

Introduction to Biology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles that govern living organisms and life processes. This course explores essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students are introduced to the scientific method, biological molecules, metabolism, and how organisms interact with their environment. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and assignments, students develop a foundational understanding of biology that prepares them for more advanced studies and fosters an appreciation for the complexity and interconnectedness of the natural world.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 11th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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47 Chapters
2342 Verified Questions
2342 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3174

Page 2

Chapter 1: A View of Life
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms best describes the collection of scientific data through observation in the field,such as observing the behavior of birds?
A)a scientific model
B)an experiment
C)descriptive research
D)a scientific theory or principle
E)experimental results
Answer: C
Q2) Extinction can occur if a species is unable to adapt to a changing environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A hypothesis is tested by:
A)a prediction
B)experimentation
C)analysis of results
D)formulation of a theory
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are examples of damage caused by acid deposition from rain EXCEPT
A)leaching of aluminum from the soil into lakes which results in the formation of toxic methyl mercury from mercury in the lake sediments
B)weakens trees in the forests and kills seedlings
C)increased agricultural yields
D)damage to marble and limestone monuments
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is/are an atom,an isotope and an ion?
A)H<sup>+</sup>
B)<sup>2</sup>H or deuterium
C)<sup>3</sup>H or tritium
D)H<sub>2</sub> or hydrogen gas
E)All of the choices are atoms,isotopes and ions.
Answer: A
Q3) The scale ranges from 1 to 15.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4

Chapter 3: The Chemistry of Organic Molecules
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an animal needed to store energy for long-term use,but not be encumbered with the weight of extra tissue,which is the best molecule for storage?
A)fructose and glucose in the form of honey
B)high-calorie fat molecules
C)complex cellulose molecules
D)starch
E)glycogen with extensive side branches of glucose
Answer: B
Q2) The lipids of the cell membrane and the lipids found in butter and vegetable oil differ in which of the following?
A)the number of fatty acids attached to the glycerol molecule
B)the glycerol molecule
C)the carbon to carbon bonds
D)lipids of the cell membrane do not have hydrophobic sections of the molecule
Answer: A
Q3) Migratory birds store energy as glycogen which is lighter than fat.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What figure has the greatest surface area (height x width x number of sides x number of cubes)?
A)Figure A
B)Figure B
C)Figure C
D)All of these are the same.
Q2) The plant cell's central vacuole
A)provides the plant cell with support.
B)stores nutrients and cellular waste products.
C)is a reservoir for water.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) If a researcher was interested in slowing down the movement of amoebas by disrupting their cell membranes,which protein filaments should she be studying?
A)actin
B)intermediates
C)microtubules
D)myosin
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6

Chapter 5: Membrane Structure and Function
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cellular process will most likely be used by an amoeba in order to obtain food?
A)phagocytosis
B)pinocytosis
C)exocytosis
D)receptor-mediated endocytosis
Q2) Imagine a person has a genetic disorder that prevents them from producing the protein collagen,what types of cellular issues will they be faced with?
A)The cell will not have the ability to divide properly.
B)The cell will not have the ability to regulate the movement of molecules through the membrane.
C)The cell would not be recognized by the body's immune system.
D)The cell would not have the ability to resist stretching.
E)All of the choices are plausible.
Q3) Active transport
A)requires an input of ATP.
B)is involved in diffusion.
C)occurs in osmosis and facilitated transport.
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Page 7

Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes
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55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During oxidation NAD<sup>+</sup> will accept ______ but only _______.
A)2 electrons,1 hydrogen
B)1 electron,2 hydrogens
C)2 electrons,2 hydrogens
D)1 electron,1 hydrogen
Q2) Which statement describes the currently accepted theory of how an enzyme and its substrate fit together?
A)As the product is released,the enzyme breaks down.
B)The enzyme is like a key that fits into the substrate,which is like a lock.
C)The active site is permanently changed by its interaction with the substrate.
D)As the substrate binds to the enzyme,the shape of the active site changes to accommodate the reaction.
Q3) ATP is considered to be
A)an enzyme used widely in all kinds of cells.
B)a coenzyme used to inhibit or activate different enzymes.
C)a molecule that carries a great deal of chemical energy in a chemical bond.
D)the precursor of a high-energy membrane-bounded protein.
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the Calvin cycle is correct?
A)the CO<sub>2</sub> is absorbed and reduced to CH<sub>2</sub>O
B)the CO<sub>2</sub> is absorbed and reduced to C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
C)the CO<sup>-</sup> is absorbed and reduced to CH<sub>2</sub>O
D)the CO<sub>2</sub> is absorbed and used to form ATP
Q2) If plants were only able to undergo the cyclic pathway,which of the following would NOT be true?
A)Plants would not produce oxygen.
B)Carbohydrate could still be produced but in much smaller quantities.
C)More NADPH would be produced during the cyclic electron pathway.
D)ATP production would decrease due to a smaller amount of H<sup>+</sup> being available.
Q3) To what does the term stroma refer?
A)the double membrane of the chloroplast
B)a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast
C)a stack of thylakoid membrane structures
D)the central fluid-filled space of the chloroplast
E)the cytochrome system in the membranes of the thylakoids
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Page 9

