Introduction to Biology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology explores the fundamental principles of living systems, covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will investigate the molecular and cellular basis of life, mechanisms of inheritance, and the interactions of organisms with their environment. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, laboratory skills, and real-world applications, providing a strong foundation for further studies in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 4th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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1325 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction- Biology Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humans are composed of ______ cells.
A) bacterial
B) eukaryotic
C) plant
D) prokaryotic
Answer: B
Q2) What is biology?
A) the scientific study of life
B) the scientific study of the environment
C) the scientific study of DNA
D) the scientific study of ecosystems
Answer: A
Q3) The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is found within the ______.
A) archaea
B) nucleus
C) prokaryotic cell
D) insulin
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An atom's ______ are found in its nucleus.
A) neutrons and protons
B) protons only
C) neutrons and electrons
D) electrons, protons, and neutrons
Answer: A
Q2) A base ______.
A) removes H<sub>2</sub>O molecules from a solution
B) decreases the pH of a solution
C) removes OH<sup>-</sup> ions from a solution
D) removes H<sup>+</sup> ions from a solution
Answer: D
Q3) How do radioactive isotopes differ from isotopes?
A) Radioactive isotopes have more neutrons than do isotopes.
B) Radioactive isotopes are stable; isotopes are unstable.
C) Radioactive isotopes have fewer neutrons than do isotopes.
D) Radioactive isotopes are unstable; isotopes are stable.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A single carbon atom can form a maximum of ______ covalent bond(s).
A) none; carbon only participates in ionic bonds
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is a health effect of a diet high in saturated fats?
A) increased blood flow
B) decreased risk of atherosclerosis
C) increased risk of heart attack
D) decreased risk of stroke
Answer: C
Q3) A pleated sheet is an example of protein ______ structure.
A) tertiary
B) quaternary
C) secondary
D) primary
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum include ______.
A) steroid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification
B) lipid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification
C) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and drug detoxification
D) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and protein synthesis
Q2) When using a light microscope to view a cell you obtained from scraping under your fingernails,you notice that the cell lacks a nucleus; therefore,you conclude that the cell must be a type of ______ cell.
A) plant
B) eukaryotic
C) fungal
D) prokaryotic
Q3) Microtubules are associated with ______.
A) cilia
B) flagella
C) cell shape
D) all of the above
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Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Q1) What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?
A) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
B) ATP
C) DNA
D) fat
Q2) The sum total of all the chemical reactions that occur in organisms is called ______.
A) summation
B) cellular synthesis
C) replication
D) metabolism
Q3) If a person eats one hard-boiled egg and digests the egg fully,cellular respiration will convert most of this energy into ______.
A) ATP
B) heat
C) carbon dioxide
D) sugars
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Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy from Food
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Q1) A difference between marathon runners and sprinters is ______.
A) marathon runners have more slow-twitch fibers in their leg muscles
B) marathon runners have more fast-twitch muscle fibers in their leg muscles
C) sprinters have a high proportion of muscle fibers that require oxygen to make ATP
D) sprinters perform better in activities that require slow, steady muscle activity
Q2) ATP synthase plays a role in ______.
A) pulling electrons down the electron transport chain
B) glycolysis
C) pumping hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane
D) generating ATP
Q3) In cellular respiration,most ATP is produced directly as a result of ______.
A) the movement of hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane
B) the citric acid cycle
C) fermentation
D) the electron transport chain
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following,which wavelength is least useful to your plants?
A) 650 nm
B) 450 nm
C) 550 nm
D) 400 nm
Q2) The Calvin cycle requires ______ and ______ from the light reactions in order to operate.
A) glucose... carbon dioxide
B) electrons... NADH
C) ATP... NADPH
D) RuBP... NADP<sup>+</sup>
Q3) In photosynthesis,redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ______ to ______.
A) O<sub>2</sub>... CO<sub>2</sub>
B) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>... O<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>O... C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>O... CO<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells from Cells
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Q1) Which of these events occurs during anaphase?
A) Sister chromatids separate.
B) Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.
C) The nuclear envelope reappears.
D) The nuclear envelope breaks up.
Q2) Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics
B) include only the autosomes
C) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent
D) carry the same versions of all genes
Q3) A ______ describes a site of crossing over.
