Introduction to Biology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology is a foundational course that explores the fundamental principles of life and living systems. Students will examine the structure and function of cells, the basics of genetics and heredity, the processes of evolution, and the diversity of organisms. The course will also introduce key concepts in ecology, energy flow, and the interdependence of life forms. Through lectures, laboratory work, and interactive activities, students will develop scientific thinking skills and gain an appreciation for the complexity and interconnectedness of biological systems.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Concepts and Investigations 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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Chapter 1: The Scientific Study of Life
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Q1) Which is the correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?
A) form hypothesis - observation - design an experiment - collect data - analyze results
B) form hypothesis - observation - collect data - analyze results - design an experiment
C) observation - form hypothesis - design an experiment - collect data - analyze results
D) observation - analyze results - form hypothesis - draw conclusions - design an experiment
E) observation - analyze results - draw conclusion - design an experiment - form hypothesis
Answer: C
Q2) All ecosystems
A) need a continuous outside energy source.
B) consist of only living organisms.
C) are entirely self-sufficient.
D) stay exactly the same once mature.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) An amino acid contains a structural "backbone" chain of
A) nitrogens and carbons.
B) phosphorus atoms.
C) carbons.
D) nitrogens.
E) carbon and phosphorus atoms.
Answer: A
Q2) ____ bonds are formed between monomers to form a polymer.
A) Hydrogen
B) Covalent
C) Nuclear
D) Hydrophobic
E) Ionic
Answer: B
Q3) Cohesion is a property of water in which water molecules tend to stick together.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Chloroplasts are not
A) responsible for cellular respiration.
B) organelles that carry out photosynthesis.
C) found in plants.
D) glucose synthesizers.
E) found in some members of the kingdom Protista.
Answer: A
Q2) The scientist(s)given credit for adding the third tenet (all cells come from preexisting cells)to the cell theory is (are)
A) Mathias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann.
B) Rudolf Virchow.
C) Louis Pasteur.
D) Robert Hooke.
E) Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
Answer: B
Q3) An understanding of cellular biology is helping us find new treatments for many diseases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Q1) Turgor pressure in plant cells is
A) a result of the walled cell being in a hypotonic environment.
B) due in part to osmosis.
C) necessary to keep plants from wilting.
D) the force of water against the inside of the cell wall.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) When electrons are removed from a food molecule it is
A) an exergonic reaction.
B) an endergonic reaction.
C) in equilibrium.
D) being reduced.
E) being oxidized.
Q3) For animals and other organisms consuming food,the molecular reactants to cellular respiration are
A) carbon dioxide and water.
B) entropy.
C) digestive enzymes.
D) glucose and oxygen.
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which organism depends on photosynthesis for its life?
A) All of the answer choices are correct.
B) a human
C) an oak tree
D) a coral
E) a sea slug
Q2) The energy source for the process of photosynthesis is
A) oxygen.
B) sunlight.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) chlorophyll.
E) glucose.
Q3) The energy sources needed for the light reactions and the carbon reactions respectively are
A) sunlight and ATP.
B) sunlight and carbon dioxide.
C) ATP and carbon dioxide.
D) Sunlight serves as the energy source for both sets of photosynthetic reactions.
E) ATP and sunlight.
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Q1) Identify which of these places the steps of cellular aerobic respiration in the correct sequence.
A) glycolysis - formation of Acetyl CoA - Krebs cycle - electron transport chain - ADP phosphorylation
B) photosystem II - electron transport chain - photosystem I - carbon reactions
C) glycolysis - electron transport chain - Krebs cycle - formation of Acetyl CoA - ADP phosphorylation
D) None of these are correct, because they all fail to include the formation of glucose molecules.
E) ADP phosphorylation - formation of Acetyl CoA - glycolysis - Krebs cycle - electron transport chain
Q2) The first steps in glycolysis involve
A) reducing glucose.
B) both the addition of two phosphates to glucose, and then splitting glucose.
C) adding two phosphates from ATP to glucose.
D) generation of ATP.
E) splitting glucose into two three-carbon molecules.
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Q1) The step of translation in which release factors bind to a stop codon is
A) transcription.
B) mitosis.
C) elongation.
D) termination.
E) initiation.
Q2) The process used by cells to convert the mRNA "message" into a sequence of amino acids is
A) mitosis.