Chapter 8: Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process reduces molecular oxygen to water?
A)the citric acid cycle
B)glycolysis
C)the electron transport system
D)fermentation
E)the preparatory reaction
Q2) Acetyl-CoA is produced from
A)pyruvate and a coenzyme.
B)citric acid and a coenzyme.
C)ATP and pyruvate.
D)CO<sub>2</sub> and pyruvate.
E)citric acid and CO<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) The breakdown of glucose in cellular respiration is a catabolic reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The first reaction in the citric acid cycle is binding
A)carbon dioxide to a four-carbon (C<sub>4</sub>)molecule.
B)carbon dioxide to a five-carbon (C<sub>5</sub>)molecule.
C)acetyl-CoA to a C<sub>5</sub> molecule.
D)acetyl-CoA to a C<sub>4</sub> molecule.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Cell Cycle and Cellular Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement below best describes the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis?
A)mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the nuclear material while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm
B)mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the cytoplasm while cytokinesis divides the nuclear material
C)mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a contractile ring to divide the nuclear material while cytokinesis uses the contractile ring to divide the cell membrane
D)mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a cell plate to divide the cell membrane in plant cells while cytokinesis uses a contractile ring to divide the cell membrane in animal cells
Q2) Generally,brain and nerve cells are not able to regenerate after injury because they have left the cell cycle and are unable to return.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before the time of Gregor Mendel and genetics,sexual reproduction was thought to produce a blending or equal mixing of the parents' traits.Today we know that
A)offspring will be identical to one another and demonstrate traits exactly halfway between the parents' traits.
B)offspring can vary from receiving over 99% of one parent's genes to receiving over 99% of the other parent's genes.
C)offspring inherit essentially 50% of their genes from each parent,but two sibling offspring may share with each other from zero to 23 chromosomes in common from each parent,and further variation may occur due to crossing-over.
D)offspring inherit copies of the same 23 pair of chromosomes from each of their parents but the rate of crossing-over makes them very dissimilar.
E)there is one chance in 23 of getting identical sets of chromosomes from one parent,times two because there are two parents; therefore,two siblings out of every 46 are really identical except for crossing-over.
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Chapter 11: Mendelian Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If individuals exhibiting a dominant phenotype are crossed and produce only offspring with the dominant phenotype,what would be the logical genotype of the parents?
A)both are homozygous recessive
B)one is heterozygous and one is homozygous dominant
C)both are homozygous dominant
D)both are heterozygous
E)two of the options may be correct
Q2) The reason why some individuals who inherit polydactyly (having an extra digit on the hand or feet)but do not express the trait is due to ________.
A)incomplete penetrance
B)incomplete dominance
C)gene linkage
D)pleiotropy
E)none of the answers are correct
Q3) Which of the following disorders is not a X-linked trait?
A)hemophilia
B)Muscular dystrophy
C)Adrenoleukodystrophy
D)All of these are X-linked disorders
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Chapter 12: Molecular Biology of the Gene
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nucleotides contain all of the following except:
A)a phosphate group
B)a 5 - carbon sugar
C)a nitrogen base
D)histones
E)a phosphate and a nitrogen base
Q2) Which of the following statements applies to the semiconservative nature of DNA replication?
A)The old strands serve as a template for the new strand.
B)The old strand is pulled apart and reformed into the new strand.
C)The new strand serves as a template for the old strand.
D)None of these statements apply to the semiconservative nature of DNA replication.
Q3) Which of the following polypeptide chain would be sequenced from the mRNA code AGGGAGCCC
A)arginine - glutamate - proline
B)serine - leucine - proline
C)arginine - glutamate - alanine
D)serine - asparatate - proline
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14
Chapter 13: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Point mutations
A)are due to a change in one DNA nucleotide.
B)may change a specific codon.
C)can cause a genetic disease such as sickle cell disease that is due to a base change that codes for valine rather than glutamate.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The universal regulatory mechanism in eukaryotes for controlling gene expression includes
A)control of the genes transcribed and the rate they are transcribed.
B)control of the processing of mRNA after it is transcribed from DNA but before it leaves the nucleus,and control of the rate it leaves the nucleus.
C)control of mRNA in the cytoplasm after it leaves the nucleus,including changes to mRNA before translation begins.
D)control of polypeptides after they have been synthesized but before they are functional.
E)All of these mechanisms are used; there is no single universal mechanism.
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15

Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the polymerase chain reaction in genetic engineering is to A)cut DNA into many fragments.
B)carry DNA into a new cell.
C)link together newly joined fragments of DNA.
D)make multiple copies of a specific segment of DNA.
E)separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges.
Q2) Gene cloning can be accomplished by recombinant DNA technology and polymerase chain reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following statements about CNVs are true EXCEPT
A)CNVs occur when genes have changed their number.
B)the changes may result from fork stalling and template switching.
C)CNVs have known links to disease.
D)All of the above are true.
Q4) Animal cloning is a difficult process with a low success rate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Darwin and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lamarck's ideas on evolution were adopted by some Russian scientists,including Michurin and Lysenko in Stalinist Russia.Their textbooks printed Lysenko's assertions that a wheat plant could be made cold-hardy by conditioning in cold storage,or that workmen who develop strong muscles would produce children who were stronger.Which of the major premises of evolution by natural selection was violated?
A)The organisms vary in traits.
B)Natural selection acts on variations that are already available in the population's gene pool.
C)More young are born than can survive.There will always be more demand than resources available.
D)Some individuals are better adapted to the environment.
Q2) Darwin's opinion that living forms must be descended from extinct forms was based on ________ evidence.
A)anatomical
B)biochemical
C)fossil
D)biogeographical
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Page 17
Chapter 16: How Populations Evolve
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations that result in resistance to specific antibiotics in bacterial organisms occur:
A)only when the bacteria are exposed to the drug to which they become resistant.
B)more often when the bacteria are exposed to the drug.
C)at any time,even when the bacteria are not exposed to the drug.
D)only when the bacteria are exposed to radiation or other mutagens.
Q2) Another student proposes that handedness could just as easily be passed to children by how the parents carry the child and interact with it,a learning process that may perpetuate from the parents' handedness.Assuming all parents and children are expressing their "true handedness," the occurrence of which case below would cast the most serious doubt on a simple genetic basis for handedness,with left-handedness recessive?
A)Two right-handed parents have a left-handed child.
B)Two left-handed parents have a right-handed child.
C)Left-handed parents only have left-handed children.
D)Right-handed parents only have right-handed children.
E)None of the choices are correct.
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Page 18

Chapter 17: Speciation and Macroevolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) If macroevolution was goal oriented then organisms would be perfect in form and not have any flaws.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Male birds often perform a special dance or set of physical displays to attract females.This would be an example of a behavioral isolation mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Once members of a species are geographically isolated,what factors may cause them to differ from each other over time?
A)natural selection
B)genetic drift
C)new mutations
D)natural selection and genetic drift but not new mutations.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q4) The evolutionary species concept assumes that the members of a species are reproductively isolated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Carboniferous Period is extremely significant to our current society because A)the Carboniferous forests turned into the coal that fuels modern society.
B)human evolution began in the period.
C)plants and animals first adapted to a terrestrial environment during this period.
D)mammals diversified.
Q2) Which of the following lists of mass extinctions and Eras is correct?
A)The Precambrian experienced 0,Paleozoic experienced 3,Mesozoic experienced 2 and the Cretaceous experienced 0 mass extinctions.
B)The Precambrian experienced 2,Paleozoic experienced 2,Mesozoic experienced 3 and the Cretaceous experienced 0 mass extinctions.
C)The Precambrian experienced 0,Paleozoic experienced 2,Mesozoic experienced 3 and the Cretaceous experienced 0 mass extinctions.
D)The Precambrian experienced 1,Paleozoic experienced 3,Mesozoic experienced 2 and the Cretaceous experienced 1 mass extinctions.
Q3) Organisms today are living in the Pleistocene epoch of the Cenozoic era.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20

