Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Introduction to Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles that govern life and living organisms. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life forms. Students will explore the processes that sustain life, from molecular and cellular mechanisms to the interactions within ecosystems. Emphasis is placed on developing scientific reasoning, understanding biological research methods, and applying knowledge to real-world issues, preparing students for advanced studies in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 2nd Edition by Hoefnagels
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scientific Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ammonium nitrate is
A)an atom.
B)a molecule.
C)a cell.
D)a tissue.
E)a biospherE.
Answer: B
Q2) The "kingdom" is the most all-inclusive taxonomic category.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The leaf of a strawberry plant is
A)an organ.
B)a molecule.
C)an organelle.
D)a cell.
E)an organism.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are asked to help solve a murder,and a note from the murdered taunting the police says that the crime was committed using a lipid.What molecule could you exclude from your search?
A)a triglyceride
B)a phospholipid
C)a wax
D)a sterol
E)a starch molecule
Answer: E
Q2) An ionic bond is a bond in which
A)atoms share electrons.
B)atoms share protons.
C)atoms of opposite charges attract each other.
D)atoms share neutrons.
E)atoms are repelled by each other.
Answer: C
Q3) Some aphids can change color in response to the presence of bacterial symbionts.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you were examining a plasmodesmatum under a microscope,you would expect to find a plant cell at each end.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The cell wall of bacteria
A)helps prevent the cell from bursting.
B)protects the cell.
C)gives the bacterium a distinctive shape.
D)contains peptidoglycan.
E)All answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q3) Which component of the cell theory argues against life on Earth evolving from inorganic molecules?
A)All organisms are made of one or more cells.
B)The cell is the fundamental unit of all life.
C)All cells come from preexisting cells.
D)Cells are small in size.
E)All cells are either prokaryotic or eukaryotic.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) After ATP donates a phosphate group to a coupled reaction,then it becomes ADP.The ADP
A)can be recharged with the release of energy to form ATP.
B)is a waste product that will be broken down.
C)can be recharged in an equilibrium reaction to form ATP.
D)can be recharged in an oxidation reaction to form ATP.
E)can be recharged with the uptake of energy to form ATP.
Q2) Plants require energy from light to perform photosynthesis in which glucose is formed from carbon dioxide and water.This is an example of
A)a reaction that releases energy.
B)kinetic energy.
C)a reaction that takes up energy.
D)potential energy.
E)equilibrium.
Q3) The two data curves on the figure illustrate that
A)temperature ranges are not the same for all enzyme activity.
B)temperature is not related to enzyme efficiency.
C)optimal temperature ranges are not the same for all enzymes.
D)pH is not related to enzyme efficiency.
E)All answers are correct.
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herbicides may kill plants by
A)blocking carotenoid synthesis.
B)blocking electron flow in photosystem II.
C)diverting electrons away from photosystem I.
D)interfering with amino acid synthesis.
E)All answers are correct.
Q2) The carbon atoms in the cellulose of a wood log originally came from _____ absorbed by the plant.
A)glucose
B)carbon dioxide
C)nutrients in the soil
D)water
E)oxygen
Q3) The product of photosystem I is A)NADPH.
B)ATP.
C)glucose.
D)water.
E)NADH.
Q4) Place the steps of the light reactions in the order in which they occur.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reactants for cellular respiration are
A)glucose and ATP.
B)water and ATP.
C)oxygen and ATP.
D)glucose and oxygen.
E)carbon dioxide and glucosE.
Q2) The only source of ATP production in cells relying fermentation is A)glycolysis.
B)the Krebs cycle.
C)photosynthesis.
D)electron transport.
E)the Calvin cyclE.
Q3) The Krebs cycle occurs in the A)lysosome.
B)nucleus.
C)cytoplasm.
D)mitochondrion.
E)ribosomE.
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8
Chapter 7: Dna Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotic resistance enhances the reproductive success of bacteria that have it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following diseases is caused by something other than viruses?
A)the common cold and influenza
B)smallpox and mononucleosis
C)polio and rabies
D)AIDS and warts
E)diabetes
Q3) A layer of membrane attached to a virus is called
A)an envelope.
B)a protein coat.
C)a chromosome.
D)a plasmiD.
E)a nucleus.
Q4) Many viruses are inhibited by antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
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Page 9
Chapter 8: DNA Replication, binary Fission, and Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bypassing a checkpoint in the cell cycle may result in a cancer cell
A)dividing after mutations are fixed.
B)continuing to divide and replicate with faulty DNA.