B) replication.
C) amino acid synthesis.
D) transcription.
E) translation.
Q3) If E. coli bacteria are grown in the absence of lactose, then the repressor will A) not bind the operator allowing transcription of the lac operon genes.
B) bind the operator allowing transcription of the lac operon genes.
C) not bind the operator preventing transcription of the lac operon genes.
D) bind the operator preventing transcription of the lac operon genes.
E) coli bacteria are grown in the absence of lactose, then the repressor will
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication, mitosis, and the Cell Cycle
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Q1) The eukaryotic cell will complete the ___ portion of the cell cycle in order to___
A) interphase; build the mitotic spindle and metaphase plate between original and replicate chromosome groups.
B) cytokinesis; move the centrioles, centrosomes, and mitotic spindle into position to pull chromosomes apart.
C) mitosis; divide the original and replicated chromosomes.
D) synthesis; build the two new daughter cells from the original one cell.
E) binary fission; divide the original and replicated chromosomes.
Q2) Change in a cell's DNA sequence is a common occurrence in the process of replication.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes are aligned along the equator of the cell is
A) A, which is prophase.
B) A, which is prometaphase.
C) D, which is anaphase.
D) E, which is telophase.
E) C, which is metaphase.
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Q1) In meiosis,homologous chromosomes pair up,allowing crossing over to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The chromosomal combination for a human male is
A) YY.
B) XXX.
C) XX.
D) XO.
E) XY.
Q3) A hybrid plant becoming a new species in a generation is an example of
A) genetic drift.
B) stabilizing selection.
C) punctuated equilibrium.
D) artificial selection.
E) gradualism.
Q4) In mitosis,homologous chromosomes do not pair up.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) If a person has a recessive allele for a disorder and that allele is masked by presence of a normal dominant allele,this person A) is termed a carrier. B) has the disease but cannot pass this disease to their offspring. C) is homozygous for the disease. D) is termed a linkage group. E) cannot produce gametes.
Q2) In animals,each gamete arises from a diploid cell containing two sets of homologous chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The individual sometimes referred to as the "father of genetics" because he influenced the science of genetics more than anyone else is Gregor Mendel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Linkage maps are diagrams of nitrogen base sequences on DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Q1) A GMO is a transgenic organism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As researchers continue to use DNA technology to study genomes,one area of focus that could support evolutionary relationships between humans and chimpanzees is
A) going to determine how much of a "wild" genome humans have, providing ethical mandate for conservation of chimpanzees.
B) in linking specific genotypes to the phenotypes that show obvious appearance differences between the two species.
C) the study of whole chromosomes, and individual genes different among species, indicating potential sequences of evolutionary divergence.
D) that comparison of the two species' genomes may lead to new promise for gene therapy for treatment of diseases.
Q3) Unlike plants,the production of transgenic animals commonly relies on viruses as cloning vectors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: The Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Q1) The name for heritable traits that provide benefit and advantage for each individual in a population to survive and reproduce are
A) polymorphisms.
B) alleles.
C) adaptations.
D) genotypes.
E) superpositions.
Q2) The entire collection of genes and their alleles is a population's
A) recessive traits.
B) phenotype.
C) genotype.
D) dominant traits.
E) gene pool.
Q3) In figure (a),what was the dependent variable?
A) the mean weight of harvested fish
B) the species of fish
C) the size at which the fish were harvested
D) the age of the fish
E) the generation
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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) Some dinosaurs and birds share characteristics that make flight possible such as
A) All of the answer choices are correct.
B) hollow bones.
C) a horizontal back.
D) a short tail.
E) an upright stance.
Q2) According to fossil evidence,Tiktaalik either crawled or paddled in shallow,tropical streams,approximately 380 mya.These streams may have occasionally become anaerobic,but fossil structures in Tiktaalik indicate it could have what adaptation or selective advantage in these conditions?
A) It could swim better than fish with the adaptation for both gills and lungs.
B) It could lift and support its head to breath air with its lungs.
C) It could easily crawl long distances to find new water habitats when needed.
D) It could feed equally well on aquatic foods, and terrestrial foods.
Q3) Absolute dating uses ______ to estimate how old a fossil is.
