Introduction to Biology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles that govern life and living organisms. This course covers a broad range of topics including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecological relationships, and the diversity of life forms. Students will explore the scientific method, understand biological molecules, and examine processes such as metabolism, respiration, and reproduction. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of biology in everyday life and its applications in fields such as medicine, environmental science, and biotechnology. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students develop critical thinking and scientific inquiry skills necessary for further study in biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 1st Edition by Marille Hoefnagels
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Chapter 1: Scientific Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an experiment designed to determine if a fertilizer increased crop yield in tomato plants,the number of tomatoes produced by each plant would be the independent variable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Homeostasis of an organism is demonstrated by
A)a population changing over time.
B)environmental conditions holding constant through time.
C)cells having enough water to survive.
D)plants and animals needing energy sources.
E)an organism maintaining nearly constant internal conditions.
Answer: E
Q3) How does the bacterium S.aureus reproduce?
A)asexually only
B)sexually only
C)sexually and asexually
D)developmentally only
E)developmentally and sexually
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A process by which cells build large molecules from monomers is
A)hydrolysis.
B)reproduction.
C)dehydration synthesis.
D)hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis.
E)unrelated to chemical bonds.
Answer: C
Q2) The atomic number of an atom or element is
A)the number of neutrons in the nucleus.
B)the number of electrons in the nucleus.
C)the number of protons in the nucleus.
D)the number of neutrons in the orbitals.
E)the number of protons in the orbitals.
Answer: C
Q3) A peptide bond is a covalent bond formed between amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cytoskeleton is
A)a structure that aids in the process of cell division.
B)found in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.
C)a system of tracks used for transport.
D)composed of microtubules and microfilaments.
E)All answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) When phospholipids are mixed with water their ____ are attracted to water and their ____ are repelled by water,forming a lipid bilayer.
A)hydrophobic heads;hydrophilic tails
B)hydrophobic tails;hydrophilic heads
C)hydrophilic heads;hydrophobic tails
D)hydrophilic tails;hydrophobic heads
E)hydrophilic heads;hydrophilic tails
Answer: C
Q3) Endosymbiosis is a theory based on the resemblance of chloroplasts and ribosomes to bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: Does Natural Selection Maintain Cystic Fibrosis?",if two carriers of the defective CFTR gene have a child,what is the probability that the child will have cystic fibrosis?
A)75%
B)50%
C)100%
D)0%
E)25%
Q2) Noncompetitive inhibition of enzymes
A)occurs when a substance other than the correct substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme.
B)occurs when a substance binds to an enzyme at a site away from the active site.
C)occurs by denaturation of an enzyme.
D)occurs by blocking the production of an enzyme.
E)occurs when two enzymes bind together.
Q3) Phagocytosis is a process that cells primarily use to obtain nutrients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: Solar-Powered Sea Slugs",chloroplast DNA encodes less than 10% of the proteins required for photosynthesis;the remaining proteins are encoded by DNA in plant nuclei.Elysia chlorotica sea slugs are able to photosynthesize with chloroplasts from the algae they consume.Which hypothesis was tested and supported in explanation of this observation?
A)Some sea slug genes were present in chloroplast chromosomes.
B)Chloroplasts can function without some proteins involved in photosynthesis.
C)The sea slugs have to continuously consume chloroplasts to replace the older ones.
D)Some chloroplast genes were present in the sea slug chromosomes.
E)Only photosystem II is necessary for photosynthesis.
Q2) For many plants to grow well in hot,dry weather,they must be watered so their stomata will remain open for longer periods of time to let in oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The light reactions of photosynthesis can occur in the day and night.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reactants for cellular respiration are
A)glucose and ATP.
B)water and ATP.
C)oxygen and ATP.
D)glucose and oxygen.
E)carbon dioxide and glucosE.
Q2) In the section "Investigating Life: Plants' Alternative Lifestyles Yield Hot Sex",the rate of carbon dioxide production by Cyclocephala colasi beetles was used to measure their A)ability to pollinate flowers.
B)rate of photosynthesis.
C)body temperature.
D)level of activity.
E)rate of respiration.
Q3) Fermentation uses an inorganic molecule as the electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
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8
Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which cells use the information of RNA to make proteins is called transcription.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is conducted by both prokaryotes and eukaryotes during protein synthesis?
A)Transcription starts at a promoter on the DNA.
B)Introns are removed from the mRNA.
C)Transcription occurs in the nucleus.
D)All answers are correct.
E)Some mRNA molecules are degraded and never translated.
Q3) Mutations create new alleles that
A)are beneficial to the organism's fitness.
B)have no effect on the fitness of the organism.
C)decrease the fitness of the organism.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) A poly A tail is added to the mature mRNA after transcription.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is correct about both binary fission and mitosis?
