Introduction to Biology Exam
Materials
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles that govern living organisms and their interactions with the environment. This course explores core biological concepts including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, physiology, biodiversity, and ecology. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on laboratory experiences, students develop an understanding of the scientific method, critical thinking skills, and the relevance of biology to contemporary issues such as health, sustainability, and biotechnology. Designed for students with varied backgrounds, the course serves as a foundation for advanced studies in the life sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of The Living World 4th Edition by George B Johnson
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Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Q1) The ozone-destroying contaminants in the upper atmosphere were found to be ________________________.
Answer: chlorofluorocarbons,or CFCs
Q2) A collection of related hypotheses that have been shown to be true after extensive testing can be collectively called a __________.
Answer: theory
Q3) Many people think the term "theory" means someone's idea about something.Explain the scientific use of the term "theory",especially as it relates to the biological concept of evolution.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) The most inclusive group in taxonomy is a A) population. B) domain. C) kingdom.
D) species.
Answer: B
Q5) Why is the study of biology central to the understanding and solving of the world's great environmental problems?
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) The nucleus of an atom is composed of two subatomic particles,______________ and ______________.
A) protons;neutrons
B) protons;electrons
C) neutrons;electrons
Answer: A
Q2) The first shell in any atom contains one orbital which may contain as many as
A) 2 electrons.
B) 8 protons.
C) 8 electrons.
D) 4 neutrons.
E) 2 neutrons.
Answer: A
Q3) Due to hydrogen bonding,ice is _______ dense than water.
Answer: less
Q4) What are some of the uses of radioactive isotopes?
Answer: No Answer
Q5) Nonpolar molecules are said to be _________________ because they shrink away from water.
Answer: hydrophobic
4
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Q1) List the four major types of macromolecules,their subunits (building blocks),and their functions.
Answer: No Answer
Q2) Many mammals supply energy to their young in the form of ___________.
Answer: lactose
Q3) Choose the statement that is true about DNA.
A) It exhibits base pairing.
B) It forms a double helix.
C) It is a polymer of nucleotides.
D) All of these are correct.
Answer: D
Q4) The sugar found in RNA is A) lactose. B) glucose.
C) ribose.
D) deoxyribose.
E) glycogen.
Answer: C
Q5) In RNA,thymine is replaced with ___________.
Answer: uracil
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Chapter 4: Cells
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Q1) Select the membrane molecule that is made up of a polar region with two nonpolar fatty acid tails.
A) Phospholipids
B) Cell surface proteins
C) Transmembrane proteins
D) Carbohydrate chains
Q2) Choose the membrane molecule responsible for aiding passage of polar molecules into and out of the cell.
A) Phospholipids
B) Cell surface proteins
C) Transmembrane proteins
D) Carbohydrate chains
Q3) A plant's central vacuole functions in
A) manufacturing sugars.
B) capturing energy from sunlight.
C) packaging molecules for export from the cell.
D) storing the genetic information of the cell.
E) storing water,sugars,and ions.
Q4) Give the three major principles of the cell theory.
Q5) A semi-fluid matrix called ____________ fills the inside of a cell.
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Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Q1) If a ball begins to roll down an incline,its ________ energy is converted into _______ energy.
Q2) Most human enzymes work best within the range of
A) pH 3 - 5.
B) pH 4 - 6.
C) pH 6 - 8.
D) pH 8 - 10.
E) pH 11 - 14.
Q3) Which of the following factors do NOT influence the action of enzymes?
A) Temperature of the cytoplasm
B) The amount of reactant in the cell
C) pH of the cytoplasm
D) Relative humidity
E) Presence of a repressor
Q4) Macromolecules that function as catalysts in cells are called __________.
Q5) Objects that are moving are said to possess
A) kinetic energy.
B) potential energy.
C) entropy.
D) living energy.
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Q1) After hydrogens and electrons are stripped from NADPH,NADP<sup>+</sup> is regenerated and can be used again in the A) antenna complex.