A) a molecular clock
B) embryonic structures
C) depth within rock layers
D) radioactive isotopes
E) structural features
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Q1) The research by Bradshaw and Schemske supports the hypothesis that a change in just one gene locus may have jump-started speciation in Mimulus.If so,this would be an example of
A) gradualism.
B) postzygotic barriers to reproduction.
C) prezygotic barriers to reproduction.
D) punctuated equilibrium.
E) adaptive radiation.
Q2) From the data shown in the table,what can be concluded about the flower preferences of hummingbirds?
A) They prefer red flowers in either monkeyflower species.
B) They prefer yellow-orange flowers of the mutant M. lewisii.
C) They strongly prefer M. cardinalis, no matter the color of the flowers.
D) They prefer pink flowers, regardless of the monkeyflower species.
E) They prefer M. lewisii, no matter the color of the flowers.
Q3) Today,scientists can deduce evolutionary relationships by DNA sequence analysis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Origin and History of Life
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Q1) Why did Li and other University of Chicago scientists choose to conduct DNA sequencing on sections of DNA not encoding proteins?
A) Segments not encoding proteins would show less variability, due to relatively slow and consistent mutation rates.
B) The biotechnology necessary to sequence genes would be technologically much less reliable than for the non-encoding sequences.
C) They would have expected to find only two alleles for each gene, which would have been insufficient for testing the hypothesis.
D) Segments not encoding proteins would show more variability, due to adaptations associated with different habitats.
E) Segments not encoding proteins are common to many more species, so a type of experimental control was established.
Q2) The two major extinctions of living species occurred during the Mesozoic era. A)True B)False
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Chapter 16: Viruses
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Q1) If a person is treated with a single anti-HIV drug,they often end up with a resistant strain.How does this occur?
A) The drugs kill all sensitive viruses, leaving only the preexisting resistant viruses.
B) The HIV wants to avoid the drug, so it becomes resistant.
C) The drug causes mutations in the HIV, making them resistant to the drug.
D) The drugs weaken the immune system, making a patient more susceptible to infection with resistant strains of HIV.
Q2) The virus structure indicated by the arrow labeled A is the A) genetic material, DNA or RNA.
B) the bacteriophage.
C) the bacterial membrane.
D) the lipid-rich envelope.
E) the protein coat, or capsid.
Q3) Viruses can infect all higher life forms such as plants and animals,but cannot infect bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) In a tetanus shot,patients are injected with small amounts of tetanospasmin,a toxin produced by the Clostridium tetani,the bacterium that causes tetanus.The gene for this protein is carried on a plasmid in the bacterium.Which of the following is true of this gene?
A) It can enter another bacterium by transformation.
B) It cannot go through vertical gene transfer.
C) It is found in the nucleus of the Clostridium tetani.
D) It cannot go through horizontal gene transfer.
E) It is part of the Clostridium tetani chromosome.
Q2) The structure that aids in locomotion of some prokaryotes is a
A) pilus.
B) flagellum and cilium.
C) cilium.
D) flagellum and pilus.
E) flagellum.
Q3) Pili are bacterial structures used primarily for motility.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Protists
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Q1) In malaria,Plasmodium falciparum grow inside of which human cells?
A) liver and red blood cells
B) liver and intestinal cells
C) intestinal cells
D) red blood cells
E) liver cells
Q2) Where in a diatom would you find their yellowish photosynthetic pigment?
A) in chloroplasts
B) in the nucleus
C) in the plasma membrane
D) in the cell wall
E) in the cytoplasm
Q3) DNA sequence evidence suggests that plants,fungi,and animals arose from different lineages of unicellular protists.This suggests which of the following?
A) Multicellular organisms only arose once in evolutionary history.
B) Protists arose before the other three kingdoms.
C) All unicellular organisms are now extinct.
D) Early ancestors to plants, fungi, and animals could interbreed.
E) The animal, plant, and fungal kingdoms contain some single-celled organisms.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Plants
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Q1) A cotyledon is
A) both a nutritional resource and the first leaf for the embryonic plant.
B) the first leaf structure to arise in the embryo of an angiosperm.
C) a nutritional resource for the embryo plant.
D) a spore-like structure used for reproduction in plants.
E) a part of the fruit tissues of the plant.
Q2) In alternation of generations,a diploid sporophyte goes through meiosis to form ____ spores.