A)Both are asexual forms of cell reproduction.
B)Both result in genetically-identical cells.
C)Both replicate the DNA before the cell splits.
D)Both result in two daughter cells.
E)All answers are correct.
Q2) Eukaryotic chromosomes become visible with a light microscope before cell division because
A)they become less tightly wound.
B)they become more tightly wound.
C)they increase in length.
D)they leave the cell.
E)they increase in length and leave the cell.
Q3) If a mutation causes the "G" base in the base sequence 5' AATGAC 3' to be read as a "T" base,DNA replication of the mutated sequence will read
A)3' AATTAC 5'.
B)3' TTCCTG 5'.
C)3' GGCCGT 5'.
D)3' TTAATG 5'.
E)3' AATGAC 5'.
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Meiotic cell division replicates a cell's DNA ____________ and then divides
A)twice,once
B)once,twice
C)twice,twice
D)once,once
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q2) In meiosis II,cytokinesis results in the production of
A)two haploid daughter cells.
B)four diploid daughter cells.
C)four haploid daughter cells.
D)two diploid daughter cells.
E)one daughter cell identical to the parent cell that underwent meiosis.
Q3) Homologous chromosomes contain the same ____ but may contain different
A)alleles,genes
B)sister chromatids,genes
C)alleles,sister chromatids
D)genes,sister chromatids
E)genes,alleles
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What information is available on the outside of the boxes in the figure?
A)possible alleles the parents can pass to the offspring
B)alleles in the gametes of the parents
C)genotypes of the gametes
D)genotypes of the parents
E)All answers are correct.
Q2) A monohybrid cross is a mating between two individuals that are both
A)homozygous for one gene.
B)heterozygous for two genes.
C)homozygous for two genes.
D)heterozygous for one gene.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q3) In the ABO blood type system,the I<sup>A</sup> allele is _____ with the I<sup>B</sup> allele.
A)dominant
B)codominant
C)recessive
D)homologous
E)heterologous
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Page 12
Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: What Makes Us Human?",what may explain why the genomes of humans and chimpanzees are so similar,yet our phenotypes are so different?
A)Humans and chimpanzees have almost all the same genes,but turn on and off different genes resulting in different phenotypes.
B)Most human genes are located in the noncoding regions,while most chimpanzee genes are located in the coding regions.
C)Most chimpanzee genes are located in the noncoding regions,while most human genes are located in the coding regions.
D)Human genes are transcribed more frequently than chimpanzee genes.
E)Human genes are translated more frequently than chimpanzee genes.
Q2) Electrophoresis is used in DNA sequencing
A)to separate the DNA fragments.
B)to make copies of the DNA fragments.
C)to transfer DNA between organisms.
D)to remove DNA from an organism.
E)All answers are correct.
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Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Populations of ______ evolve.
A)only animals
B)only plants and animals
C)all living organisms
D)only multicellular organisms
E)only unicellular organisms
Q2) "Survival of the fittest" refers to
A)natural selection.
B)selection of organisms with high reproductive contribution to the next generation.
C)selection of individuals with traits that increase fitness.
D)higher allele frequencies of individuals best fit for the current environmental conditions in the next generation.
E)All answers are correct.
Q3) Alleles conferring red plumage to cardinal males are common because red plumage
A)makes males less susceptible to predation.
B)is helpful in attracting prey.
C)is preferred by female cardinals in choosing a mate.
D)allows male cardinals to easily identify each other.
E)is an example of genetic drift.
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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The wings of a bat and a bird are examples of
A)analogous structures.
B)homologous structures.
C)vestigial structures.
D)homeotic structures.
E)heterologous structures.
Q2) Carbon-14 is useful in determining the age of a fossil up to about
A)40,000 years ago.
B)10,000 years ago.
C)20,000 years ago.
D)50,000 years ago.
E)100,000 years ago.
Q3) What is needed to estimate species relatedness with a molecular clock?
A)DNA accumulates mutations at a regular rate
B)known mutation rate for a gene
C)the number of differences in DNA sequences for a gene in two species
D)the same gene identified in two species
E)All answers are correct.
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The idea that evolution proceeds in small,incremental changes over many generations is
A)temporal isolation.
B)gradualism.
C)punctuated equilibrium.
D)hybrid breakdown.
E)mechanical isolation.
Q2) The process by which species cease to exist
A)has never occurred.
B)is speciation.
C)is extinction.
D)is occurring today at a faster rate than ever before.
E)All answers are correct.
Q3) The more heritable traits organisms share,the more taxonomic levels they share.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An evolutionary tree depicts species' relationships based on descent from shared ancestors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main storage carbohydrate in fungi is
A)glycogen.