Chapter 19: Taxonomy,systematics,and Phylogeny
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Sample Questions
Q1) A study of echinoderm embryos,such as sea stars,confirms a similar developmental pattern to that of vertebrates.In both,the blastopore becomes the anus.This would be considered
A)behavioral data.
B)convergent evolution.
C)analogy.
D)homology.
E)synapomorphy.
Q2) A taxon is the general name for a group of organisms that exhibit a set of shared traits.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which kingdom or supergroup is characterized by organisms that are heterotrophic by ingestion?
A)Animal
B)Plant
C)Fungi
D)Protists
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21

Chapter 20: Viruses,bacteria,and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some,but not all,virus capsids are surrounded by _________.
A)a membranous envelope
B)both DNA and RNA
C)either DNA or RNA
D)a protein capsid
E)a protein spore coat
Q2) The cycle of viral infection in which the viral DNA is integrated into the host's DNA is called the _______ cycle.
A)lysogenic
B)lysozyme
C)lytic
D)lysol
E)lysosome
Q3) Pasteur chose the Latin root word for "virus" meaning
A)extremely small.
B)non-living.
C)poison.
D)contagious.
E)particle.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Protist Evolution and Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Supergroup Opisthokinta includes all of the following organisms EXCEPT A)animals.
B)plants.
C)fungi.
D)choanoflagellates.
Q2) Which of the characteristic(s)apply to the Supergroup Archaeplastida?
A)They contain plastids that originated from endosymbiotic cyanobacteria.
B)They include multicellular and unicellular organisms.
C)They include land plants and the green algae,Chlorophyta.
D)All of the above apply.
E)They include only multicellular organisms that contain plastids.
Q3) Protist reproduction
A)is always asexual fission.
B)is always sexual with the adult haploid.
C)is always sexual with the adult diploid.
D)is always sexual with alternation of haploid and diploid generations.
E)may be asexual or any of these sexual cycles.
Q4) The 1840s Irish potato famine was caused by a water mold parasite on potatoes.
A)True
B)False

Page 23
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Chapter 22: Fungi Evolution and Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sexual spore produced by a sac fungus is called a(n)
A)mycelium.
B)conidiospore.
C)ascospore.
D)basidiospore.
E)hypha.
Q2) Fungal diseases include all of the following EXCEPT A)thrush.
B)Strep throat (pharyngitis).
C)athlete's foot.
D)histoplasmosis.
Q3) Which of the following fungi / Phylum associations is incorrect?
A)button mushrooms / Basidiomycota
B)morel mushroom / Ascomycota
C)Chytriomyces / Cytridiomycota
D)black bread mold / Zygomycota
E)cup fungus / Glomeromycota
Q4) Fungi are thought to have been the first kind of eukaryotic cells that evolved.
A)True
B)False

Page 24
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Chapter 23: Plant Evolution and Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following characteristics are among the adaptations of plants to life on land EXCEPT
A)protection of the embryo from drying out.
B)waxy cuticle on leaves to prevent drying out.
C)waxy cuticle on roots to prevent drying out.
D)vascular system (in most plants)to move water internally.
Q2) A microspore develops into a(n)
A)seed.
B)sporophyte.
C)male gametophyte.
D)female gametophyte.
E)ovule.
Q3) Bryophytes
A)can be found from the Antartic to the tropics.
B)produce peat that can be used as fuel.
C)erode rocks to produce soil.
D)All of the above choices are true regarding bryophytes.
Q4) The gymnosperms produce seeds that are enclosed within a fruit.
A)True
B)False