C)condensing its chromosomes before mitosis.
D)aligning chromosomes on the equator of the cell during metaphase.
E)pulling chromosomes apart during anaphasE.
Q2) The phase of mitosis in which the centromeres split and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell is A)prophase.
B)anaphase.
C)interphase.
D)metaphase.
E)telophasE.
Q3) Apoptosis is also called A)replication.
B)mitosis.
C)programmed cell death.
D)the cell cycle.
E)programmed cellular reproduction.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Q1) If you were told that you would get extra credit for finding a model showing chromsomes separating while sister chromatids were still attached,you would look for a model of
A)prophase I.
B)prophase II.
C)anaphase I.
D)metaphase I.
E)anaphase II.
Q2) Genes A and B are on the same chromosome.If a person has one chromosome with the alleles AB and a second chromosome with the alleles ab,how could they produce a gamete with a chromosome containing the alleles Ab or aB?
A)independent assortment
B)random fertilization
C)mitosis
D)fragmentation of the chromosome
E)crossing over
Q3) Haploid germ cells undergo meiosis,including crossing over,to produce sex cells.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gametes can a RRyy plant produce?
A)RR or yy
B)Ry
C)RY or ry
D)RRyy
E)R or y
Q2) A person has a recessive allele for a disease but the allele is masked by the presence of a normal dominant allele in the person.This person
A)is homozygous for the disease.
B)cannot produce gametes.
C)is termed a carrier.
D)is termed a linkage group.
E)has the disease but cannot pass this disease to their offspring.
Q3) If an individual is homozygous for a particular trait
A)each parent contributed a different allele for that trait.
B)one parent contributed two different alleles for that trait.
C)each parent contributed the same allele for that trait.
D)one parent contributed two copies of the same allele for that trait.
E)a mutation must have occurred.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Dna Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an application of DNA technology?
A)selection of desired traits in breeding
B)detection of genetic illnesses
C)replacement of faulty copies of genes
D)production of genetically modified crops with greater nutritional value
E)determination of identity of criminals through DNA profiling
Q2) An example of DNA technology is
A)transferring genes from a bacterium to a fish.
B)sexual reproduction between two fish.
C)asexual reproduction in one bacterium.
D)a cat feeding upon a mouse.
E)a parasitic fungus infecting a bird.
Q3) Genetic testing may lead to ethical issues,such as whether results should be used to determine who receives health insurance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DNA technology can be applied to prevent,detect,and treat genetic diseases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gradual change from an ancestral type was referred to by Darwin as A)uniformitarianism.
B)descent with modification.
C)fossils.
D)natural selection.
E)special creation.
Q2) If you observed that red sea turtles became more common over time in a previously all-green population,the reason could be a selective advantge for the red phenotype,leading to a change in allele frequency.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium will not occur in a population in which A)mutations do not occur.
B)individuals mate at random.
C)natural selection does not occur.
D)individuals immigrate or emigrate.
E)sexual selection does not occur.
Q4) Artificial selection is responsible for many breeds of dogs and cats.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Absolute dating uses ______ to estimate how old a fossil is.
A)depth within rock layers
B)radioactive isotopes
C)a molecular clock
D)structural features
E)embryonic structures
Q2) The number of differences between cytochrome c of humans and cytochrome c of other organisms is as follows: Rhesus monkey - 1 difference;pigeon - 12 differences;fruit fly - 24 differences.The order in which these species are most similar to humans is
A)Rhesus monkey,pigeon,fruit fly.
B)pigeon,Rhesus monkey,fruit fly.
C)pigeon,fruit fly,Rhesus monkey.
D)Rhesus monkey,fruit fly,pigeon.
E)fruit fly,pigeon,Rhesus monkey.
Q3) The techniques used to study molecular evolution are based on the comparison of nucleotide and amino acid sequences among species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The idea that evolution proceeds in small,incremental changes over many generations is
A)temporal isolation.
B)gradualism.
C)punctuated equilibrium.
D)hybrid breakdown.
E)mechanical isolation.
Q2) Phylogenetics is (are)
A)the study of evolutionary relationships among species.
B)the science of describing,naming,and classifying species.
C)inherited attributes.
D)features only found in living species.
E)species unrelated and used for comparison.
Q3) Three species of tigers have become extinct due to overharvesting or habitat destruction.This is an example of A)mass extinction.
B)background extinction rate.
C)sympatric speciation.
D)increased extinction rate by human activity.
E)allopatric speciation.
