
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles that govern living organisms and life processes. This course covers a range of topics including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will learn about biological molecules, metabolic pathways, DNA replication, heredity, and natural selection, as well as explore the interactions between organisms and their environments. The course aims to develop a foundational understanding of biological concepts and scientific reasoning, preparing students for further studies in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 4th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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Q1) Which of the following are the proper components of the scientific method?
A) experiment, conclusion, application
B) question, observation, experiment, analysis, prediction
C) observation, question, hypothesis, prediction, experiment, results, conclusion
D) observation, question, opinion, conclusion, hypothesis
Answer: C
Q2) What are the two main processes that ecosystems depend upon?
A) speciation and evolution
B) nutrient recycling and energy flow
C) decomposition and nutrient recycling
D) sunlight and photosynthesis
Answer: B
Q3) "Male collared lizards show considerable color variation." This is a(n)______.
A) hypothesis
B) conclusion
C) observation
D) result
Answer: C
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Q1) Adjacent water molecules are joined by ______ bonds.
A) covalent only
B) ionic
C) polar and covalent
D) hydrogen
Answer: D
Q2) Sweat on Heather's forehead and arms formed drops because of the ______.
A) high salt content of sweat
B) cohesive nature of water
C) ability of water to moderate heat
D) high evaporative cooling effect of water
Answer: B
Q3) Sugar dissolves when stirred into water.The sugar is the ______,the water is the ______,and the sweetened water is the ______.
A) solution... solvent... solute
B) solute... solvent... solution
C) solvent... solute... solution
D) solution... solute... solvent
Answer: B
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Q1) A glycerol with three fatty acids attached is referred to as a ______.
A) prostaglandin
B) nucleic acid
C) steroid
D) fat
Answer: D
Q2) By definition,what type of fatty acid has double bonds?
A) steroid
B) triglyceride
C) unsaturated
D) saturated
Answer: C
Q3) What name is given to the following reaction?
galactose + glucose lactose + water
A) hydrolysis
B) hydrogenation
C) glycolysis
D) dehydration reaction
Answer: D
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Q1) Lysosomes are responsible for ______.
A) lipid synthesis
B) cellular respiration
C) digestion of organic matter inside the cell
D) protein synthesis
Q2) Where does protein synthesis take place?
A) in the nucleolus
B) on smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) on ribosomes
D) in the nucleus
Q3) ______ store the information necessary to produce proteins.
A) Lysosomes
B) Genes
C) Ribosomes
D) Carbohydrates
Q4) Most human cells contain ______ chromosomes.
A) 36
B) 46
C) 2
D) 23
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Q1) A rock on the top of a mountain contains ______ energy.
A) potential
B) no
C) kinetic
D) conserved
Q2) When two solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a selectively permeable membrane,and osmosis is allowed to take place,the water will ______.
A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration
B) exhibit a net movement to the side with higher water concentration
C) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentration
D) exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane
Q3) Diffusion is an example of ______.
A) phagocytosis
B) active transport
C) endocytosis
D) passive transport
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Q1) The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is ______.
A) ATP
B) oxygen
C) lactic acid
D) NAD<sup>+</sup>
Q2) Large amounts of oxygen gas first appeared in Earth's atmosphere about ______ years ago.
A) 500,000
B) 10 million
C) 2.7 billion
D) 3.5 billion
Q3) Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in cellular respiration?
A) glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport
B) citric acid cycle, glycolysis, electron transport
C) citric acid cycle, electron transport, glycolysis
D) electron transport, glycolysis, citric acid cycle
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Q1) Through what structure(s)do plants obtain most of their water?
A) roots
B) interior cells
C) stomata
D) leaves
Q2) The last stage of one complete turn of the Calvin cycle involves ______.
A) G3P production
B) oxidation of CO<sub>2</sub>
C) regeneration of RuBP
D) sugar production
Q3) How many times must the Calvin cycle turn for the plant cell to be able to produce one molecule of glucose?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) six
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Q1) A ______ describes a site of crossing over.
