Introduction to Biology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts that form the foundation of life sciences. This course explores key topics such as the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of organisms. Students will gain an understanding of biological systems, learn about the scientific method, and develop skills for conducting experiments and analyzing data. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of biology in daily life and its role in addressing global challenges such as health, environment, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Algae in the genus Caulerpa typically grow to a length of over half a meter and have structures similar to stems,leaves,and roots.Reproduction occurs when adults produce sperm and eggs that fuse to form offspring.Each adult Caulerpa consists of just a single cell,however.Which of the following statements is true?
A)Caulerpa violate the pattern component of the cell theory that all organisms consist of cells.
B)Caulerpa violate the process component of the cell theory that all cells come from preexisting cells.
C)Caulerpa violate both the pattern and process components of the cell theory.
D)The existence of Caulerpa is consistent with the cell theory.
Answer: D
Q2) Recall Pasteur's experiment on spontaneous generation.If he had just warmed the nutrient-rich broth,rather than boiled it,what would have been the likely outcome of his experiment?
A)Cells would not have appeared in either flask.
B)Cells would have appeared in both flasks.
C)Cells would have appeared in the swan-neck,but not the straight-neck flask.
D)Cells would have appeared in the straight-neck,but not the swan-neck flask.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) To act as an effective coolant in a car's radiator,a substance has to be a liquid at the temperatures found in your car's engine and have the capacity to absorb a great deal of heat.You have a reference book with tables listing the physical properties of many liquids.In choosing a coolant for your car,which table would you check first?
A)pH
B)density at room temperature
C)heat of vaporization
D)specific heat
Answer: D
Q2) An atom has six electrons in its valence shell.How many single covalent bonds would you expect it to form in most circumstances?
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)six
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A peptide bond _____.
A)forms between the functional groups of different amino acids
B)forms between the central carbon and the amino group of a single amino acid
C)forms the primary structure of proteins
D)does not play a role in maintaining the tertiary structure of proteins
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following involves an increase in entropy?
A)hydrolysis
B)condensation
C)polymerization
D)chemical evolution
Answer: A
Q3) How does primary protein structure affect the function of protein enzymes?
A)Substrates interact with R-groups at the enzyme's active site.
B)Substrates interact with R-groups at the enzyme's external surface.
C)Substrates interact with hydrophobic R-groups at any region of the enzyme.
D)Substrates permanently bind to R-groups at the enzyme's active site.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) RNA and proteins combine in cells to form structures called ribosomes.Ribosomes contain the active site for peptide bond formation.Based on their chemical structures,do you think protein or RNA molecules actually form the active site within the ribosome?
A)protein,because RNA cannot catalyze reactions
B)RNA,because proteins cannot catalyze a reaction that involves another protein
C)proteins,because only proteins can catalyze a reaction that involves another protein
D)It could be either,because both molecules have catalytic properties.
Q2) In the acid-base reaction described in the preceding paragraph about Nakano's research on RNAs,a proton (H )is being transferred.What is acting as the proton acceptor?
A)cytosine
B)magnesium hydroxide
C)the virus
D)cytosine,magnesium hydroxide,or the virus
Q3) Is Nakano's quote from Science consistent with the textbook's claim that RNA is a good candidate for the first life-form?
A)yes
B)no
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) Which of the following molecules would you expect to have the most free energy per gram?
A)one with carbon and hydrogen atoms only
B)one with carbon,hydrogen,and oxygen atoms only
C)one with a variety of atoms that are found in cells
D)one with hydrogen and oxygen atoms only
Q2) Which polysaccharide is an important component in the structure of many animals and fungi?
A)chitin
B)cellulose
C)peptidoglycan
D)amylose
Q3) Which of these best reflects the following relationship: Monosaccharide versus polysaccharide?
A)glucose versus glycogen
B)glucose versus fructose
C)1,4-glycosidic linkage versus 1,6-glycosidic linkage
D) -linkage versus -linkage
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) Which of the following functions do lipids provide in a cell?
A)structural
B)cell identification
C)information storage
D)neither structural,cell identification,nor information storage
Q2) You have just discovered an organism that lives in extremely cold environments.Which of the following would you predict to be true about the phospholipids in its membranes,compared to phospholipids in the membranes of organisms that live in warmer environments?
A)The membrane phospholipids of cold-adapted organisms will have longer hydrocarbon tails.
B)The membrane phospholipids of cold-adapted organisms will have more saturated hydrocarbon tails.
C)The membrane phospholipids of cold-adapted organisms will have more unsaturated hydrocarbon tails.
Q3) What most distinguishes lipids from other biomolecules is _____.
A)that only lipids contain hydrogen atoms
B)their molecular weight (size)
C)their chemical properties
D)where they are found in the body
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Actin filaments have polarity.This means that the two ends can be identified due to structural differences.The plus end is the end to which subunits are added more rapidly,or the end of polymerization.Which of the following would enable you to identify the plus end of actin filaments?
A)Add radiolabeled actin subunits to a mixture of actin filaments in which conditions are favorable for polymerization.
B)Add radiolabeled actin subunits to a mixture of actin filaments in which conditions favor depolymerization.