B) the Calvin cycle.
C) the Krebs cycle.
D) the light-dependent reactions.
E) the light-independent reactions.
Q2) When something appears blue,it is absorbing all colors except __________.
A) yellow
B) red
C) blue
D) green
E) orange
Q3) Thylakoids are stacked on top of one another into columns called _______________.
Q4) The Calvin cycle is also called C<sub>3</sub> photosynthesis because the first molecule produced in the process is a __________-carbon molecule.
Q5) Stoma open at night in plants that use _______ photosynthesis.
Q6) Explain the role that water plays in the light-dependent reactions.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Q1) What happens to pyruvate,the end product of glycolysis,before it enters the Krebs cycle?
A) It is reduced.
B) It is phosphorylated.
C) It is carboxylated.
D) It is oxidized.
Q2) Which of the following is not a reaction that cells use to get energy from nutrients?
A) Cellular respiration
B) Fermentation
C) Photosynthesis
D) Anaerobic respiration
Q3) In the process of glycolysis,glucose is cleaved into a pair of three-carbon ________ molecules.
A) lactate
B) acetyl-CoA
C) pyruvate
D) oxaloacetate
E) alcohol
Q4) Common end products of fermentation include __________ and ______.
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Q1) In prokaryotes,DNA replication begins at a site called the A) cleavage furrow.
B) origin of replication.
C) cell plate.
D) binary fission.
Q2) Why do eukaryotic cells have to undergo the individual steps of mitosis while prokaryotic cells can merely pull in half by binary fission?
Q3) What causes cancer in cells?
A) Damage to genes controlling cell division
B) Chemical damage to cell membranes
C) UV damage to transport proteins
D) A disconnect between the two G phases
E) Skipping the S phase in the cell cycle
Q4) Which is not correct about the way prokaryotes divide?
A) They divide by binary fission.
B) The chromosome is a single circular molecule of DNA.
C) The replication of DNA occurs in one direction around the circle.
D) They use the same DNA bases as in eukaryotes.
E) When the cell reaches an appropriate size,the cell divides into two equal halves.
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Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Q1) In almost all animals,the multicellular stage of the life cycle is diploid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In anaphase I ________ separate,and in anaphase II ____________ separate.
A) homologous chromosomes;chromatids
B) chromatids;homologous chromosomes
C) haploid cells;diploid cells
D) homologous chromosomes;diploid cells
E) chromatids;haploid cells
Q3) When nonsister chromatids exchange segments during meiosis,the process is called _______________________.
Q4) What are three key differences between meiosis and mitosis?
Q5) Genetic recombination is possible because of A) independent assortment.
B) crossing over.
C) fertilization with a nonrelated gamete.
D) All of these are correct.
Q6) The life cycle that involves the fusion of gametes is known as the _____________life cycle.
Q7) What is the evolutionary significance of crossing over?
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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are genes located in the cell?
A) on chromosomes
B) on the endoplasmic reticulum
C) in the Golgi complex
D) within the cytoplasm
E) on the plasma membrane
Q2) If several traits are affected by the same allele,the allele is said to be
A) recessive.
B) dominant.
C) epistatic.
D) pleiotropic.
Q3) In the human ABO blood grouping,there are four basic blood types,type A,type B,type AB,and type O.The blood proteins A and B are A) simple dominant and recessive traits.
B) codominant.
C) incompletely dominant.
D) sex-linked traits.
Q4) A dominant human genetic disorder that does not reveal itself until middle age is
Q5) What is the evolutionary significance of mutation?
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Chapter 11: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Q1) The Hershey-Chase experiment demonstrated that protein,not DNA,is the hereditary material.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In his experiments,Griffith found that transformation occurs naturally in bacteria.Explain how Griffith found this out.
Q3) Which scientists determined that DNA synthesis is semiconservative?