A) chiasma
B) histone
C) synapse
D) centromere
Q2) For a species with four pairs of chromosomes,________ chromosome combinations are possible.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 20
Q3) What chromosomes belong to a normal human female?
A) 22 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
B) 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome
D) 46 autosomes and two X chromosomes
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Q1) In humans,the inheritance of ______ is best explained as being polygenic.
A) cystic fibrosis
B) height
C) blood type
D) sickle-cell disease
Q2) What is the key to the recognition of a trait whose expression is determined by the effects of two or more genes (polygenic inheritance)?
A) A mating between a homozygous and a heterozygous individual produces more than the expected number of offspring expressing the dominant trait.
B) All of the alleles of the gene for that trait are equally expressed.
C) Pleiotropy occurs.
D) The trait varies along a continuum in the population.
Q3) Many human traits,such as our performance on intelligence tests or our susceptibility to heart disease,are ______.
A) determined only by our genes
B) influenced by both genes and the environment
C) determined by genes in some people and by the environment in other people
D) not affected by our genes
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Q1) DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers.
A) nucleotide
B) carbohydrate
C) fatty acid
D) amino acid
Q2) Thymine and cytosine differ from adenine and guanine in that
A) thymine and cytosine are single-ring structures, whereas adenine and guanine are double-ring structures.
B) thymine and cytosine are only found in DNA, whereas adenine and guanine are found in both DNA and RNA.
C) thymine and cytosine are only found in DNA, whereas adenine and guanine are only found in RNA.
D) thymine and cytosine are larger nitrogenous bases.
Q3) The expressed (coding)regions of eukaryotic genes are called ______.
A) caps
B) promoters
C) exons
D) introns
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Q1) Introns are ______.
A) noncoding DNA sequences
B) DNA sequences to which activators bind
C) expressed DNA sequences
D) the product of RNA splicing
Q2) Which of these lifestyle choices will increase cancer risk?
A) jogging
B) spending more time in the sun
C) a diet low in plant fiber
D) quitting smoking
Q3) Which of these techniques could tell you how gene expression differs between individuals with and without cystic fibrosis?
A) therapeutic cloning
B) DNA microarray
C) reproductive cloning
D) karyotyping
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Q1) The human genome contains approximately ______ genes.
A) 1,000-2,000
B) 50,000-60,000
C) 21,000
D) 2,000-3,000
Q2) In human gene therapy,
A) normal versions of genes are transferred to patients who carry a mutated allele.
B) harmless bacteria make important proteins for humans that cannot produce these proteins on their own.
C) bacterial plasmids are used to transfer genes to human patients.
D) genetically engineered alleles, usually from other species, replace mutated alleles.
Q3) The short tandem repeat analysis ______.
A) compares markers on the sex chromosomes
B) compares repetitive DNA sequences from different individuals
C) does not require DNA amplification
D) checks for purine and pyrimidine ratios
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Q1) When most populations of a wide-ranging amphibian species are lost and the few remaining populations are widely separated,we expect to see that ______.
A) artificial selection becomes a greater factor in microevolution
B) the founder effect becomes increasingly important
C) gene flow between populations is reduced
D) microevolution no longer occurs
Q2) The similarity of the embryos of fish,frogs,birds,and humans is evidence of ______.
A) analogy
B) common ancestry
C) genetic drift
D) convergent evolution
Q3) Which one of the following can create new alleles?
A) natural selection
B) sexual reproduction
C) mutation
D) genetic drift
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Q1) The wing of a bald eagle is ______ the wing of a penguin.
A) convergent with B) homologous to C) unrelated to D) analogous to
Q2) A reproductive barrier that prevents species from mating is an example of ______.
A) a prezygotic barrier
B) reduced hybrid viability
C) zygote mortality
D) a postzygotic barrier
Q3) Dinosaurs (aside from the lineage that produced birds)were extinct by the end of the ______.
A) Cretaceous
B) Silurian
C) Eocene
D) Permian
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Q1) Under ideal conditions,prokaryotes are capable of reproducing at a(n)______ rate.
A) hypergeometric
B) exponential
C) infinite
D) arithmetic
Q2) Which protozoan group consists solely of parasitic forms?