B)glucose.
C)starch.
D)cellulose.
E)chitin.
Q2) Entamoeba histolytica can cause amoebic dysentery.It moves using pseudopodia,feeds heterotrophically,and is unicellular.Entamoeba histolytica is which of the following?
A)a protozoan
B)an alga
C)a slime mold
D)a diatom
E)a dinoflagellate
Q3) Streptomyces are aerobic soil bacteria that produce over two-thirds of our antibiotics of natural origin.These antibiotics should also be effective in killing Streptomyces.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The four phyla of the gymnosperms are
A)monocotyledons,dicotyledons,conifers,and cycads.
B)horsetails,true ferns,whisk ferns,and club mosses.
C)conifers,monocotyledons,dicotyledons,and cycads.
D)mosses,liverworts,club mosses,and hornworts.
E)conifers,cycads,ginkgos,and gnetophytes.
Q2) What part of plant cells contains chlorophyll a and carries out photosynthesis?
A)mitochondrion
B)chloroplast
C)central vacuole
D)cell membrane
E)Golgi body
Q3) How have plants transformed the world?
A)Food source for many animals,fungi,and even some prokaryotes and protists
B)Habitat for breeding,rearing young,and escaping predators
C)Photosynthesis provides oxygen for aerobic respiration to make ATP
D)Fibers for clothing and paper
E)All answers are correct.
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18
Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of body symmetry in which any plane passing through the body from the mouth to the opposite end divides the body into mirror images is
A)longitudinal symmetry.
B)mirrored symmetry.
C)bilateral symmetry.
D)radial symmetry.
E)asymmetry.
Q2) The only living member of the genus Homo is Homo habilis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some animals are autotrophs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The tendency to concentrate sensory organs and brain at the head end of an animal is called cephalization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of new individuals produced per unit time in a population is its A)immigration rate.
B)emigration rate.
C)death rate.
D)birth rate.
E)expatriation ratE.
Q2) All of the organisms in a given location or area are termed a A)peer group.
B)flock.
C)community.
D)population.
E)herd.
Q3) The physical location where an organism lives is termed its A)home boundary.
B)range.
C)habitat.
D)community.
E)ecosystem.
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Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A network of interconnected food chains is a food web.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The total amount of energy trapped by the autotrophs of an ecosystem is called
A)net primary consumption.
B)gross primary productivity.
C)gross primary consumption.
D)net primary productivity.
E)net energy fixation.
Q3) Biomagnification occurs with chemicals that
A)dissolve in only acidic solvents.
B)dissolve in water.
C)are not readily degraded and dissolve in fat.
D)are not readily degraded and dissolve in water.
E)dissolve in only basic solvents.
Q4) Streams lead to rivers that carry water and sediment toward the ocean or an interior basin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are extinctions related to biodiversity?
A)The more extinctions,the lower the species biodiversity.
B)The more extinctions,the lower the habitat biodiversity.
C)The more extinctions,the higher the genetic biodiversity.
D)The more extinctions,the higher the species biodiversity.
E)The more extinctions,the higher the habitat diversity.
Q2) Purple loosestrife are
A)an exotic species.
B)a native species.
C)a consumer.
D)a parasite.
E)a beneficial species.
Q3) The pH of acid deposition occurring in the eastern United States is about
A)4.6.
B)5.6.
C)6.4.
D)7.0.
E)8.4.
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Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A collective term for all plant tissues outside the vascular cambium is
A)mesophyll.
B)bark.
C)leaf.
D)wooD.
E)cork cambium.
Q2) Carnivorous plants exist only in science fiction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following best describes a compound leaf?
A)multiple blades attached to a single petiole
B)a single blade attached to a petiole
C)a single leaflet attached to a petiole
D)multiple leaflets attached to a single petiole
Q4) Stems that coil around surrounding objects for support are
A)always parasitic.
B)tendrils.
C)stomata.
D)rhizomes.
E)tubers.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the late 1870s,Charles Darwin and his son Francis discovered that if the tip of the grass was covered,phototropism did not occur,even though the rest of the grass was exposed to light.However,if the rest of the plant was covered and only the tip exposed to light,the grass bent a few centimeters below the tip.Which of the following was sensing the light?
A)auxin-producing cells in the tip of the grass
B)auxin-detecting cells in the tip of the grass
C)auxin-producing cells a few centimeters below the tip of the grass
D)auxin-detecting cells a few centimeters below the tip of the grass
Q2) How are animals involved in the life cycle of plants?
A)as pollinators only
B)as pollinators and seed dispersers
C)as seed dispersers only
D)as seed germinators only
E)as seed germinators and dispersers
Q3) A farmer might use gibberellins to stimulate stem elongation in plants,thereby increasing the crop yield in some plants.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) One way humans maintain body temperature is by increasing blood flow to the skin and sweating.Which organ systems are interacting in this process?