A) Rosalind Franklin
B) Martha Chase and Frederick Griffith
C) James Waston and Francis Crick
D) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
E) Rachel Carson and Oswald Avery
Q4) Which is incorrect about the bases in nucleic acids?
A) The large bases are the purines.
B) Purines always pair with pyrimidines.
C) A = T and G = C
D) Hydrogen bonds form between base pairs.
E) The purines are thymine and cytosine.
Q5) The copying of DNA before cell division is referred to as DNA
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Q1) Describe the differences between DNA and RNA.
Q2) Due to _________,the 20,000-25,000 genes of the human genome seem to encode as many as 120,000 different expressed mRNAs.
A) mutations
B) independent assortment
C) alternative splicing
D) recombination
Q3) During translation,a peptide bond forms between the incoming amino acid and the growing polypeptide chain at the ____________ site on the ribosome.
Q4) All of the following occur in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes except in eukaryotes,
A) there is DNA transcription.
B) there are introns.
C) in RNA,uracil replaces thymine.
D) translation occurs on a ribosome.
E) tRNA carries the amino acid to the mRNA to make polypeptides.
Q5) The RNA codon GCA codes for the amino acid alanine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: The New Biology
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Q1) All of the genes and other DNA of an organism constitute its A) genome.
B) proteome.
C) cellular structure.
D) polygenic makeup.
Q2) In 1977,_____________ was the first researcher to sequence a genome.
Q3) What is the benefit in genetically engineering plants to be resistant to glyphosate?
A) Glyphosate can then be applied and only kill pests on some plants.
B) The genetically engineered plants will then be resistant to the glyphosate virus.
C) Glyphosate will then only be able to enhance the growth of the genetically engineered plants.
D) Glyphosate can then be applied and stop the growth of unwanted plants,like weeds.
Q4) EcoRI is an example of a ______________________.
Q5) Heat is used in DNA sequencing to _________ the double strands of the molecule.
Q6) Do you feel there is any harm in eating genetically modified crops?
Q7) How is it possible that there are four times as many kinds of mRNA as there are genes in the human genome?
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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Q1) The molecular evidence of how the cytochrome c gene changes with time suggests that this gene evolves
A) at a constant rate.
B) in spurts.
C) hardly at all.
D) more rapidly than any other gene.
Q2) In a large population of humans,4% of individuals exhibit the recessive phenotype.What percent of individuals are homozygous for the dominant phenotype?
A) 36%
B) 16%
C) 8%
D) 64%
Q3) In small populations,gene frequencies can change drastically by chance alone.This phenomenon is called
A) migration.
B) density-independent effects.
C) density-dependent effects.
D) genetic drift.
Q4) Darwin's 1859 book was entitled _____________.
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Chapter 15: Exploring Biological Diversity
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Q1) A multi-level system of grouping allows scientists to ___________ organisms.
A) discover
B) identify
C) classify
D) dissect
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a member of Archaea?
A) Cyanobacteria
B) Methanogens
C) Thermophiles
D) Halobacterium
Q3) Select the scientific name from the following names
A) robin.
B) tiger.
C) Marmota.
D) Apis mellifera.
Q4) Extreme thermophiles belong in what group?
A) Domain Archaea
B) Domain Bacteria
C) Domain Eukarya
D) Kingdom Fungi
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Chapter 16: Evolution of Microbial Life
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Q1) Which of the following would Earth's early atmosphere have lacked?
A) Methane
B) Oxygen
C) Ammonia
D) Hydrogen sulfide
Q2) Prokaryotes reproduce using a method called _________________.
Q3) All viruses have an envelope around their capsid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The typical mushrooms,but not truffles or morels,belong to the A) ascomycetes.
B) basidiomycetes.
C) zygomycetes.
D) imperfect fungi.
Q5) The primary characteristic of protists is that they are A) the only unicellular eukaryotes.
B) microscopic eukaryotes.
C) photosynthetic eukaryotes.
D) eukaryotes that are not animals,plants,or fungi.