Page 25
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Chapter 24: Flowering Plants: Structure and Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cortex found in the center of a dicot stem or a monocot root is made of what type of tissue?
A)ground tissue
B)epithelial tissue
C)vascular tissue
D)dermal tissue
Q2) Mycorrhizae are associations between bacteria and the roots of select plants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An axillary bud may produce
A)nothing-it is shed with the leaf.
B)a lateral branch or a flower.
C)wood and lateral branches.
D)inhibitors of growth.
Q4) Identify the incorrect pairing of tissue type with cell type.
A)Ground tissue - Collenchyma cells
B)Epidermal tissue - Parenchyma cells
C)Vascular tissue - Xylem
D)Epidermal tissue - cuticle
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Chapter 25: Flowering Plants: Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Select the correct sequence for mineral uptake in plants.
A.The root cells will initially uptake the minerals.
B.The upwards movement of water will carry the minerals towards the leaves.
C.Some of the minerals are deposited in the leaf cells.
D.The minerals move into the xylem of the vascular tissue.
E.Some of the minerals leave the xylem and enter the various tissues that require them.
A)a - d - b - e - c
B)a - b - d - e - c
C)c- a - d - b - e
D)d - b - e - a - c
E)d - b - c - a - e
Q2) Evaporation of water through the stomata of leaves is A)guttation.
B)respiration.
C)transpiration.
D)photosynthesis.
Q3) Essential plant nutrients include carbon,potassium,calcium,and nitrogen.
A)True
B)False
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Page 27

Chapter 26: Flowering Plants: Control of Growth Responses
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes how plants use hormones during signal transduction?
A)The hormone will bind to a specific receptor in the plasma membrane.It will then trigger a series of relay proteins that alter the signal into one that will impact the cellular machinery.Once the machinery is altered a change in gene expression will occur causing a change in the physical expression of the plant.
B)The hormone will trigger a series of relay proteins to alter the signal into one that will impact the cellular machinery.Once the signal is changed the hormone will bind to a specific receptor in the plasma membrane.It will then cause a change in gene expression to occur causing a change in the physical expression of the plant.
C)The hormone will bind to a specific receptor in the plasma membrane.It will then trigger a series of relay proteins that alter the signal into one that will impact the cellular machinery.Once the machinery is altered a change in the physical expression will occur causing a change in the actual genes of the plant.
D)None of these describes how plants use hormones during signal transduction.
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Chapter 27: Flowering Plants: Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following floral structures are present during the diploid stage of a flowering plants life cycle?
A)Anther
B)Ovule
C)Sporophyte
D)Pollen grain
E)Everything but for the pollen grain.
Q2) The structures in the outermost ring of floral structures that cover and protect the bud are
A)carpels.
B)sepals.
C)receptacles.
D)petals.
E)stamens.
Q3) All of the following statements are true about seed germination EXCEPT
A)all seeds require a period of dormancy before germinating.
B)in the temperate region,seeds often require a period of cold weather before dormancy is broken.
C)fleshy fruits contain inhibitors of germination.
D)some seeds require fire or bacterial action before germination can occur.
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Chapter 28: Invertebrate Evolution
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Q1) Name one of the smallest,if not the smallest,animals that are sometimes referred to as "resurrection animalcules."
A)planaria
B)parasitic mites
C)fruit flies
D)parasitic
E)rotifers
Q2) Identify the organisms that belong to the phylum that are included in the Deuterostomia.
A)octopuses & sea stars
B)polychaetes and roundworms
C)sea stars and crocodiles
D)tapeworms and mollusks
E)blood flukes and crustaceans
Q3) The lophotrochozoans can be divided into two groups,which include
A)the protostomes and the deuterostomes.
B)the comb jellies and the cnidarians.
C)those that reproduce sexually and those that reproduce asexually.
D)the lophophorates and the trochozoans.
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Chapter 29: Vertebrate Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following reptilian features enabled them to adapt to a terrestrial environment?
A)A dry skin,ectothermy and external fertilization
B)Two pairs of paired limbs,a septum that divides the ventricle,and well developed kidneys
C)Skin that allows for respiration,a septum that divides the ventricle and an amniotic egg
D)Efficient respiration,ectothermy and external fertilization
E)Live birth,efficient excretion and two pairs of limbs
Q2) Which feature is found in the bony fish but not in the cartilaginous fish?
A)scales
B)lateral line system for detecting prey
C)endothermy
D)ectothermy
E)swim bladder
Q3) The mammal-like reptiles that gave rise to mammals were the A)coelacanths.
B)therapsids.
C)lampreys.
D)archaeopteryx.
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Chapter 30: Human Evolution
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Q1) The reduced reproductive rate in primate evolution involves
A)a reduction in the number of offspring.
B)extended life spans.
C)lengthy gestation periods with one birth at a time.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of primates EXCEPT the A)five long dexterous digits on hands and feet.
B)three-dimensional binocular vision.
C)well-developed brain.
D)opposable thumb.
E)rapid postnatal maturation.
Q3) Australopithecines were apelike above the waist and humanoid below the waist.This is an example of A)quadripedalism.
B)mosaic evolution.
C)multiregional continuity.
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Old World monkeys have a prehensile tail and a flattened nose.
A)True
B)False