A) diploid
B) mega-
C) tetraploid
D) haploid
E) gameto-
Q3) Some evidence that algae are the closest relative to plants is that they both
A) use starch as a nutrient reserve.
B) have chloroplasts.
C) contain chlorophyll a.
D) All of the answer choices are correct.
E) have cellulose-rich cell walls.
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Chapter 20: Fungi
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Q1) Chytridiomycetes produce enzymes that digest cellulose,chitin,and similar molecules.These fungi are contributing to the decline of amphibians worldwide through what mechanism?
A) by digesting chitin in the cell wall of the frog's cells
B) by digesting cellulose in the cell wall of the frog's cells
C) by infecting their lungs
D) by killing their eggs in the water
E) by digesting keratin in the frog's skin
Q2) Salt and sugar in high enough concentrations retard mold growth by limiting the ability of these organisms to take up water by osmosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A lichen is made up of which two types of organisms?
A) a fungus and a bacterial species
B) a fungus and a nonvascular plant species
C) an alga and a nonvascular plant species
D) a fungus and either an algal or bacterial species
E) a fungus and an algal species
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Chapter 21: Animals
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Q1) Leeches and earthworms belong to the phylum containing the A) Nematodes.
B) Flatworms.
C) Sponges.
D) Annelids.
E) Mollusks.
Q2) Birds are endothermic,feathered reptiles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the echinoderms?
A) They have bilateral symmetry in larvae.
B) They exhibit cephalization.
C) They have spiny skin.
D) They have radial symmetry in adults.
E) They have a complete digestive tract.
Q4) Some animals are autotrophs.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) The ecological relationship between Humboldtia brunonis and Technomyrmex albipes,described in Investigating Life 22.5,is which of the following?
A) predation
B) parasitism
C) competition
D) commensalism
E) mutualism
Q2) In the spring,before the leaves come out,maple trees are often tapped to collect sap to make syrup.The sugars were stored in the wood of the tree as starch and then released as temperatures rise above freezing in late winter.Which of the following best describes the original source of the sugars found in the sap?
A) photosynthesis occurring in the spring while the sap is flowing
B) absorbed from the soil.
C) photosynthesis during the previous summer
D) breakdown of cellulose in the tree
E) photosynthesis that winter
Q3) Root hairs greatly increase the absorptive surface area of a root.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Your professor brings in a soybean plant,having pulled it up roots and all from a nearby farm field.Small growths on the roots are shown to have bacteria,which the professor explains can "fix" nitrogen into a usable form for the plant.The growths are called
A) sieve tubes.
B) nodules.
C) root hairs.
D) nodes.
E) internodes.
Q2) A normal pitcher has a narrow keel and a wide pitcher opening,maximizing the potential for trapping prey.On the other hand,a leaf optimized for photosynthesis has a wide keel and a small pitcher opening.Based on this observation and the figure,what conclusion can be drawn?
A) high nitrogen correlated with increased trapping ability
B) high phosphorus correlated with increased photosynthetic ability
C) high nitrogen correlated with increased photosynthetic ability
D) high phosphorus correlated with increased trapping ability
Q3) The B horizon soil consists of most of the humus found in soil.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Q1) All tropisms result from differential growth in which one side of the responding organ grows faster than the other.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cytokinins are water-soluble hormones produced in the root apical meristem and stimulate the growth of lateral buds.How do cytokinins reach the lateral buds?
A) through the phloem or xylem
B) through the xylem
C) through the phloem
D) by diffusion as a gas
E) through the phloem or by diffusion as a gas
Q3) If you wanted a grass plant to bend to the right,where would you want to apply auxin?
A) on the right side of the tip of the grass
B) on the left side of the grass, a few centimeters down from the tip
C) on the left side of the tip of the grass
D) on the right side of the grass, a few centimeters down from the tip
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Chapter 25: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Q1) If excess sweating led to dehydration and too high concentrations of salts in the bloodstream,which of the following would occur?
A) The hypothalamus would signal the kidney to release more salt into the urine.
B) The hypothalamus would signal the kidney to absorb more salt from the urine.
C) Two answers are correct.
D) None of the answer choices are correct.
E) The liver would signal the kidney to release more salt from the urine
Q2) Melanin is produced in which of the following tissue types?