C)Determine the ionic charge of the ends of the actin filaments.
Q2) To what does the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules,typical of cilia and eukaryotic flagella,refer?
A)the arrangement of dynein arms with respect to each microtubule
B)the arrangement of microtubules within the axoneme
C)the spoke-like arrangement of the cross sections of cilia or flagella
D)the relationship between the basal body and the axoneme
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disorder in humans in which antibodies are produced against the cadherins of desmosomes.The blistering of the skin and mucous membranes characteristic of this disorder is probably a result of _____.
A)a decrease in flexibility of the cell membrane
B)an inadequate number of G-protein receptors
C)inadequate production of cytoskeletal proteins
D)a loss in cell-cell adhesion
Q2) Put the steps of the process of signal transduction in the order they occur:
1)A conformational change in the signal-receptor complex activates an enzyme.
2)Protein kinases are activated.
3)A signal molecule binds to a receptor.
4)Target proteins are phosphorylated.
5)Second messenger molecules are released.
A)1,2,3,4,5
B)3,1,2,4,5
C)3,1,5,2,4
D)1,2,5,3,4
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Which electron carrier(s)function in the Krebs cycle?
A)NAD only
B)both NAD and FAD
C)the electron transport chain
D)NADH and FADH
Q2) The first CO that is released during aerobic cellular respiration is _____.
A)during glycolysis
B)between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
C)during the Krebs cycle
D)just after the Krebs cycle
Q3) Which of the following statements about cellular metabolism is false?
A)Glycolysis is inhibited when cellular energy levels are abundant.
B)Krebs cycle activity is dependent solely on availability of substrate;otherwise it is unregulated.
C)In the electron transport chain,electrons decrease in energy level as they are transferred from one electron carrier to the next.
D)Reactions of the Krebs cycle take place in the mitochondrial matrix.
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following statements most accurately compares photosynthesis and respiration?
A)ATP generated during photosynthesis is a fundamentally different process than ATP generated during respiration.
B)Photosynthesis is just respiration in reverse.
C)Photosynthesis requires ATP,but respiration does not.
D)Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules;respiration releases the energy stored in complex organic molecules.
Q2) What capability of flavonoids,found in plants,protects their leaves from damage due to ultraviolet light?
A)their ability to stabilize free radicals
B)their ability to temporarily shut down photosynthesis
C)their ability to reflect ultraviolet light
D)their ability to absorb ultraviolet light
Q3) What is the main purpose of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
A)to generate oxygen by "splitting" H O
B)to produce NADPH for use in respiration
C)to produce NADPH and ATP
D)to use ATP to make glucose
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following is not an effect of mitosis-promoting factor (MPF)involved in moving a cell into M phase?
A)phosphorylation of lamins,initiating breakdown of the nuclear membrane
B)phosphorylation of microtubule associated proteins,triggering the formation of the mitotic spindle
C)phosphorylation of an enzyme that breaks down the cyclin molecule
D)degradation of cyclin-dependent kinase
Q2) Which cytoskeletal proteins are important constituents of the contractile structures that form the cleavage furrows involved in animal cell cytokinesis?
A)actin
B)dynein
C)tubulin
D)myosin
Q3) What happens when MPF (mitosis-promoting factor)is introduced into immature frog oocytes that are arrested in G ?
A)Nothing happens.
B)The cells undergo meiosis.
C)The cells enter mitosis.
D)Cell differentiation is triggered.
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) For the duration of meiosis I,each chromosome is _____.
A)in the form of a tetrad
B)two sister chromatids joined by a centromere
C)a chromosome and its homologue
D)undergoing synapsis
Q2) Refer to Figure 12.4.Put the stages of meiosis shown here in the order that they would occur in a cell.
A)a,c,d,b
B)c,a,b,d
C)c,a,d,b
D)a,b,c,d
Q3) Asexual reproduction takes place by which of the following processes?
A)meiosis
B)fertilization
C)chromosome exchange between organisms of the same species
D)mitosis
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) In humans,blue eyes are inherited as a recessive autosomal trait and color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait.A woman with blue eyes and normal color vision whose father was color blind marries a man who also has normal color vision.He has brown eyes,but his mother had blue eyes.Which of the following do you expect to be true for their sons?
A)One-half of their sons will have normal color vision and brown eyes;1/2 of their sons will have normal color vision and blue eyes.
B)Their sons will all have normal color vision and brown eyes.
C)One-fourth of their sons will be color blind and have blue eyes,1/4 of their sons will be color blind and have brown eyes,1/4 of their sons will have normal color vision and blue eyes,1/4 of their sons will have normal color vision and brown eyes.
D)Their sons will all have normal color vision and blue eyes.
E)One-half of their sons will be color blind and have blue eyes;1/2 their sons will be color blind and have brown eyes.
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) In Figure 14.2,which is the template strand?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
Q2) If DNA repair mechanisms fail,which of the following is not a direct result?
A)a mutation
B)a defective enzyme
C)cancer
D)DNA polymerase is slower at replicating DNA.
Q3) In the polymerization of DNA,a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and _____ of the last nucleotide in the polymer.