32
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Chapter 31: Animal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) ______ make up more than half the volume of the brain.
A)Neurons
B)Neuroglia
C)Nerves
D)Intercalated disks
E)Hyaline cartilage
Q2) What type of tissue is responsible for contractions that account for movements of organs or the entire body?
A)muscle tissue
B)nervous tissue
C)epithelial tissue
D)connective tissue
Q3) Exocrine glands secrete products onto the surface of the skin and are classified as _______ tissue.
A)epithelial
B)connective
C)muscle
D)nervous
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Chapter 32: Circulation and Cardiovascular Systems
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Q1) Which structure does blood pass through immediately before entering the right atrium?
A)vena cava
B)aorta
C)atrioventricular valve
D)semilunar valve
E)left atrium
Q2) A heart murmur is a distortion of the heartbeat due to blood flowing back through a valve that should be closed.If the heart sound is lub-dub-ssshhh,the most likely cause is a failure of the
A)atrioventricular valves.
B)semilunar valves.
C)mitral (bicuspid)valve.
D)AV node to signal contraction.
E)sinoatrial node to signal contraction.
Q3) Which type of blood component is involved in the initiation of clotting?
A)red blood cells
B)white blood cells
C)plasma proteins
D)platelets
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Chapter 33: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) Interferon is a protein that binds to the receptors of non-infected cells causing them to produce substances that interfere with viral replication.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Adaptive defenses in the body takes longer to become functional,since cells must be recruited to produce specific responses against the antigens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a person is bitten by a highly venomous snake and receives a dose of venom sufficient to kill several people,that person does not have the time to build up his immunity over the next week to neutralize the venom.However,hospitals carry "antivenin" made from injecting horses with small-to-larger dosages of snake venom,and then harvesting the antibodies from the horse plasma.This is an example of A)passive immunity.
B)active immunity.
C)developing an inflammatory response to increase the IgG production.
D)receiving high levels of complement.
E)receiving high levels of interferon.
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35

Chapter 34: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which represents the proper sequence of human teeth from the front to the back of the mouth?
A)2 incisors,1 canine,3 premolars,3 molars
B)2 incisors,1 canine,2 premolars,3 molars
C)3 incisors,1 canine,2 premolars,2 molars
D)2 incisors,2 canines,2 premolars,3 molars
E)2 incisors,1 canine,3 premolars,2 molars
Q2) In the first step of starch digestion,starch is converted to _______,which is then digested to ________ by the enzyme maltase.
A)glucose; maltose
B)amino acids; proteins
C)maltose; glucose
D)fat; glycerol and 3 fatty acids
Q3) Which of the following statements about the tongue is true?
A)The tongue mixes food with saliva and assists in swallowing.
B)The tongue can detect taste,touch,and pressure.
C)The tongue consists of striated muscle under voluntary control.
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Systems
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Q1) In order to maximize diffusion across the surfaces of a gill,oxygen-rich water flows in the opposite direction of oxygen-poor blood.This concept is called
A)reverse expiration.
B)pneumonectomy.
C)countercurrent flow.
D)partial pressure saturation.
E)hemoglobin saturation shift.
Q2) Which association is NOT correct?
A)Emphysema - chronic,incurable lung disorder in which the alveoli distend and the surface for gas exchange is reduced
B)Lung cancer - symptoms include coughing,shortness of breath and blood in the sputum
C)Pulmonary fibrosis - fibrous connective tissue builds up in the lungs preventing them from inflating properly
D)Cystic fibrosis - infectious disease that is caused by the bacterium M.tuberculosis
E)Pneumonia - is a viral,bacterial or fungal infection that cause the bronchi to fill with pus and fluid
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Chapter 36: Body Fluid Regulation and Excretory Systems
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Q1) Patients with diabetes mellitus have frequent urination and increased thirst because
A)less water passes from the glomerulus to the glomerular capsule.
B)more water is driven from the glomerulus to the glomerular capsule than normal.
C)more salt is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule.
D)an increase in sodium ions causes more nerve stimulation and triggers urination.
E)increased glucose in the urine increases its osmolarity and less water is reabsorbed by blood.
Q2) Which is NOT a function of the kidneys?
A)monitoring and maintaining blood pH
B)regulating blood pressure by regulating salt balance in the blood
C)elimination of nitrogenous wastes including urea,uric acid,and creatinine
D)hormone secretion to stimulate red blood cell production and regulate sodium ion levels
E)production of water from oxygen and bicarbonate ions (HCO<sub>3</sub>)
Q3) The kidneys filter all of the blood within the human body in about 40 minutes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Neurons and Nervous Systems
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Q1) When you are studying with the TV on,which part of the brain filters out unnecessary sensory stimuli so that you can focus on your studies?
A)hypothalamus
B)cerebellum
C)reticular activating system
D)limbic system
E)basal nuclei
Q2) Which part of the brain contains centers for the heartbeat and respiration?
A)medulla oblongata
B)hypothalamus
C)cerebellum
D)cerebrum
E)pons
Q3) An animal with a simple netlike nervous system is the
A)earthworm.
B)cat.
C)hydra.
D)octopus.
E)planarian.
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Page 39