A) chiasma
B) histone
C) synapse
D) centromere
Q4) Which of the following will help prevent cancer and increase survival?
A) Eat a low-fiber, low-fat diet.
B) Limit exercise.
C) Seek early detection of tumors.
D) Smoke only cigarettes.
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the key to the recognition of incomplete dominance?
A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.
B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.
C) The alleles affect more than one trait.
D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.
Q2) Round seeds (R)are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r),and yellow seeds (Y)are dominant to green seeds (y). What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between an RrYy and an rryy individual?
A) 1:2:1
B) 9:3:3:1
C) 3:1
D) 1:1:1:1
Q3) Alleles are described as ______.
A) homologous chromosomes
B) environmental factors that affect gene expression
C) alternate versions of a gene
D) alternate phenotypes
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Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many amino acids are common to all living systems?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 100
Q2) The modern phrasing of Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis about relationships between genes and their products is "one gene-one ______."
A) enzyme
B) RNA
C) protein
D) polypeptide
Q3) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?
A) RNase
B) RNA helicase
C) RNA ligase
D) RNA polymerase
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Page 12
Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Q1) How can a single RNA transcript be translated into different polypeptides?
A) There is more than one way to splice an RNA transcript.
B) There is more than one way to modify the coded polypeptide.
C) The length of its tail can vary.
D) Two different genes can produce the same RNA transcript, which will then be translated differently.
Q2) Jim learned that some cancer cells produce more growth-stimulating proteins than others.What would you give him as a plausible explanation?
A) Tumor suppresor genes may have been activated in these cells.
B) Proto-oncogenes may have mutated to become oncogenes in these cells.
C) Mutations in homeotic genes may be responsible.
D) This may result from vitamin C and vitamin E deficiencies.
Q3) Possible uses of reproductive cloning include ______.
A) the production of genetically identical animals for experimentation
B) the production of organs in pigs for transplant into humans
C) restocking populations of endangered animals
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 12: DNA Technology
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Q1) Ethical dilemmas raised by DNA technology and knowledge of the human genome include ______.
A) the potential for interfering in evolution
B) the safety of GM foods
C) the potential discrimination against people predisposed to certain diseases
D) all of the above
Q2) Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments on the basis of differences in their ______.
A) A:C ratio
B) length
C) G:T ratio
D) pH
Q3) The human genome contains approximately ______ genes.
A) 1,000-2,000
B) 50,000-60,000
C) 21,000
D) 2,000-3,000
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Page 14
Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Q1) Gene flow is accomplished by ______.
A) migration
B) sexual recombination
C) mutation
D) natural selection
Q2) When most populations of a wide-ranging amphibian species are lost and the few remaining populations are widely separated,we expect to see that ______.
A) artificial selection becomes a greater factor in microevolution
B) the founder effect becomes increasingly important
C) gene flow between populations is reduced
D) microevolution no longer occurs
Q3) Which of the following is a population?
A) the termites infesting your house along with the microorganisms living in their guts
B) all of the termites that have ever lived
C) all organisms living in your house
D) the termites infesting your house
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15
Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves
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Q1) The wing of a penguin is ______ the wing of a butterfly.
A) structurally identical to B) superior to C) homologous to D) analogous to
Q2) Characid fishes only found naturally only in South America and Africa.Fossils of these fish are not found on any other continents.What is the most likely explanation of this distribution pattern?
A) These fishes arose in either Africa or South America and migrated across the South Atlantic Ocean to the other continent.
B) Characid fishes arose prior to the separation of the African and South American continents.
C) Characid fishes arose in the South Atlantic Ocean and migrated to Africa and South America.
D) Convergent evolution is responsible for the distribution of characid fishes.
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16
Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life
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Q1) What was the first stage of the process that led to the abiotic origin of life?
A) abiotic synthesis of monomers, such as amino acids and nucleotides
B) origin of self-replicating molecules
C) abiotic synthesis of polymers
D) abiotic formation of pre-cells
Q2) You discover a unicellular organism that moves by what appear to be pseudopodia.
You conclude that this organism is ______.
A) either a type of amoeba or a type of slime mold
B) a type of bacterium
C) a type of alga
D) either a type of ciliate, or a type of amoeba, or a type of flagellate, or a type of apicomplexan
Q3) Why is RNA thought to have been the first genetic material?
A) RNA is structurally simpler than DNA.