A) apicomplexans
B) ciliates
C) flagellates
D) amoebas
Q3) Endosymbiosis explains the origin of the ______ of eukaryotes.
A) chloroplasts and mitochondria
B) endomembrane system
C) nuclear envelope
D) membrane-bound organelles
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Q1) Exploring in the tropics,you discover a nonvascular plant that produces pollen.What type of plant have you discovered?
A) an angiosperm
B) a fern
C) a bryophyte
D) an entirely new type that you will get to name
Q2) The edible portion of a(n)______ is a ripened ovary.
A) cucumber
B) broccoli stalk
C) radish
D) onion
Q3) Which of the following is the lineage of green algae believed to most resemble early plant ancestors?
A) Charophytes
B) Ulva
C) Volvox
D) Dinoflagellates
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Q1) ______ are the most diverse group of arthropods.
A) Insects
B) Millipedes
C) Arachnids
D) Crustaceans
Q2) What characteristic is unique to echinoderms?
A) a lack of segmentation
B) a water vascular system
C) suction-cup-like feet
D) larvae with bilateral symmetry
Q3) What does the term tetrapod mean?
A) egg-laying
B) living on land
C) living a double life
D) having four feet
Q4) Flatworms are similar to cnidarians in that both ______.
A) have pseudocoeloms
B) have true tissues
C) lack a gastrovascular cavity
D) exhibit bilateral symmetry
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Q1) What name is given to the open ocean?
A) pelagic realm
B) intertidal zone
C) benthic realm
D) photic zone
Q2) The Sahara Desert and the Negev Desert belong to the same ______.
A) community
B) abiota
C) biome
D) biota
Q3) What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of the same species?
A) community
B) organism
C) ecosystem
D) population
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Q1) You arrive back in the United States after having visited a foreign country located on another continent.The customs agent stops the person in front of you and confiscates the fruit basket this person is bringing home.Being the knowledgeable person you are,you calmly explain to your enraged fellow traveler that the reason for the detainment is that the fruit basket may be ______.
A) carrying endangered fruit
B) carrying a non-native species that could damage North American ecosystems
C) contaminated with CFCs that will damage the ozone layer above North America
D) contaminated with sufficient DDT to cause serious harm to anyone who eats the fruit
Q2) Species that exhibit an equilibrial life history typically ______.
A) have long lives
B) exhibit a Type III survivorship curve
C) exhibit a Type II survivorship curve
D) have a large number of offspring
Q3) ______ is the maximum population size that a particular habitat can support.
A) Crash point
B) Carrying capacity
C) Intrinsic population size
D) Intrinsic rate of increase
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Q1) Small areas that have a large number of endangered and threatened species are referred to as ______.
A) biologically magnified
B) endemic environments
C) biodiverse environments
D) biodiversity hot spots
Q2) Modern conservation science increasingly aims at ______.
A) protection of federally listed endangered species
B) countering pollution
C) sustaining entire ecosystems
D) maintenance of genetic diversity within species
Q3) Movement corridors are ______.
A) always created by humans
B) only found along stream sides
C) beneficial because they allow for dispersal, but not harmful
D) harmful because they allow for the spread of disease and beneficial because they allow for dispersal
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Q1) Which of the following is a physiological response that takes place in many animals when they get too hot?
A) slowing of the heart rate
B) constriction of blood vessels in the skin
C) contraction of muscles
D) increased blood flow to the skin
Q2) When body temperature is too low,which of the following occurs?
A) Blood vessels in the skin constrict.
B) Muscles relax.
C) Sweat glands are activated.
D) Blood vessels at the body surface dilate and fill with blood.
Q3) Bone is a type of
A) connective tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) extracellular matrix
D) adipose tissue
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Q1) Digestion is ______.
A) the absorption of nutrients
B) breakdown of food into small nutrient molecules that the body can absorb
C) churning of food in the stomach and intestine
D) eating
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms helps prevent gastric juice from digesting the stomach lining?