Chapter 38: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following lists of ear structures are all membranous structures?
A)ossicles,tympanic membrane,oval window,otoliths
B)cochlea,ampulla
C)tympanic membrane,oval window,round window
D)malleus,incus,stapes
E)tympanic membrane,oval window,stapes
Q2) There are more rods than cones but many rods may synapse with one ganglion cell while only one cone synapses with one ganglion.Therefore,when light intensity drops at night,we can expect a lit city street scene to be
A)intense in color and very sharp.
B)more black-and-white but very sharp.
C)intense in color but grainy.
D)more black-and-white and grainy.
E)identical to the image formed of the street in daytime.
Q3) What is the aqueous humor?
A)one of the fluids in the inner ear
B)the fluid that surrounds the ossicles of the middle ear
C)the fluid in the eye between the cornea and the lens
D)the fluid in the eye between the retina and the lens
E)the gel-like material in a cupula of a mechanoreceptor
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Chapter 39: Locomotion and Support Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the insect exoskeleton is NOT true?
A)The exoskeleton protects insects against predators and drying out.
B)The insect exoskeleton is jointed and movable.
C)The insect exoskeleton grows with the organism.
D)The insect exoskeleton is made of a complex form of carbohydrate called chitin.
E)The insect exoskeleton has muscles attached to it from the inside of the body.
Q2) Which of the following functions is NOT a function of the human skeletal system?
A)protects internal organs
B)acts as a storage site for calcium and phosphorus ions
C)acts as the site of blood cell production in adults
D)acts as a structure against which muscles can contract
E)provides the ATP for muscles to use in contraction
Q3) Which of the following is not an advantage of having an endoskeleton?
A)The skeleton grows with the animal.
B)Endoskeletons can support the weight of a large animal.
C)Endoskeleton provides protection to the internal organs.
D)Endoskeletons allow for more flexibility.
E)It provides protection for the outermost tissue layer of the organism.
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Chapter 40: Hormones and Endocrine Systems
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Q1) If a chemical agent acted to make the nuclear envelope pores impermeable to the passage of hormones,what effect would it have?
A)Neither steroid nor non-steroid hormones would be effective.
B)Steroid hormones would continue to be effective but non-steroid hormones would be ineffective.
C)Non-steroid hormones would continue to be effective but steroid hormones would be ineffective.
D)Both steroid and non-steroid hormones would continue to be effective.
Q2) Which of the following statements about hormones is NOT true?
A)Hormones are secreted into the bloodstream.
B)Hormones are released from exocrine glands.
C)Hormones may be classified as peptides or steroids.
D)Hormones usually affect a target organ.
E)Cells that react to a hormone have specific receptors for that hormone.
Q3) The pituitary gland controls the hypothalamus by the production of antidiuretic hormones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The STD ______ causes an inflammation of the liver and is preventable by
A)hepatitis A,vaccination
B)hepatitis B,using a male condom
C)HIV,vaccination
D)gonorrhea,vaccination
E)syphilis,male condom
Q2) All of the following statements concerning activities in the female reproductive system are true EXCEPT
A)the follicles in the ovary produce estrogen.
B)a surge of FSH is believed to promote ovulation.
C)the placenta can produce both estrogen and progesterone.
D)LH stimulates the formation of the corpus luteum.
E)the corpus luteum produces progesterone.
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the stages of HIV infection?
A)A greater than 500 CD4 + T cells per microliter of blood.
B)A CD4 + T cell count between 200 and 499 per microliter of blood.
C)A CD4 + T cell count below 200 per microliter of blood.
D)Opportunistic infections.
E)Flat or raised lesions on the penis or vulva.
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Development of the human embryo's heart begins in the ____ week.
A)16<sup>th</sup>
B)3<sup>rd</sup>
C)1<sup>st</sup>
D)24<sup>th</sup>
E)6<sup>th</sup>
Q2) As we age we tend to see a decrease in the function of various body systems.A decrease in which system will lead to problems in regulating our temperature?
A)integumentary system
B)cardiovascular system
C)digestive system
D)respiratory system
E)excretory system
Q3) Development of the neural system is characterized by A)cell division and growth in size.