A)the 5' phosphate
B)C
C)the 3 OH
D)a nitrogen from the nitrogen-containing base
Q4) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which of the structures in the figure breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases?
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) Once researchers identified DNA as the unit of inheritance,they asked how information was transferred from the DNA in the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm.What is the mechanism of information transfer?
A)DNA from a single gene is replicated and transferred to the cytoplasm,where it serves as a template for protein synthesis.
B)Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm,where protein synthesis takes place.
C)Proteins transfer information from the nucleus to the ribosome,where protein synthesis takes place.
D)Transfer RNA takes information from DNA directly to a ribosome,where protein synthesis takes place.
Q2) Refer to Figure 15.5.If you had a mRNA for which the codons were read beginning from the start codon,which amino acids would be added (in order)? UCUGAUGGGCUUU
A)serine,aspartic acid,glycine,leucine
B)methionine,glycine,phenylalanine
C)methionine,valine,glycine,phenylalanine
D)threonine,methionine,glycine
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Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Q1) Put the following events of transcription in chronological order.
1)Sigma binds to the promoter region.
2)The double helix of DNA is unwound,breaking hydrogen bonds between complementary strands.
3)Sigma binds to RNA polymerase.
4)Sigma is released.
5)Transcription begins.
A)2,3,4,5
B)2,3,1,4,5
C)3,1,2,5,4
D)3,2,1,4,5
Q2) Once a peptide has been formed between the amino acid attached to the tRNA in the P site and the amino acid associated with the tRNA in the A site,which process on the list occurs next?
A)translocation
B)reading of the next codon of mRNA
C)initiation
D)The codon-anticodon hydrogen bonds holding the tRNA in the A site are broken.
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) How does the inducer change the repressor's affinity for DNA?
A)Inducer binding changes the repressor's shape so that the promoter is bent from a rectangular to a loop-like shape.
B)Inducer binding changes the repressor's shape to alter the positioning of the repressor's DNA-binding domains so they no longer interact with DNA.
C)Inducer binding makes the repressor's DNA-binding domains more positively charged,so they can no longer bind the operator.
D)Inducer binding makes the repressor's DNA-binding domains more negatively charged,so they can no longer bind the operator.
Q2) In negative control of transcription,a gene is activated when _____.
A)a kinase adds a phosphate to DNA
B)lactose is transported into the cell
C)a regulatory protein binds to DNA
D)a regulatory protein is removed from DNA
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Elsewhere in the paper,Chen et al.state that "BDNF is encoded by a complex gene with four well-characterized promoters that give rise to at least eight different mRNAs." What mechanism could account for the production of these different BDNF mRNAs from the same gene?
A)chromatin condensation control
B)alternative splicing
C)translational control
D)post-translational control
Q2) Not long ago,it was believed that a count of the number of protein-coding genes would provide a count of the number of proteins produced in any given eukaryotic species.This is incorrect,largely due to the discovery of widespread _____.
A)chromatin condensation control
B)transcriptional control
C)alternative splicing
D)translational control
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) Imagine that you've isolated the complete human growth hormone gene directly from the human genome.After running through all the steps described in Chapter 19 for cloning and gene expression in bacteria,you find that no human growth hormone is expressed.What is the most likely explanation?
A)Human DNA cannot be cloned in a bacterium.
B)Human DNA can be maintained in cloned form only for brief periods in bacteria.
C)Bacteria cannot translate human mRNA coding sequences.
D)Bacteria cannot carry out splicing.
E)Bacteria lack a nucleus for proper transcription of eukaryotic genes.
Q2) Which of the following is in the correct order for one cycle of PCR?
A)Denature DNA;add fresh enzyme;anneal primers;add dNTPs;extend primers.
B)Add fresh enzyme;denature DNA;anneal primers;add dNTPs;extend primers.
C)Anneal primers;denature DNA;extend primers.
D)Extend primers;anneal primers;denature DNA.
E)Denature DNA;anneal primers;extend primers.
Q3) Which type of disorder is most difficult to correct by gene therapy?
A)a dominant disorder
B)an incompletely dominant disorder
C)a recessive disorder
D)Disorders showing all these forms of dominance present equal challenges.
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Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) Mutations that occur in one member of a gene pair that arose from gene duplication may create _____.
A)a pseudogene
B)a gene with a new function
C)a gene family with two distinct but related members
D)both a gene with a new function and a pseudogene
E)a pseudogene,a gene with a new function,and a gene family with two distinct but related members
Q2) In the microarray shown in the figure above,if you were searching for genes whose expression was inhibited by hormone treatment,you would search for sequences spotted on the array that showed _____ fluorescence.
A)no
B)high levels of
C)green
D)red
E)yellow
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Cloning of plants from cuttings demonstrates that _____.
A)an individual plant cell cannot de-differentiate and then redifferentiate
B)differentiated plant cells may contain embryonic mRNAs
C)plants can reverse the differentiation process
D)mature plant cells retain genetic information
Q2) All of the following are true of embryonic stem cells except _____.