B) RNA has been found on meteorites; DNA has not.
C) RNA is capable of self-replication; DNA is not.
D) Primitive organisms, such as some viruses, have RNA as their genetic material.
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Chapter 16: Plants, Fungi, and the Move onto Land
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Q1) Why are gymnosperms "naked seed" plants?
A) Their seeds are not protected.
B) They do not produce seeds; they only produce spores.
C) They do not have ovaries.
D) Their seeds develop on the surface of sporophytes.
Q2) The function of a mushroom is to _____.
A) produce seeds
B) store nutrients
C) produce spores
D) absorb food
Q3) Of the following,which is the earliest step in the formation of fossil fuels?
A) subjecting organic matter to extreme pressure
B) fungi and bacteria converting the remains of organisms to inorganic nutrients
C) incomplete decomposition of organic matter
D) subjecting organic matter to extreme heat
Q4) Seeds develop from ______.
A) carpels
B) anthers
C) ovules
D) ovaries
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Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals
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Q1) Almost every element of bird anatomy is modified for what?
A) laying eggs
B) eating seeds
C) enhancement of flight
D) singing unique songs
Q2) Which group of fishes includes a lineage that migrated out of fresh water and adapted to life on land?
A) ray-finned fishes
B) jawless fishes
C) lobe-finned fishes
D) cartilaginous fishes
Q3) The first hominid to spread beyond Africa was ______.
A) "Lucy"
B) Australopithecus afarensis
C) Homo erectus
D) Homo neanderthalensis
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Chapter 18: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following is not a result of global warming?
A) changes in the breeding seasons of some species.
B) decreasing sea levels.
C) melting permafrost.
D) shifts in the ranges of some species.
Q2) Aquatic organisms ______.
A) have a waxy coating to prevent water loss
B) may experience problems with water balance
C) typically have a plentiful supply of nitrogen
D) never find light to be in short supply
Q3) Temperature increases due to global warming have been greatest _____.
A) close to the poles
B) in the sea
C) in the tropics
D) in deserts
Q4) Permafrost,or permanently frozen subsoil,characterizes _____.
A) temperate deciduous forest
B) chaparral
C) tundra
D) coniferous forest
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Chapter 19: Population Ecology
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Q1) The intentional release of a natural enemy to attack a pest population is called
A) biological control
B) coevolution
C) sustainable resource management
D) integrated pest management
Q2) The use of the Indian mongoose to control rat populations
A) shows how effective biological control can be.
B) shows why integrated pest management usually fails.
C) became a disaster when the mongoose turned out to be as invasive as its target.
D) is an example of how coevolution makes biological control difficult.
Q3) Which of these best describes Type II survivorship?
A) high survivorship for the very young
B) most individuals survive to older age intervals
C) survivorship is constant over the lifespan
D) survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age
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21
Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) Movement corridors are ______.
A) always created by humans
B) only found along stream sides
C) beneficial because they allow for dispersal, but not harmful
D) harmful because they allow for the spread of disease and beneficial because they allow for dispersal
Q2) The major abiotic reservoir for phosphorus is ______.
A) the oceans
B) the atmosphere
C) rock
D) dead organic matter
Q3) E.O.Wilson coined the term ______ for our innate appreciation of wild environments and living organisms.
A) bioremediation
B) bioethics
C) biophilia
D) biophobia
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Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Q1) In humans,goosebumps are a vestige of a mammalian adaptation related to ______.
A) thermoregulation
B) water conservation
C) osmoregulation
D) positive feedback
Q2) A diuretic is a substance that ______.
A) promotes sweating
B) regulates the contraction of cardiac muscle
C) inhibits urinary water loss
D) promotes urinary water loss
Q3) Which of the following statements apply to freshwater fish?
A) They lose water by osmosis.
B) The concentration of solutes in their internal fluids is lower than in the surrounding water.
C) They pump out ions via the gills.
D) They produce dilute urine.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) An digestive tube is best defined as ______.
A) the compartment in which an animal digests its food
B) a tube-shaped digestive compartment with either one or two openings
C) a tube-shaped digestive compartment that has two openings and through which food moves in one direction
D) a tubelike digestive compartment that has two openings and consists, at minimum, of a mouth, esophagus, stomach, intestine, and anus
Q2) Altogether,the body secretes about 7 liters of water into the alimentary canal each day. About what percentage of this water gets reabsorbed?