A) epithelial
B) connective
C) muscle
D) nervous
E) endocrine
Q3) Epithelial tissues never have a free surface exposed to a space inside the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both loose and dense connective tissue contain fibroblasts.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: The Nervous System
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Q1) The purpose of the nodes of Ranvier is to start nerve impulses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you read about a drug designed to lead to more release of dopamine from the synaptic terminals of certain brain neurons,you would know that the drug was designed to fix synaptic function and thus cure A) epilepsy.
B) insomnia.
C) Alzheimer disease.
D) Huntington disease.
E) Parkinson disease.
Q3) The part of the neuron that is usually a single long extension that conducts an impulse to a muscle or another neuron is the A) synapse.
B) cell body.
C) axon.
D) dendrite.
E) node of Ranvier.
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Chapter 27: The Senses
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Q1) Receptors for the special senses are limited to the A) head.
B) tongue.
C) ears.
D) feet.
E) abdomen.
Q2) The point where the optic nerve exits the retina is called the A) fovea.
B) blind spot.
C) sclera.
D) choroid.
E) vitreous humor.
Q3) The part of the eye that focuses light onto a sheet of photoreceptors is the A) lens.
B) cone.
C) pupil.
D) retina.
E) iris.
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Chapter 28: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Lipid-soluble steroid hormones are synthesized from
A) cholesterol.
B) amino acids.
C) nucleotides.
D) proteins with large amounts of tryptophan.
E) sucrose.
Q2) If you were grading an exam on the endocrine system and found the following answers listed as endocrine glands,which would be marked wrong?
A) hypothalamus
B) testes
C) gall bladder
D) pineal gland
E) adrenal gland
Q3) Which of the following hormones is released by the posterior pituitary gland?
A) insulin
B) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) oxytocin
D) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
E) None of the answer choices is correct.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) If you wanted to genetically engineer a goat so that it had finer muscle control than other goats,what would be your goal?
A) fewer muscle fibers per motor neuron
B) more motor neurons
C) more muscle fibers
D) larger sarcomeres
E) longer motor neurons
Q2) If you injected a calcium-channel blocking chemical into muscle cells,what would probably happen?
A) The muscle cell would be unable to communicate with nerves.
B) The muscle cell would be unable to contract.
C) The muscle cell would relax more slowly.
D) The muscle cell would die.
E) The muscle cell would divide.
Q3) One of the critical functions of the vertebrate skeleton is helping to generate movement,along with the muscular system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: The Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you were shown a patient with a problem having water and dissolved substances diffuse between the blood and interstitial fluid,you should first examine the state of the patient's
A) arteries.
B) veins.
C) lymph vessels.
D) capillaries.
E) sieve tubes.
Q2) The proteins needed to form blood clots are known as clotting factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood clotting is prompted by signals from the central nevous system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cardiac output may be increased by a
A) greater-than-normal heart rate.
B) lower-than-normal stroke volume.
C) lower-than-normal stroke volume and heart rate.
D) greater-than-normal stroke volume.
E) greater-than-normal stroke volume and heart rate.
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Chapter 31: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Emphysema is caused by destruction of the walls between alveoli,leading to hyperinflation of the lungs.Which of the following would occur in the lungs of someone with emphysema?
A) decreased uptake of carbon dioxide
B) decreased uptake of glucose
C) decreased uptake of oxygen
D) decreased rate of respiration
E) decreased heart rate
Q2) You are dealing with a patient in a coma,so you order a brain scan to help diagnose the cause of elevated respiration rate.The scan shows elevated activity in the medulla,and the patient's records indicate a life of work around irritating chemicals,so you suspect that the patient has
A) cystic fibrosis.
B) asthma.
C) emphysema.
D) apnea.
E) tuberculosis.
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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Symbiotic bacteria in the large intestine help prevent infection by pathogenic bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The solid waste that leaves the digestive tract of a vertebrate is called chyme.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The name for rhythmic smooth muscle contractions occurring along the human digestive system that propel food along the system are termed
A) countercurrent exchange.
B) phagocytosis.
C) peristalsis.
D) rumination.
E) sphincter contractions.
Q4) Acid reflux or "heartburn" is caused when the gastric juice moves back into the esophagus through the pyloric sphincter.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you awoke and looked out your window and saw a gopher shaking,what might be true about the temperature outside?
A) It is very cold, and the gopher is shivering to help thermoregulate.