A)they can be found in human blastocysts
B)they retain the potential to become different types of cells
C)they continue to undergo mitosis when most cells have stopped dividing
D)they are terminally differentiated
Q3) Suppose there was a mutation in the segment-polarity genes of Drosophila.What do you suppose might be the outcome?
A)Several segments of the embryo will be missing.
B)Every other segment of the embryo will be missing.
C)Legs will appear in the place of antennae.
D)Antennae will appear in a different part of their usual segment.
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) During organogenesis,the first organ system to begin forming in animal embryos is the _____ system.
A)digestive
B)nervous
C)endocrine
D)circulatory
E)excretory
Q2) The function of the acrosomal complex during fertilization is _____.
A)to block polyspermy
B)to dissolve the coating of the egg
C)to nourish the sperm mitochondria
D)to permit maximum sperm motility
Q3) Sperm-egg interactions are species-specific in sea urchins,but not in mammals.What might be one reason for this difference?
A)Other kinds of signals serve similar functions in mammals.
B)Sperm-egg recognition relies on egg cytoplasmic components in mammals.
C)Sperm have evolved to become more selective in mammals.
D)Sea urchin fertilization occurs in open ocean.
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) Plant embryos cannot undergo gastrulation.What ensures the correct positioning of cells during plant embryogenesis?
A)cell movements inside the seed coat
B)genetic differences among the cells
C)cytoplasmic determinants in the cells
D)different cell sizes and planes of mitosis
E)expansion of the cotyledons
Q2) The ABC genes in Arabidopsis are considered homeotic genes.What could be a reason for this classification?
A)Each of the three genes codes for a different flower organ.
B)Each gene codes for regulatory transcription factors.
C)Each gene is similar in sequence to homeotic genes in Drosophila.
D)Each gene codes for proteins similar to Hox genes in mice.
E)Each gene directs different kinds of morphogenesis.
Q3) Plant embryos do not undergo the developmental processes of _____.
A)fertilization
B)cleavage
C)embryogenesis
D)gastrulation
E)organogenesis
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Claytonia virginica is a woodland spring herb with flowers that vary from white to pale pink to bright pink.This plant is primarily pollinated by a bee that prefers pink flowers to white flowers.Claytonia with pink flowers have greater relative fruit set than Claytonia with white flowers.Nevertheless,the percentage of different flower colors remains stable in the study population from year to year.Which of these statements might explain this observation?
A)Reproductive success does not affect evolution in this species.
B)Flower color is not heritable but is instead environmentally determined.
C)The white flowers have evolved pollinator resistance.
D)Fitness is primarily determined by fruit set in this species.
E)There are repeated mutations for white flowers in this species.
Q2) Why was Darwin and Wallace's theory of evolution by natural selection revolutionary?
A)It was the first theory to refute the ideas of special creation.
B)It proved that individuals acclimated to their environment over time.
C)It dismissed the idea that species are constant and emphasized the importance of variation and change in populations.
D)It was the first time a biologist had proposed that species changed through time.
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) A beneficial point mutation occurs in a plant ovule,which is fertilized.The seed matures,falls to the ground,and starts to grow.Is the plant's population likely to show evolutionary change as a result of this mutation? Why or why not?
Q2) Suppose 64% of a remote mountain village can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC)and must therefore have at least one copy of the dominant PTC taster allele.If this population conforms to Hardy-Weinberg expectations for this gene,what percentage of the population must be heterozygous for this trait?
A)16%
B)32%
C)40%
D)48%
E)60%
Q3) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
Q4) In a small population of alpine foxes,you observe increased ear length over a 10-year period.Can you conclude that increase in ear length is advantageous in this population?
A)Yes
B)No
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Which of the following statements explains why animals are less likely than plants to speciate by polyploidy?
A)Animals self-fertilize less often than plants,so diploid gametes are less likely to fuse.
B)Animals have better mechanisms for repairing chromosomes than plants have.
C)Animals are more mobile,so have more effective prezygotic isolating mechanisms.
D)Animals are more mobile,so populations get separated far less often.
E)Animals use a more rigorous form of meiosis than plants,making diploid gametes much harder to form.
Q2) Male frogs give calls that attract female frogs to approach and mate.Researchers examined mating calls of closely related tree frogs in South America.If reinforcement of postzygotic isolation is occurring,what would you expect if you compare the calls of the two species in zones of sympatry versus zones of allopatry?
A)Calls would be about the same in both areas.
B)Calls would be more similar in areas of sympatry.
C)Calls would be more different in areas of sympatry.
D)There is not enough information to decide what is happening.
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) For many years scientists believed that almost all animal lineages burst into being during the Cambrian era (just after the end of the Precambrian super eon).However,there have been many recent findings of animal-like fossils and "trace fossils" (fossils of an animal-like organisms movement)from the late Precambrian.Which of the following best explains why it took so long to realize there was animal-like life in the Precambrian?
A)There were no animals in the Precambrian.
B)Animals from the late Precambrian had soft bodies.
C)There were many hard-shelled animals in the Cambrian.
D)The global climate was such that there was poor fossilization in the Precambrian.
E)There were very few animals during this period.
Q2) What is still lacking in the hypothesis of an asteroid impact as the cause of the end-Cretaceous mass extinction?