A)circulatory and muscular
B)muscular and integumentary
C)endocrine and muscular
D)circulatory and integumentary
E)endocrine and circulatory
Q2) The different types of animal tissue include
A)epithelial tissue.
B)connective tissue.
C)muscle tissue.
D)nervous tissue.
E)All answers are correct.
Q3) What is the primary function of melanin?
A)increasing absorption of UV radiation
B)decreasing water loss
C)increasing muscle strength
D)decreasing absorption of UV radiation
E)increasing synthesis of vitamins
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Chapter 24: Nervous System and the Senses
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Q1) The dendrite,also called the nerve fiber,is typically a single long extension of the cell body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a person has been prescribed eyeglasses with concave lenses it is most likely to correct for that person
A)having astigmatism.
B)being farsighted.
C)being cross-eyed.
D)None of the answers are correct.
E)being nearsighted.
Q3) The part of the brain that coordinates muscular movements is the A)cerebellum.
B)hypothalamus.
C)medulla oblongata.
D)pons.
E)cerebrum.
Q4) A receptor potential is a graded potential that occurs in a sensory receptor.
A)True B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 25: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Steroid hormones
A)are typically lipid-soluble.
B)typically do not bind to a surface receptor on a target cell.
C)pass through cell membranes.
D)typically alter gene expression.
E)All answers are correct.
Q2) The hormone produced by the adrenal gland that constricts blood vessels and slows digestion is
A)calcitonin.
B)epinephrine.
C)insulin.
D)glucagon.
E)testosteronE.
Q3) Lipid-soluble hormones move easily through the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pancreas functions as an endocrine gland by producing and secreting digestive enzymes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) What connective tissue provides a mold which bone replaces until bone growth is complete?
A)cartilage
B)red bone marrow
C)yellow bone marrow
D)compact bone
E)spongy bone
Q2) What letter in the figure of a long bone corresponds to the location where red blood cells and platelets are made?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) Where are blood cells produced?
A)in red marrow inside of bones
B)in yellow marrow inside of bones
C)in joints by creatine phosphate
D)in the liver
E)in the spleen
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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which main tissue type of the circulatory system regulates airflow to alveoli?
A)connective
B)nonvascular
C)muscle
D)nervous
E)vascular
Q2) The instrument that measures blood pressure is the A)barometer.
B)stethoscope.
C)electrocardiogram.
D)sphygmomanometer.
E)hygrometer.
Q3) The upper chambers of the mammalian heart are the A)ventricles.
B)arteries.
C)vascular cavities.
D)atria.
E)sinuses.
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Chapter 28: Regulating Temperature, nutrients, and Body
Fluids
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Q1) The diffusion of water across a membrane that is permeable to water but not to ions and other charged solutes is
A)facilitated diffusion.
B)active transport.
C)simple diffusion.
D)osmosis.
E)phagocytosis.
Q2) Tiny finger-like projections along the small intestine that are used to absorb nutrients are
A)ciliA.
B)flagella.
C)villi.
D)Pacinian corpuscles.
E)tentacles.
Q3) Which of the following produces bile?
A)gall bladder
B)liver
C)stomach
D)pancreas
E)appendix
Page 30
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Chapter 29: The Immune System
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Q1) Which of the following are examples of active immunity?
A)a fetus acquiring antibodies through the placenta,or a person receiving an injection of antibodies
B)antibodies produced from a vaccine,or a person receiving an injection of antibodies
C)only antibodies produced from a vaccine
D)only a fetus acquiring antibodies through the placenta
E)only a person receiving an injection of antibodies
Q2) Which of the following is not part of the innate defense response?
A)cilia that sweep bacteria out of the respiratory tract
B)the process of inflammation
C)antibody production
D)fever production
E)the complement-protein system
Q3) Which of the following correctly describes B cells and T cells?
A)B cells and T cells are lymphocytes.
B)B cells and T cells attack cancerous cells in the body.
C)B cells and T cells attack foreign particles in the body.
D)B cells and T cells are not innate defenses.
E)All answers are correct.
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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
77 Verified Questions
77 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/61951
Sample Questions
Q1) A female salmon laying unfertilized eggs in a nest is preparing them for ____ by a male salmon.
A)external fertilization
B)internal fertilization
C)indirect development
D)direct development
E)differentiation
Q2) Taking antibiotics can disrupt the microbial community of the vagina and create an opportunity for the yeast Candida albicans to cause an infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A caterpillar turning into a butterfly is an example of
A)external fertilization.
B)internal fertilization.
C)indirect development.
D)direct development.
E)reproduction.
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