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Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which protists produce much of the Earth's oxygen?
A)amoeba
B)slime molds
C)algae
D)protozoa
E)radiolarians
Q2) Protists can be autotrophs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Streptomyces are aerobic soil bacteria that produce over two-thirds of our antibiotics of natural origin.These antibiotics should also be effective in killing Streptomyces.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The rigid barrier that surrounds most prokaryotes is the
A)cell membrane.
B)flagellum.
C)ribosome.
D)cell wall.
E)cytoplasm.
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Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) All land plants have a cuticle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The two groups of angiosperms are
A)mosses and club mosses.
B)ginkgos and cycads.
C)monocots and eudicots.
D)horsetails and ferns.
E)conifers and gnetophytes.
Q3) Many fern gametophytes are hermaphrodites,meaning they can produce both sperm and egg.Why is this necessary for a fern,but not for an angiosperm?
A)If one seed colonizes a new habitat,reproduction can occur in later stages.
B)The gametophyte can produce multiple types of spores.
C)The gametophyte can produce multiple types of seeds.
D)If one spore colonizes a new habitat,reproduction can occur in later stages.
E)Angiosperm gametes are diploid.
Q4) All angiosperms have their pollen and seeds moved by animals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Removal of what would destroy the filtering system of a sponge?
A)spicules
B)pores
C)collar cells cells
D)amoebocytes
E)No answer is correct.
Q2) Which characteristic would place an organism outside the annelids?
A)They have a coelom.
B)They have bilateral symmetry.
C)No answer is correct.
D)They are segmenteD.
E)They have organ systems.
Q3) Cnidarian bodies are one of two forms.A(n)______ consists of a sessile stalk with tentacles on one end.A(n)______ is a free-swimming,bell-shaped,"tentacles-down" body form with a single opening forming the mouth.
A)cephalization;amnion
B)amnion;medusa
C)amnion;polyp
D)polyp;medusa
E)medusa;polyp
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Chapter 18: Populations
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Q1) Which of the following organisms is an example of an opportunistic species?
A)dolphins
B)humans
C)rabbits
D)penguins
E)tortoises
Q2) A country's ecological footprint can be calculated by multiplying its population size by the footprint of each individual.Why are some ecologists concerned about the ecological footprint of a country like India?
A)Its population is increasing.
B)Its standard of living is increasing.
C)Both its population and standard of living are increasing.
D)Its population and land area are increasing.
E)Its standard of living and land area are increasing.
Q3) The United Nations has estimated (for the high estimate)that the world's human population may reach about 10.5 billion by the year 2050 and will continue to increase.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) Parasitism is a symbiotic relationship in which neither member of the relationship benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If asked to put an arrow in a diagram showing energy flow through an ecosystem,you would use a single-headed arrow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you found a durable organism growing on bare rock,which it was breaking down into small particles,it would be considered pioneer species.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Species evenness is an important measure of diversity in an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The term "abiotic" means "nonliving."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity
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Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: The Case of the Missing Frogs: Is Climate the Culprit?",what explanation do scientists give for decline in amphibians in pristine habitats with little human contact?
A)pollution
B)fungal infection
C)habitat loss
D)over harvesting
E)competition with exotic species
Q2) The pH of acid deposition occurring in the eastern United States is about
A)4.6.
B)5.6.
C)6.4.
D)7.0.
E)8.4.
Q3) Canvasback ducks and bog turtles are likely impacted by purple loosestrife by A)loss of food.
B)loss of diversity.
C)overexploitation.
D)pollution.
E)climate changE.
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Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) The three main types of tissue formed by plant cells are ground tissue,dermal tissue,and vascular tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a gardener wanted to help prevent erosion along a slope it would be best to
A)plant grasses because they have fibrous roots.
B)plant grasses because they have taproots.
C)plant trees because they have taproots.
D)plant trees because they have fibrous roots.
E)All answers are correct.
Q3) Throughout a growing season,a plant uses up to 1000 liters (or kg)of water to produce just 1 kilogram of tissue.What happens to most of the remaining 999 kg of water?
A)It is used in the cytoplasm.
B)It is used in photosynthesis.
C)It is used in hydrolysis reactions.
D)It evaporates (transpiration).
E)It passes back through the roots into the soil.
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Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Q1) As a seed germinates,its shoot points upward toward light,and its root grows downward into the soil.Turn the plant sideways,and the stem and roots bend according to the new direction of gravity.How do roots and shoots respond to gravity?