A)evidence for what caused such high species loss after the impact
B)evidence that an asteroid hit Earth at the time of the extinctions (65 million years ago)
C)a convincing explanation of why mammals radiated after the event
D)a convincing explanation of why some lineages survived while others vanished
E)none of the above
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) You might be interested to know how many different types of bacteria live on the shower curtain in your bathroom.What is the most efficient method for answering this question?
A)producing a molecular phylogeny
B)enrichment culture
C)direct sequencing
D)Enrichment culture and direct sequencing are equally efficient methods.
Q2) What organisms are most numerous on Earth?
A)eukaryotes
B)archaea
C)prokaryotes
D)plants
E)insects
Q3) What do Bacteria have in common with Archaea but not with Eukarya?
A)unicellular structure
B)peptidoglycan cell walls
C)transcription mechanism begins with formylmethionine
D)absence of nucleus
E)DNA associated with histone proteins
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Assume that some members of an aquatic species of motile,photosynthetic protists evolve to become parasitic to fish.They gain the ability to live in the fish gut,absorbing nutrients as the fish digests food.Over time,which of the following phenotypic changes would you expect to observe in this population of protists?
A)loss of motility
B)loss of chloroplasts
C)gain of a rigid cell wall
D)gain of meiosis
E)no changes would be expected
Q2) Refer to the study by Poulsen et al.and Figure 29.3.Cultures of a species of diatom were treated with BDM,a reversible inhibitor of myosin function.Which of the following predictions is consistent with the hypothesis that an actin-myosin interaction is necessary for motility?
A)BDM will significantly decrease motility of the cells in culture.
B)BDM will not significantly alter motility of the cells in culture.
C)BDM will significantly increase motility of the cells in culture.
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31
Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following possess stomata?
A)Ulvophyceae
B)Hepaticophyta
C)Charaphyaceae
D)Anthocerophyta
Q2) How are the bryophytes and seedless vascular plants alike?
A)Plants in both groups have vascular tissue.
B)In both groups,sperm swim from antheridia to archegonia.
C)The dominant generation in both groups is the sporophyte.
D)Plants in both groups have true roots,stems,and leaves.
Q3) What evidence do paleobotanists look for that indicates the movement of plants from water to land?
A)waxy cuticle to decrease evaporation from leaves
B)loss of structures that produce spores
C)sporopollenin to inhibit evaporation from leaves
D)remnants of chloroplasts from photosynthesizing cells
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long,branching fungal filaments are called _____.
A)roots
B)ascus
C)septa
D)mycelia
E)hyphae
Q2) This group of fungi has the ability to penetrate its host's cell wall,thus increasing the efficiency with which materials are passed from fungus to host.
A)ectomycorrhizal fungi
B)arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi
C)endophytes
D)lichens
Q3) At which stage of a basidiomycete's life cycle would reproduction be halted if an enzyme that prevented the fusion of hyphae was introduced?
A)meiosis
B)fertilization
C)karyogamy
D)plasmogamy
E)germination
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) Which of the following would most strongly support your hypothesis that an animal you are observing is an ectoparasite?
A)wormlike body
B)a scolex
C)hooks on its head region
D)lack of a digestive system
E)limbs with claws
Q2) Which of the following feeding tactics is consistent with this list of features: Two-part stomach capable of breaking down tough food particles;simple mouthparts;the ability to burrow through,and consume,indigestible fecal material to get to hidden food?
A)suspension feeder
B)fluid feeder
C)deposit feeder
D)food-mass feeder
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to be aquatic?
A)suspension feeder
B)mass feeder
C)deposit feeder
D)fluid feeder
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) What is the only group of Mollusca that does not have a radula?
A)Bivalves
B)Gastropods
C)Chitons
D)Cephalopods
E)All mollusk have a radula.
Q2) You find a multi-legged animal in your garden and want to determine if it is a centipede or a millipede.You take the animal to a university where a myriapodologist quickly tells you that you've found a centipede.Which of the following may have allowed her to make this distinction?
A)segmentation
B)poison-filled glands
C)the total number of legs
D)egg-laying
E)molting
Q3) Which one of these mollusk groups can be classified as suspension feeders?
A)bivalves
B)gastropods
C)chitons
D)cephalopods
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Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Which of the following do the prosimians and the anthropoids not have in common?
A)number of limbs
B)a "human-like" appearance
C)opposable thumbs
D)eyes on the front of the face
E)large brains relative to body size
Q2) Primate evolution and behavior such as hunting skills has been directed in part by the development of depth perception.What anatomical change made depth perception possible?
A)a larger brain
B)the formation of compound eyes
C)movement of the eyes to the front of the head
D)diurnal activity
Q3) What group of mammals have (a)embryos that spend more time feeding through the placenta than the mother's nipples,(b)young that feed on milk,and (c)a prolonged period of maternal care after leaving the placenta?
A)Eutheria
B)Marsupiala
C)Monotremata
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do scientists consider HIV to be an emerging virus?
A)HIV infected humans long before AIDS first become a problem in the early 1980s,but it has now mutated to a more deadly form.
B)HIV mutates so rapidly that the virus of today has very little similarity to the virus in the first AIDS patients from the early 1980s.
