Q1) Short-distance sprinters probably have more slow muscle fibers than fast muscle fibers in their legs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Improvement of running performances has been greatly attributed to advancements in ____________________.
Q3) Lobsters and insects have internal skeletons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?
A)the spinal column
B)the arm
C)the skull
D)the rib cage
Q5) A single muscle fiber from a flea can lift about the same weight as a single muscle fiber from a human.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Ligaments are connective tissues that connect ____________________ to bone.
33
Q7) Tendons are connective tissues that connect ____________________ to bone.
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Chapter 32: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) The ____________________ is a coordinated combination of specialized cells and molecules that give us the ability to resist specific pathogens.
Q2) Once B cells become effector cells, they
A)produce the antigens that attach to antibodies.
B)release freestanding antibodies.
C)release freestanding antigens.
D)bind to infected T cells.
Q3) Which of the following statements correctly describes the immune response when the invading organism is a virus?
A)The antigen molecules on the viral DNA allow the immune system to prevent the infection.
B)Lymphocytes are not involved in the immune response.
C)The lack of nucleic acid in a virus complicates the immune response.
D)Lymphocytes respond to infected human cells rather than to the virus itself.
Q4) A fever is the product of an out-of-control immune response to a parasite.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Interferons summon ____________________ cells that destroy any self cells that display viral proteins.
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Because human males can produce sperm and fertilize eggs their entire life, there is no effect on the quality of the sperm or offspring produced.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Human females probably evolved the ability to live beyond their reproductive years because
A)women once preferred to mate with men known to come from families with long life spans.
B)the hormones produced by the female reproductive system slow the aging process.
C)the contribution of grandmothers to child rearing increases the survival rate of children.
D)in early human cultures, women who produced children later in life were more likely to survive to raise their children.
Q3) Which of the following does not affect development in animals?
A)morphogens
B)hemoglobin
C)genes
D)hormones
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Chapter 34: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Human culture is not a result of
A)fixed behavior.
B)learned behavior.
C)communication.
D)social behavior.
Q2) In a laboratory, a mouse runs a maze faster on the third try and even faster on the fifth try. Which of the following best describes what has taken place?
A)The mouse has doubly imprinted the maze.
B)The mouse has first learned the maze and then established its pattern in a fixed behavior.
C)The mouse has learned more about the maze on each trial.
D)The mouse learned the maze on the first three tries and then imprinted what it learned on the fourth try.
Q3) For a gosling, ____________________ means forming an image of who is a parent early in life.
Q4) Herring gull chicks beg for food when they see a red dot, whether it is on their parent's beak or on an odd-shaped model. This begging is an example of a(n)____________________ behavior.
Q5) ____________________ behaviors are generated from past experiences.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) The uptake of nutrients by roots requires energy because the
A)concentrations of nutrients in the soil are greater than the concentrations in root cells.
B)concentrations of nutrients in the soil are much more dilute than the concentrations in root cells.
C)concentrations of nutrients in the soil and in root cells are equal.
D)root hairs are covered by a waxy layer.
Q2) Fibrous root systems have one predominant root and many smaller roots near the top of the main root.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The cells of the xylem are dead at functional maturity. This allows A)osmosis into the xylem.
B)transpiration to occur in the stem.
C)the water molecules in the xylem to form a continuous column from root to shoot.
D)sugars to be actively transported into the xylem.
Q4) Most aboveground plant growth occurs with the repeated addition of ____________________ units.
Q5) ____________________ is the evaporation of water from the surface of a leaf.
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Chapter 36: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Plants grow in length
A)from lateral meristems located within the stem.
B)due to the elongation of cells throughout the body of the plant.
C)from vascular cambium located just under the bark.
D)only at the tips of the roots and the shoots where apical meristems are located.
Q2) If a mutation resulted in the formation of pollen that could not form a pollen tube, when the pollen landed on the stigma,
A)sperm could not move from filaments to anthers.
B)the zygote could not leave the embryo sac.
C)sperm would be unable to enter the ovule.
D)anthers could not produce pollen.
Q3) In flowering plants, sperm form the pollen grain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The practice of moving plants to more northern locations in anticipation of the effects of global climate change is known as ____________________.
Q5) Meristem cells in plants are similar to ____________________ cells in vertebrates.
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