B) It is very hot, and the gopher is trying to increase perspiration.
C) It is hot and dry, causing the gopher to have kidney problems.
D) Temperatures are moderate, and the gopher may be trying to attract a mate.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) Hyponatremia is a condition characterized by low sodium in the blood.This is a concern for marathon runners who drink too much water,and can cause life-threatening pressure on the brain.Why would this occur?
A) Neurons would take up the sodium from the blood and not be able to polarize.
B) Neurons would be stimulated to all fire at once.
C) Neurons would swell by osmosis.
D) Neurons die in low levels of sodium.
E) Neurons cannot give the kidneys signals to reabsorb sodium ions.
Q3) An endotherm typically will have a karger nasal cavity than an ectotherm of equivalent mass.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: The Immune System
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Q1) Which of the following is part of the adaptive,rather than the innate,immune response?
A) cilia that sweep bacteria out of the respiratory tract
B) the process of inflammation
C) antibody production
D) fever production
E) the complement protein production
Q2) In a process called _____,an army of plasma cells and memory cells are produced from properly stimulated B cells.
A) conjugation
B) meiotic regeneration
C) recombination
D) clonal selection
E) genetic shuffling
Q3) A doctor who attempted to induce a fever in a patient might be trying to help fight a pathogen or a cancer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Male redback spiders benefit when they are eaten by their mates because A) they ultimately have higher reproductive success.
B) they are only partially eaten and can regrow lost parts.
C) they would die soon after copulation anyway.
D) they don't have to fight other males.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) Substances that cause birth defects are collectively called A) androgens.
B) prostaglandins.
C) teratogens.
D) follicle-stimulating hormones.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) Fertilization of a secondary oocyte normally occurs in the A) ovary.
B) vagina.
C) uterine tube.
D) uterus.
E) peritoneal cavity.
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of behavior that causes babies of many animals to back away from a visual cliff is a(n)
A) innate behavior.
B) habituation.
C) behavior learned by observation.
D) All of the answer choices are correct.
E) learned behavior.
Q2) In the wild,an animal avoids a food that had previously made it sick.This animal is exhibiting which of the following?
A) operant conditioning
B) classical conditioning
C) habituation
D) observational learning
E) imprinting
Q3) In almost all cases,innate and learned behaviors are determined by both genetics and environment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the island of Guam,a single type of nonnative organism,the black-footed ferret,is responsible for the disappearance of at least 12 species of birds and small reptiles from the island.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The movement of individuals into another population is termed A) expatriation.
B) emigration.
C) clumping.
D) immigration.
E) population dispersion.
Q3) The government of China offers financial incentives to encourage citizens to have children.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When exponential growth is plotted over time,an S-shaped curve emerges.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Walleye pike tend to live in deep waters and feed at night.Northern pike live in shallower waters and feed all day.Which of the following best explains these differences?
A) mutualism
B) predation
C) parasitism
D) commensalism
E) competition
Q2) Why are top-level predators like lions and eagles so rare in a community?
A) Only a small amount of the energy is available to top trophic levels.
B) It is difficult for them to learn how to capture prey.
C) They do not breed as fast as other animals.
D) Their job is to keep the population size of other animals in check.
E) Because of predation by higher predators.
Q3) An example of a keystone species is a root-associated fungus that conifer trees need in order to survive and that supply food for rodents.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Biomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Grasslands,forests,lakes,and deserts are all examples of terrestrial biomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Small plants that grow on the bark or leaves of another plant are called
A) epiphytes.
B) endophytes.
C) parasites.
D) lichens.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) The rain shadow associated with mountains is on the _____ side and has a _____ climate than the _____ side of the mountain.
A) downwind; wetter; upwind
B) upwind; drier; downwind
C) downwind; drier; upwind
D) upwind; wetter; downwind
Q4) The rain shadow of a mountain is found on the downwind side of the mountain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Preserving Biodiversity
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Q1) Alpine chipmunks have moved to higher elevations in the last century as temperatures at Yellowstone warmed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary cause for loss of biodiversity is
A) predation.
B) parasitism.
C) genetic mutation.
D) habitat destruction.
E) global warming.
Q3) The zebra mussel and the gypsy moth both have reduced biodiversity in North America.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Many environmentalists believe that reducing human population growth could improve environmental issues.
A)True
B)False
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