C)HIV used to infect only chimps,but it has mutated in such a way that it now infects humans.
D)HIV is now starting to cause diseases other than AIDS,such as rare types of cancers and pneumonias.
Q2) A virus that has a single strand of RNA which it transcribes into complementary DNA is a _____.
A)reverse transcriptase
B)protease
C)retrovirus
D)RNA replicase virus
E)nonenveloped virus
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) What is true about plant meristematic cells?
A)They are distributed evenly in all tissues throughout the plant.
B)They are undifferentiated cells that produce new cells.
C)They increase the surface area of dermal tissue by developing root hairs.
D)They subdivide into three distinct cell types named parenchyma,ground meristem,and procambium.
E)They give rise to protoderm,which is involved in photosynthesis.
Q2) Why are definite and distinct root and shoot systems uncommon in aquatic algae,but present in most land plants?
A)The earliest plants had a sprawling growth form.
B)Aquatic algae cannot grow more than a couple of centimeters in height.
C)Land plants need to be anchored to the ground,whereas aquatic algae do not.
D)Land plants cannot exchange gases with their environment as easily as aquatic algae.
E)Aquatic algae obtain most inputs for photosynthesis directly from the water that surrounds them.
Q3) Leaf thickness represents a trade-off between _____.
A)light collection and CO absorption
B)water retention and CO absorption
C)water retention and O absorption
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Irrigation reduces soil quality and rains usually don't.Why?
A)Rains deliver less water to soil than irrigation does.
B)Water used for irrigation contains fertilizer and pesticides that affect soil quality.
C)Rainwater contains less inorganic material.
D)The fast water flow during irrigation removes organic material from soil.
E)The fast water flow during rains is able to remove toxic materials from topsoil.
Q2) Cell-to-cell water movement always occurs from _____.
A)higher to lower pressure potential
B)higher to lower solute potential
C)lower to higher solute potential
D)higher to lower water potential
E)lower to higher water potential
Q3) Which of the following features of plant cells allows for apoplastic movement of water?
A)porous cell walls
B)plasmodesmata
C)large central vacuole
D)endodermal cells
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of proton pumps localized in the plant plasma membrane?
A)facilitate diffusion of ions
B)to transfer phosphorus groups from ATP to proteins
C)to transfer metal ions across the plasma membrane
D)to transfer anions across the plasma membrane
E)to create a membrane potential
Q2) To determine the requirement of chlorine for plant growth,you decided to perform a hydroponic experiment.What solution are you going to use to grow control plants for comparison with chlorine-derived plants?
A)pure water
B)water with chlorine
C)water with macronutrients and chlorine
D)water with micronutrients and chlorine
E)water with essential elements
Q3) Which of the following is the most energy-demanding process?
A)reduction of N to NH
B)reduction of NO to NH
C)nitrification of NH to NO
D)nitrification of NO to NO
E)denitrification of NO to N
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) When Charles and Francis Darwin first documented phototropism,why was it important that they germinated the grass seeds in the dark before beginning the experiment?
A)so the young shoots would grow slowly
B)so the young shoots would grow quickly
C)so the young shoots would grow straight
D)so the young shoots would be soft enough to bend
Q2) Mammalian eyes sense light because they contain cells having molecules called opsins,which change structure when exposed to light.Which of the following plant molecule(s)would be analogous to mammalian opsins in their light-sensing ability?
A)auxin and phototropins
B)auxin and Pf
C)Pf and phototropins
D)cytokinins and phototropins
E)ABA and Pf
Q3) The cells that have phosphorylated phototropin receptors elongate in response to blue light.
A)True
B)False
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these events happens first in nearly all seed germination?
A)The cotyledons appear above ground,turn green,and photosynthesize.
B)The radicle emerges from the seed to obtain water and nutrients from the soil.
C)The hypocotyl elongates to lift cotyledons above ground.
D)Lateral roots develop and expand into surrounding soil.
Q2) A population of flowers varies from deep blue to nearly white.Bees are active during the day and prefer color.Moths are active at night,when colors are not very visible and white is more conspicuous.Design a scenario in which the blue and white flowers form two species where there once was one species.You must end with a conclusion that the two new species cannot interbreed (a definition of a species).
Q3) Cottonwood,aspen,and willow trees have beige flowers,with no petals,that appear before the tree's leaves are out in the spring;and they are dioecious.What does that indicate about these trees?
A)Their insect pollinators are specialists.
B)Early emerging insects are probably the pollinators.
C)Their pollen is dispersed by wind.
D)The trees are self pollinating.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) You discover a new species of bacteria that grows in aquatic environments with high salt levels.While studying these bacteria,you note that their internal environment is similar to the salt concentrations in their surroundings.You also discover that the internal salt concentrations of the bacteria change as the salt concentration in their environment changes.The new species can tolerate small changes in this way,but dies from large changes because it has no mechanism for altering its own internal salt levels.What type of homeostatic mechanism is this species using to regulate its internal salt levels?