A) 30%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 90%
Q3) Absorption of water is one major function of which of the following structures?
A) small intestine
B) colon
C) rectum
D) appendix
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Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) Veins carry ______.
A) blood away from the heart
B) oxygen-rich blood
C) oxygen-poor blood
D) blood toward the heart
Q2) If you looked closely at blood plasma,you might find ______.
A) white blood cells
B) red blood cells
C) hormones
D) platelets
Q3) Blood pressure that is consistently ______ or higher would indicate that you have hypertension.
A) 120/80
B) 140/90
C) 110/85
D) 100/75
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Body's Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following substances does a cytotoxic T cell secrete to destroy a target cell?
A) interferon
B) complement
C) antibodies
D) perforin
Q2) Which of the following is a response of our innate defense system?
A) active immunity
B) inflammation
C) cell-mediated immunity
D) movement of red blood cells to the affected site
Q3) Humans that are infected with avian influenza are likely to have elevated levels of ______.
A) interferons
B) histamine
C) pyrogens
D) allergens
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26
Chapter 25: Hormones
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Q1) Steroid hormones _____.
A) are derived from amino acids
B) diffuse through the plasma membrane into target cells
C) bind to receptors in the plasma membrane.
D) are water soluble
Q2) Which of the following may be a consequence of excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone?
A) convulsive contractions of skeletal muscles
B) giantism
C) loss of calcium from the blood
D) loss of calcium from the bone
Q3) Soon after eating a calcium-rich breakfast of yogurt and fortified cereal,your blood levels of calcium increase,stimulating the release of ______.
A) insulin
B) parathyroid hormone
C) glucocorticoids
D) calcitonin
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) In a human female reproductive system,the ______.
A) hymen partly covers the cervical opening
B) vagina secretes hormones that help maintain the uterine lining
C) labia minora are a pair of thick, fatty ridges that protect the entire genital region
D) outer features are collectively called the vulva
Q2) Asexual reproduction
A) creates individuals with unique combinations of genes.
B) generates enormous genetic variation.
C) is an effective way for animals to expand their population quickly and exploit an available environment.
D) provides greater adaptability to changing environments.
Q3) At about what point in gestation can an ultrasound exam determine the sex of the fetus?
A) about 4 weeks after fertilization
B) at the end of the first trimester
C) about 20 weeks after fertilization
D) at the end of the second trimester
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Chapter 27: Nervous, Sensory, and Locomotor Systems
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Q1) What part of the nervous system cushions the CNS and helps supply it with nutrients,hormones,and white blood cells?
A) cerebrospinal fluid
B) ganglia
C) interneurons
D) the bones of the skull
Q2) Which of the following structures constitute(s)part of the appendicular skeleton?
A) skull
B) rib cage
C) backbone
D) leg bones
Q3) Standing out in center field,the baseball player watches the hitter's bat strike the ball and then,slightly later,hears the sound of the impact.What types of sensory receptors did the player just use?
A) thermoreceptors and chemoreceptors
B) photoreceptors and mechanoreceptors
C) chemoreceptors and pain receptors
D) pain receptors and thermoreceptors
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Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant
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Q1) Which of the following is a function of roots?
A) absorbs water
B) absorbs nutrients from the soil
C) stores food
D) all of the above
Q2) The ______ enclose and protect the flower bud,while the ______ advertise the flower to insects and other pollinators.
A) anthers... petals
B) carpels... stigmata
C) sepals... stamens
D) sepals... petals
Q3) Which of the following contains the developing egg and cells that support it?
A) endosperm
B) ovule
C) anther
D) stigma
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Chapter 29: The Working Plant
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Q1) Which of the following hormones promotes seed germination?
A) auxin
B) ethylene
C) gibberellin
D) abscisic acid
Q2) Experimental plants that were sent up in space shuttle missions did not exhibit all of their normal tropisms.Which of the following responses would you most expect to be lacking from these plants?
A) gravitropism
B) geotropism
C) thigmotropism
D) phototropism
Q3) Which of the following best describes the opening and closing of the stomata in most plants?
A) They are open during the day and closed at night.
B) They are open at night and closed during the day.
C) They are open almost all of the time.
D) They are closed except for brief periods of time during the day.
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