Q6) The two kingdoms of prokaryotes are called _____________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Evolution of Plants
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Q1) The first successful land plants,even though they lacked vascular tissue,were the A) mosses.
B) coniferous trees.
C) liverworts and hornworts.
D) ferns.
Q2) In order to disperse water throughout themselves more effectively,plants evolved A) pores.
B) vascular tissues.
C) circulatory systems.
D) stomata.
Q3) Dicots evolved _________ monocots.
A) before
B) after
Q4) Which group has the tallest living specimens today?
A) Vascular plants
B) Mosses
C) Hornworts
D) Liverworts
Q5) Plants are _____________ because they can produce their own food.
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Animals
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Q1) The ability of a sponge cell to identify other such sponge cells is called cell
Q2) The subkingdom of animals that lack symmetry and have no true tissues or organs is the
A) Eumetazoa.
B) Parazoa.
C) Chordata.
D) Vertebrata.
Q3) Why would you expect that placental mammals have outcompeted monotremes and marsupials,the other two groups of mammals?
Q4) An advantage that deuterostomes have over protostomes is that the developmental fate of each embryonic cell is fixed when that cell first appears.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cite evidence that suggests that all modern humans arose from one common ancestor located in Africa.
Q6) Bony fishes evolved a ________________________ to help keep them afloat.
Q7) The type of cleavage seen in deuterostomes is called _____________ cleavage.
Q8) Annelids possess a body cavity called a ____________.
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Chapter 19: Populations and Communities
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Q1) Which organism is more likely to go extinct-one with a specialized,narrow niche or one with a broad,generalized niche? Explain your answer.
Q2) Describe methods plants use to deter their herbivores.
Q3) Lice and their relationship with mammals is an example of what type of symbiosis?
A) Parasitism
B) Commensalism
C) Mutualism
D) Succession
Q4) Which of the following are not types of adjustments made by organisms to cope with environmental challenges?
A) morphological adaptations
B) physiological adaptations
C) behavioral adaptations
D) K-selected adaptations
Q5) In true commensalism,both partners benefit.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The role an organism plays within its ecosystem is called its _______________.
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Chapter 20: Ecosystems
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Q1) Why do food chains rarely have more than three or four steps,or links?
Q2) The total amount of energy fixed by photosynthetic organisms minus the energy used in their own metabolic activities is
A) primary productivity.
B) secondary productivity.
C) net primary productivity.
D) net secondary productivity.
Q3) Phosphorus is an essential element in all living things and is a component of A) carbohydrates.
B) nearly all vitamins.
C) most amino acids.
D) ATP and DNA.
Q4) How have humans intruded into the global water cycle?
Q5) Loss of water from the leaves of plants occurs mostly via a process known as A) transpiration.
B) evaporation.
C) dehydration.
D) guttation.
Q6) Plants are the ____________ in the food chain in an ecosystem.
Q7) Several food chains woven together comprise a ______________.
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Chapter 21: Behavior and the Environment
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Q1) Human infants have an innate ability to be able to learn any of the 40 consonant sounds present in human languages.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List three examples and give details explaining each regarding animal cognition.
Q3) Long range two-way movement behavior in animals is termed ___________.
Q4) _____________ can be thought of as NOT responding to a stimulus.
Q5) A goose attempts to retrieve an egg that is removed from the nest.This is an example of
A) a sign stimulus.
B) imprinting.
C) a fixed action pattern.
D) kin selection.
Q6) Sexual selection leads to
A) the evolution of nesting activities between the two parents.
B) the evolution of structures in males that are used in combat with other males.
C) the evolution of polygyny in territorial animals.
D) the evolution of novel parental care possibilities.
Q7) Discuss the difference between home range and territory.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: How Human Influence the Living World
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Q1) Which of the following drove the passenger pigeon to extinction?
A) Overexploitation
B) Habitat loss
C) Introduced species
D) Predation
Q2) How might the aesthetic value of biodiversity relate to economic value?