A)conformation
B)regulation
C)integration
D)assimilation
E)all of the above
Q2) You observe a lizard sitting on a rock on a sunny day.If the lizard is attempting to raise its body temperature,what mechanism of heat transfer is being employed?
A)conduction
B)convection
C)radiation
D)evaporation
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43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The filtrate formed in the renal corpuscle is analogous to the _____ formed in Malpighian tubules.
A)hemolymph
B)pre-urine
C)uric acid
D)hypertonic solution
Q2) In flour beetles and desert locusts,how is water conserved?
A)The pre-urine formed in the Malpighian tubules is hypertonic.
B)Urine that is formed is isotonic to hemolymph,but the muscle cells surrounding spiracles of these organisms are able to significantly limit water loss due to respiration.
C)Water is transported into hindgut cells through endocytosis.
D)Sodium and chloride are actively transported out of pre-urine,and water follows,forming a hypertonic urine.
Q3) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?
Q4) Which of the following affects the osmolarity of a solution?
A)concentration of cations
B)concentration of anions
C)concentration of water
D)all of the above
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the person consumes 2500 calories daily to maintain body weight,what percentage of the RDA for iron would this person receive from a serving of apple juice?
A)20%
B)less than 20%
C)more than 20%
Q2) Bile,which is synthesized in the liver and stored in the gallbladder,is important in lipid digestion.What feature/function of bile makes it an effective emulsifying agent?
A)Bile is an amphipathic molecule,having both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions. B)Bile adds hydroxyl groups to the hydrocarbon tails of fatty acids,making them more soluble in water.
C)Bile stimulates the transport processes involved in movement of triglycerides into intestinal epithelial cells.
D)Its enzymatic activity removes fatty acids from triglycerides,making them more soluble in water.
Q3) The electron micrograms in Figure 43.2 are images of mouthparts of different animals.Which of the mouthparts are specialized for crushing and grinding?
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A rabbit taken from a meadow near sea level and moved to a meadow high on a mountainside would have some trouble breathing.Why?
A)The percentage of oxygen in the air at high elevations is lower than at sea level.
B)The percentage of oxygen in the air at high elevations is higher than at sea level.
C)The partial pressure of oxygen in the air at high elevations is lower than at sea level.
D)The partial pressure of oxygen in the air at high elevations is higher than at sea level.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the process of ventilation?
A)the movement of oxygen gas through the blood of the circulatory system
B)the movement of carbon dioxide gas through the blood of the circulatory system
C)the movement of air through lungs or gills
D)the diffusion of gases into and out of the circulatory system
E)the diffusion of gases into and out of tissues where cellular respiration occurs
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a doctor attempts to trigger the patellar tendon reflex and a lack of response occurs,what are potential regions where pathology might exist?
A)the brain
B)the knee
C)the spinal cord
D)the knee and spinal cord
E)the knee and the brain
Q2) The depolarization phase of an action potential requires _____.
A)opening of K channels in the membrane
B)opening of Na channels in the membrane
C)opening of Ca² channels in the membrane
D)a K concentration gradient across the membrane
E)a Ca² concentration gradient across the membrane
Q3) What type of neuron can exist entirely within the central nervous system (CNS)?
A)interneuron
B)motor neuron
C)sensory neuron
D)interneuron and motor neuron
E)interneuron,sensory neuron,and motor neuron
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Partial or complete loss of hearing (deafness)can be caused by damage to the
A)axons of the neurons associated with each hair cell that carry information to the brain
B)hair cells (the sensory receptors)in the cochlea
C)tympanic membrane,or eardrum
D)axons of the neurons associated with each hair cell that carry information to the brain or hair cells (the sensory receptors)in the cochlea
E)Damage to all of the above can cause complete or partial deafness.
Q2) When a neurobiologist is interested in determining if an animal can see in color what structures are they looking for in the eye?
A)opsins
B)electroreceptors
C)pupil
D)lens
Q3) Acidic amino acids taste sour.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) In human embryonic development,which of the following pairs of hormones are released by the developing testes and result in development of the male reproductive tract and inhibition of the female reproductive tract?
A)testosterone and estrogen
B)estrogen and progesterone
C)testosterone and Mullerian inhibitory substance
D)estradiol and estrogen
E)testosterone and estradiol
Q2) Which of the following is similar in structure to cholesterol?
A)leptin and serotonin
B)luteinizing hormone and insulin
C)melanocyte-stimulating hormone and vasopressin
D)testosterone,estradiol,and cortisol
E)oxytocin and vasopressin
Q3) Which of these glands is located within the abdominal cavity?
A)thyroid
B)adrenal
C)parathyroid
D)pancreas
E)all of the above
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) On a submarine expedition to the ocean bottom,you discover a population of fish that are only female.What type of reproduction does this fish use?
A)sexual
B)budding
C)cloning
D)parthenogenesis
E)hermaphroditism
Q2) By what mechanism does a second male mating with a female gain an advantage in sperm competition in some insects?
A)The second male's semen has chemicals that kill the first male's sperm.
B)The accessory fluids from the second male's semen can displace stored sperm from competing males.
C)The second male will have larger testes and so produce larger numbers of sperm.
D)The second male is larger than the first male.