A) mucus coating the inside surface of the stomach
B) mitosis generating enough new cells to replace the stomach lining every few days
C) the continuous secretion of gastric juice
D) the inactivation of pepsin by hydrochloric acid
Q3) Which structure stores feces until they can be eliminated?
A) rectum
B) appendix
C) anus
D) colon
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Q1) Because of the changes in blood pressure through the circulatory system,the best way to feel a pulse is by pressing a finger against ______.
A) a vein
B) a capillary
C) an artery
D) either an artery or a vein
Q2) Animals need O<sub>2 </sub>because it ______.
A) plays a role in obtaining energy from food
B) helps animals synthesize proteins
C) is necessary to make CO<sub>2</sub>
D) is needed to deliver hemoglobin to the cells of an animal's body
Q3) Insects breathe using ______.
A) lungs
B) tracheae
C) their entire outer skin
D) book lungs
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Q1) When a B or T cell is primed by an interaction with its particular antigen,the cell
A) dies, killing the antigen
B) engulfs the antigen and destroys it
C) grows, divides, and differentiates further
D) sticks to other cells with attached antigens to form a large clot
Q2) A substance that can elicit an immune response from a lymphocyte is called a(n)______.
A) interferon
B) pathogen
C) antibody
D) antigen
Q3) Which of the following types of cells does HIV preferentially infect?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) natural killer cells
C) helper T cells
D) phagocytic cells
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Q1) When the concentration of glucose in the blood rises following the digestion of a meal,what is the hormonal response?
A) Increased amounts of both glucagon and insulin are released.
B) An increased amount of glucagon is released.
C) An increased amount of insulin is released.
D) Glucagon and insulin levels in the blood stay the same.
Q2) Which of the following hormones causes a rise in the concentration of glucose in the blood?
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) melatonin
D) calcitonin
Q3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)is a hormone that ______.
A) helps to regulate the female menstrual cycle
B) stimulates growth
C) raises blood glucose levels
D) regulates hair and skin growth
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Q1) When does the human embryo implant in the wall of the uterus?
A) within a few hours of fertilization
B) about a day after conception
C) about a week after conception
D) just after gastrulation
Q2) Gastrulation ______.
A) changes a hollow embryo into a solid gastrula
B) changes the solid blastocyst into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers
C) changes the hollow blastocyst into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers
D) changes a gastrula into a blastocyst
Q3) What is gestation?
A) conception
B) fertilization
C) development
D) pregnancy
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Q1) The organ of Corti is in the ______.
A) outer ear
B) inner ear
C) middle ear
D) Eustachian tube
Q2) A baseball player leaping for a baseball and a cricket jumping away from a frog are both using all of the following except their ______.
A) sensory receptors
B) central nervous system
C) digestive system
D) muscle system
Q3) Functionally,what is the muscle fiber's fundamental unit of contraction?
A) thick filament
B) thin filament
C) myofibril
D) sarcomere
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Q1) Which of the following are the most abundant cell type found in most plants?
A) parenchyma cells
B) collenchyma cells
C) sclerenchyma cells
D) food-conducting cells
Q2) The main parts of a flower are modified versions of which of the following?
A) stems
B) rhizomes
C) internodes
D) leaves
Q3) While on a hike,you notice that several burrs have become attached to your socks.You quickly pull them off.Burrs are produced by certain plants and frequently catch on animal fur (or people's clothing).After thinking about it,you decide that the burr is a type of _____ that is an adaptation for _____.
A) leaf...protecting plants from herbivores
B) fruit...seed dispersal
C) cambium...seed protection
D) pollen grain...successful pollination
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Q1) Most plants rely on bacteria to supply them with a usable form of which of the following substances?
A) nitrogen
B) carbon dioxide
C) water
D) amino acids
Q2) Which of the following hormones promotes cell division?
A) auxin
B) cytokinin
C) gibberellin
D) abscisic acid
Q3) Which approach could an organic farmer use to deal with nitrogen deficiency?
A) plant legumes in alternate years and fertilize the soil with compost
B) apply synthetic fertilizers that provide nitrogen
C) plant legumes in alternate years and use inorganic fertilizers such as mined limestone
D) use genetically modified plants that require less nitrogen
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