Q3) Currently,the human population is growing rapidly due to high birth rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which population has benefited from captive propagation efforts?
A) Peregrine falcon
B) Black rhino
C) Flying foxes
D) Brown pelicans
Q5) A country with a population pyramid that is triangular is
A) increasing in population size.
B) decreasing in population size.
C) characterized by having a stable population size.
Q6) The chemical shield that protects the Earth's surface from ultraviolet radiation is
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Chapter 23: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Q1) Which of the following is not a class of tissue?
A) Epithelial
B) Connective
C) Spongy
D) Muscle
E) Nerve
Q2) The portion of a nerve cell that carries nerve impulses away from the cell is the
A) glia.
B) cell body.
C) dendrite.
D) axon.
Q3) All types of muscle contain actin and myosin myofilaments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The outer layer of bone,referred to as ________________,is dense and strong.
A) the cortex
B) the medulla
C) compact bone
D) spongy bone
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Chapter 24: Circulation
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Q1) Megakaryocytes
A) are important in the immune response.
B) produce fibrin for blood clotting.
C) give rise to platelets.
D) carry carbon dioxide in the blood.
Q2) Which valve in the human heart prevents oxygenated blood from going back into the left atrium?
A) Bicuspid (mitral)valve
B) Aortic semilunar valve
C) Tricuspid valve
D) Pulmonary semilunar valve
Q3) In which order would a drop of blood in the superior vena cava encounter the four chambers of the heart and the four heart valves?
Q4) Which animal has an open circulatory system?
A) Crocodiles
B) Planarian
C) Insect
D) Earthworm
E) Whale
Q5) _________________ are tiny blood vessels leading away from capillaries to veins.
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Chapter 25: Respiration
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Q1) Fish move water in only one direction over their gills permitting countercurrent flow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following possess gills?
A) Snails
B) Clams
C) Sea stars
D) Guppies
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which type of animal does not obtain its oxygen by diffusion from surrounding water across the body surface?
A) Sponges
B) Dolphins
C) Cnidarians
D) Roundworms
E) Frogs
Q4) Red blood cells are packed with iron-containing ____________ molecules that can carry oxygen.
Q5) Why is smoking cigarettes so dangerous to human health?
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Chapter 26: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) Blood leaving the stomach and intestine goes directly to the ________.
A) heart
B) kidneys
C) liver
D) gallbladder
E) pancreas
Q2) Bile is produced in the liver and stored in the ________________.
Q3) Fats have __________ calories per gram,while carbohydrates and proteins both have __________ calories per gram.
A) 9.3;4.1
B) 4.1;9.3
C) 10;5
D) 17.6;6.5
Q4) The first site of starch breakdown in the digestive system is A) in the small intestines.
B) in the stomach.
C) the mouth.
D) the esophagus.
Q5) What is the purpose of the bicarbonate solution released by the pancreas into the small intestine?
28
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Chapter 27: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Mammals and birds can produce urine that is ____________,such that wastes are excreted in a small volume of water.
A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hypotonic
Q2) When human body temperature gets too high,the hypothalamus responds by causing blood vessels to constrict.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the mammalian nephron,blood flows into a specialized capillary network called the ______________,and components of the blood plasma are filtered out.
A) Bowman's capsule
B) glomerulus
C) protonephridium
D) loop of Henle
Q4) In a type of homeostatic control system called a ____________,a response that changes a condition back toward the set point causes the integrating center to stop directing effectors to produce that response.
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Chapter 28: How the Body Defends Itself
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Q1) Which proteins puncture the membranes of infected target cells?
A) Interleukin-2
B) MHC proteins
C) Complement proteins
D) Interleukin-1
E) Perforins
Q2) Which of the following is produced by natural killer cells?
A) Perforin
B) Interleukin-1
C) Interferon
D) Antibodies
E) Complement
Q3) How is it that vertebrates are able to produce antibodies to virtually every foreign antigen with which they come in contact?