Q3) During oogenesis meiosis results in four equally sized cells that stop dividing in meiosis I.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is crucial to activation of the adaptive immune response?
A)memory cells
B)presentation of MHC-antigen complex on a cell surface
C)somatic hypermutation
D)phagocytosis of antibody-antigen complex by macrophages in the blood (the humoral response)
Q2) Lymphocytes are formed in what organ(s)?
A)spleen
B)thymus
C)bone marrow
D)spleen and bone marrow
E)thymus and bone marrow
Q3) Which of the following is true of the allergic response?
A)Sufferers produce the IgE class of gamma globulins in response to allergens.
B)Upon the very first exposure to an allergen,an allergy sufferer will probably experience a runny nose,watery eyes,and mild wheezing.
C)It is a normal,healthy,adaptive response to an allergen.
D)All of the above answers are true.
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) A fish swimming into a bog environment in Ohio would likely have which of the following as its greatest physiological challenge?
A)The low oxygen content would make it difficult for the fish to swim aerobically.
B)The low nitrogen content would make it difficult for the fish to synthesize proteins.
C)The high temperature would stress the fish by denaturing its proteins.
D)The high water flow would make the fish expend more energy.
E)The high methane content would make respiration difficult.
Q2) In which terrestrial area is global warming most likely to allow coniferous trees to encroach?
A)tropical wet forests
B)arctic tundra
C)temperate forests
D)boreal forests
Q3) Which of the following is not a biotic component of a burrow community?
A)the different species living in the burrow
B)the population of each species in the burrow
C)the air quality of the burrow
D)the food sources in the burrow
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Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) You observe scrub jays hiding food and notice that one particular individual only pretends to hide food.What kind of experiment could you perform to test whether this behavior was random or in response to another signal?
A)Observe more of these behaviors in the wild and try to determine if the behavior is random.
B)Hypothesize a set of signals that could produce this behavior and try to match the behaviors with the signals.
C)Attempt to reproduce the behavior in captivity by using bird models and a computer simulation.
D)All of the above would be excellent experiments.
Q2) If you ask a question about behavior that concerns how it works,or what its mechanism is,you are asking a question that involves _____.
A)ultimate causation
B)proximate causation
C)adaptive significance
D)survival value
E)only the neurological level of analysis
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If 60 snow geese were alive in 1926 and 856 existed in 2001,what is r?
A)0)070
B)0)035
C)0)094
Q2) One measure for the value of the patch was given by the long-term contribution of a fragment to colonization events in the network.How do the properties of a landscape and the properties of a species affect the value of a patch?
A)The value of the fragment depends on the properties of the landscape and the properties of the species.
B)The value of the fragment depends only on the properties of the landscape and not on the properties of the species.
C)The value of the fragment depends not on the properties of the landscape but only on the properties of the species.
D)The value of the fragment depends on neither the properties of the landscape nor on the properties of the species.
Q3) Based on the diagrams in Figure 52.10 and on the large population of baby boomers in the United States,what graph best reflects U.S.population in 20 years?
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) In Figure 53.5,which individuals are displaying Batesian mimicry?
A)the Paper Wasp,Bumblebee,and Honeybee
B)the Hornet Moth,Wasp Beetle,and Hoverfly
C)All of the insects are displaying Batesian mimicry.
D)None of the insects are displaying Batesian mimicry.
Q2) A measure of how much a community is affected by a disturbance is termed
A)ecological function
B)resistance
C)stability
D)primary productivity
Q3) During a 1-year study,researchers found no difference in treehopper populations in any of their control and experimental groups.What could they measure during the second year to gain information about why this might have occurred?
A)Measure the number of ant females.
B)Measure the relative sizes of the treehoppers.
C)Measure the relative abundance of jumping spiders.
D)Measure the success of treehoppers with a different ant species.
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) Considering the global nitrogen cycle depicted in Figure 54.9,what is the limiting portion of the cycle for plants?
A)industrial nitrogen fixation
B)nitrogen lost to the atmosphere
C)internal nitrogen cycling in the oceans
D)nitrogen fixation by bacteria
Q2) When primary producers expend energy to build new tissue,this is _____.
A)net primary productivity
B)the amount of energy available to consumers
C)maintenance costs
D)net primary productivity and the amount of energy available to consumers
E)maintenance costs and the amount of energy available to consumers
Q3) Which of the following is not a source of human-fixed nitrogen?
A)industrially produced fertilizers
B)cultivation of soybeans
C)combustion of fossil fuels
D)irrigation agriculture
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28455
Sample Questions
Q1) During the inventory of bacterial genes present in the Sargasso Sea,a research team concluded that at least 1800 bacterial species were discovered.Based on what you know about this area,what would you expect to see in coral reef waters?
A)slightly greater genetic diversity
B)slightly smaller genetic diversity
C)equal genetic diversity
D)markedly greater genetic diversity
E)markedly smaller genetic diversity
Q2) If the last remaining population of a particular bird species were all highly related,which type of diversity would be of greatest concern when planning to keep the species from going extinct?
A)genetic diversity
B)species diversity
C)ecosystem diversity
D)both genetic and species diversity
E)both species and ecosystem diversity
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