B)cells becoming specialized in structure and function.
C)body parts being shaped and patterned into a specific form.
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 43: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) The endocrine system produces hormones in the body and it can be manipulated to cause an individual to change their behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An example of territoriality is
A)barnacles attached to a boat bottom.
B)a cloud of moths attracted to a light.
C)a swarm of mosquitoes hovering around a sweaty person.
D)a red-winged blackbird singing to ward off other males and attract a female to the nest in his fencerow.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Scientists have discovered gene products,including the hormone ELH,that control all components of egg-laying behavior in Aplysia slugs.This discovery confirms that
A)the egg-laying behavior is innate or hardwired into the slug's brain.
B)the egg-laying behavior has absolutely no nervous system involvement.
C)genes can control endocrine gland secretions that control behavior.
D)this slug could avoid being eaten by garter snakes.
E)genes only influence physiology and structure but not behavior.
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Chapter 44: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many species are held below the environmental carrying capacity by predation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following factor(s)limit(s)exponential growth of a population?
A)limited resource availability
B)increases in predator populations
C)competition between members
D)competition with other species
E)All of these choices limit exponential growth.
Q3) Consider the life of the praying mantis.The large predatory female lays several hundred eggs in a foam mass in the fall.The young are most vulnerable when they emerge in the spring,but the few that survive spread out over the countryside and,if they find a mate,lay eggs the following fall.Which type of survivorship curve does this represent?
A)type I
B)type II
C)type III
D)exponential growth followed by a decline from resource depletion
E)maximal exponential growth and minimal use of carrying capacity
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Chapter 45: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) Clements proposed the climax-pattern model of succession.Governing factors for this model include
A)climate.
B)soil conditions.
C)each successive community preparing the way for the next.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following statements about ecological pyramids is true?
A)Pyramids built upon the biomass of organisms at each level eliminate size as a factor.
B)Energy gains between trophic levels occur based upon biomass conversion.
C)The limited number of trophic levels in an ecological pyramid is due to increasing complexity and size of organisms at each greater trophic level.
D)A pyramid of organism numbers will always have a large base and a small top.
E)None of the choices are true.
Q3) All food chains begin with a photosynthetic producer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following biomes is characterized by rich soils,insufficient rainfall for trees,and many herbivores?
A)grasslands
B)chaparral
C)desert
D)taiga
E)tundra
Q2) Incoming solar radiation affects
A)the rise and fall of air masses.
B)evaporation or precipitation of moisture.
C)the seasons.
D)All of these choices are directly or indirectly affected by solar radiation.
E)None of these are correct.
Q3) Which ocean current runs along the western coast of South America producing cold offshore winds?
A)Humboldt Current
B)equatorial countercurrent
C)Gulf Stream
D)West wind drift current
E)East wind drift
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Chapter 47: Conservation of Biodiversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are characteristics of a keystone species?
A)They influence the diversity of the community.
B)They evoke an emotional response in people.
C)They have a very large population.
D)They are always mammals.
E)None of these are characteristics of keystone species.
Q2) If all of the endangered species in the United States were to go extinct the Earth's biodiversity would decrease by _________.
A)approximately .007%
B)approximately 2.3%
C)approximately 10%
D)approximately 3.4%
E)approximately 16.2%
Q3) Why is there great value in preserving biodiversity hotspots?
A)These spots have a large diversity of species in them.
B)Preserved hotspots have a direct value to humans.
C)Hotspots have an indirect value to humans.
D)Biodiversity hotspots are a source of new medicines.
E)All of these are values in preserving biodiversity hotspots.
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