Q4) What is the main problem that results in autoimmune diseases?
A) The body fails to distinguish between self and nonself antigens.
B) Helper T cells are not functioning correctly.
C) The memory B cells fail to respond for subsequent exposures to antigen.
D) The body mounts a greater than necessary response to eliminate an antigen.
Q5) Explain why relatives are sought for kidney transplants.
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Chapter 29: The Nervous System
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Q1) Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter which forms an excitatory synapse in ____ muscle and an inhibitory synapse in _____ muscle.
A) smooth;skeletal
B) skeletal;cardiac
C) cardiac;skeletal
D) skeletal;smooth
Q2) A ____________ sheath is an insulating cover consisting of multiple layers that wrap around the axon of a neuron.
Q3) A large enough,localized "depolarization" in a neuron first causes nearby ____________ channels to open.
A) voltage-gated sodium
B) sodium-potassium pump
C) voltage-gated potassium
D) chemically-gated proton
Q4) One division of the autonomic nervous system,called the ____________ nervous system,is active in times of stress.
Q5) The chamber of the inner ear that is shaped like a tightly-coiled snail shell and functions in sensing sound is the ___________.
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) In this disease,the numbers of insulin receptors on target cells are abnormally low.
A) Goiter
B) Type II diabetes
C) Type I diabetes
D) Gallbladder disease
Q2) Prolactin stimulates the breasts to produce milk which is released in response to oxytocin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A hormone that causes color changes in reptiles is ______________,the effects of which are poorly understood in humans.
A) prolactin
B) thyroid-stimulating hormone
C) melanocyte-stimulating hormone
D) somatotropin
Q4) _______________ is the hormone released by the pancreas to lower levels of glucose in the blood.
Q5) The anterior pituitary hormone __________ stimulates the breasts to produce milk.
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) In a process called _______________,a secondary oocyte is released from one of the ovaries into the fallopian tube.
Q2) The secondary oocyte does not complete the second meiotic division until A) ovulation.
B) puberty.
C) fertilization.
D) birth.
Q3) Compare and contrast hemaphoditism with asexual reproduction.
Q4) An egg needs to be fertilized within twenty-four hours of ovulation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During the follicular phase of the female menstrual cycle,estrogen is produced by the A) uterus.
B) developing zygote.
C) anterior pituitary.
D) developing follicles.
Q6) In the developing embryo,blocks of mesoderm that give rise to muscles and vertebrae are called ________________.
Q7) Why are the testes suspended outside the body in humans?
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Chapter 32: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) The process by which water leaves a plant is called
A) tension.
B) translocation.
C) expiration.
D) transpiration.
E) exhalation.
Q2) The vascular bundles in the stem of a dicot plant are arranged in a ring.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the primary growth of a stem and explain how growth of lateral shoots is suppressed.
Q4) ___________ is accumulated secondary xylem.
Q5) Within the epidermis of leaves are ______________ through which gases,such as carbon dioxide and oxygen,pass.
A) vessel elements
B) trichomes
C) stomata
D) root hairs
Q6) What causes the annual rings we see in the wood of trees?
Q7) How do plants regulate water loss?
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Chapter 33: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) Explain the significance of C.Steward's experiments in the 1950s.F.
Q2) The female gametophyte is the _______________,which develops from a megaspore.
Q3) The first leaves that emerge from a seed are the _________________.
Q4) When applied to underripe fruit,the hormone _____________ hastens ripening.
A) auxin
B) gibberellin
C) ethylene
D) abscisic acid
Q5) Male gametophytes are also known as _________________ and they develop from microspores.
A) embryos
B) megaspores
C) pollen grains
D) anthers
Q6) When a plant's pollen moves to one of its own stigmas,this is called
A) self-incompatibility.
B) self-germination.
C) outcrossing.
D) self-pollination.
Q7) Describe double fertilization.
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