A)by the absorption of light by phytochromes
B)through circadian rhythms
C)through thigmotropism
D)by sensing the photoperiod
E)by the movement of statoliths within the cell
Q2) If you were given a bumpy fruit that clearly had one set of sepals around it and the bumps in which were the result of individual carpels having fused back to themselves,what kind of fruit would you have?
A)simple
B)aggregate
C)double
D)axillary
E)multiple
Q3) Gymnosperms are flowering plants.
A)True
B)False
24
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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Q1) One way humans maintain body temperature is by increasing blood flow to the skin and sweating.Which organ systems are interacting in this process?
A)circulatory and muscular
B)muscular and integumentary
C)endocrine and muscular
D)circulatory and integumentary
E)endocrine and circulatory
Q2) What is a principal mechanism by which endotherms obtain body heat?
A)generate heat via metabolism
B)seek sunshine
C)bask on warm rocks
D)make an insulated burrow
E)tuck legs into its body
Q3) Which property would distinguish a protein from collagen and elastin?
A)fibrous proteins.
B)located in loose connective tissue.
C)enzymes.
D)located in dense connective tissue.
E)providing stretch.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Nervous System and the Senses
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Q1) The layered membranes that jacket the central nervous system are the
A)grey matter.
B)meninges.
C)white matter.
D)epidermis.
E)myelin sheaths.
Q2) Why would this lead to paralysis and death?
A)Neurons run out of energy.
B)Neurons swell because of increased osmosis.
C)Neurons can't recharge.
D)Neurons can't fire without a voltage change.
E)Neurons cannot release neurotransmitters.
Q3) At the snail-shaped _______________,sound is transduced into nerve impulses.
A)auditory canal
B)eardrum
C)auditory nerve
D)cochlea
E)oval window
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Chapter 25: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Which organ was being affected by the BPA that led to decreased LH in the blood?
A)ovary
B)kidney
C)pituitary
D)thyroid
E)pancreas
Q2) Cortisol is produced by the adrenal glands located near the kidney,yet pituitary tumors cause 70% of Cushing's syndrome cases.Which is the best explanation for this observation?
A)The pituitary tumor releases mineralocorticoids.
B)The pituitary tumor releases glucocorticoids.
C)The pituitary tumor releases a hormone that inhibits the adrenal gland.
D)The pituitary tumor releases ACTH.
E)The pituitary tumor releases cortisol.
Q3) Prednisone would be made from which starting material?
A)amino acids
B)cholesterol
C)nucleotides
D)proteins
E)sucrose
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Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) The type of skeleton composed of calcium rich-spines,cartilage or bone is a(n)
A)exoskeleton.
B)hydrostatic skeleton.
C)gastrovascular cavity.
D)endoskeleton.
E)vascular canal.
Q2) The interaction of both the muscular system and the skeletal system is necessary for animals to run,fly,and swim.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is not a function of skeletal muscles?
A)produce heat to keep the body warm
B)yell a command
C)blink
D)kick a ball
E)pump blood through the heart
Q4) The high water content of cartilage allows it to cushion blows.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratorysystems
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Q1) Which drugs would be prescribed to a person who is at risk of forming a blood clot?
A)a beta-blocker
B)aspirin
C)a diuretic
D)a beta-blocker and a diuretic
E)aspirin and a diuretic
Q2) The widening of blood vessels is
A)vasoconstriction.
B)cardioconstriction.
C)vasodilation.
D)cardiodilation.
E)All answers are correct.
Q3) Ice fish would have which kind of circulatory systems?
A)closed with a two-chambered heart
B)open
C)closed with a single-chambered heart
D)closed with a three-chambered heart
E)closed with a four-chambered heart
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29
Chapter 28: The Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Q1) Cells often use ______________________ to move ions against their concentration gradient.
A)simple diffusion
B)facilitated diffusion
C)active transport
D)osmosis
E)cilia
Q2) Animals that consume decaying organic matter as their main source of food are
A)omnivores.
B)carnivores.
C)detritivores.
D)herbivores.
E)insectivores.
Q3) If you placed cells from a marine alga in freshwater,you would expect to see that
A)water moves out of the cell by osmosis.
B)the cell will dehydrate.
C)water moves into the cell by facilitated diffusion.
D)water moves into the cell by osmosis.
E)water moves out of the cell by facilitated diffusion.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: The Immune System
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Q1) Which is an example of humoral immunity?
A)a cytotoxic T cell destroying a virus-infected cell
B)a self-attack from an autoimmune disease
C)antibodies produced that create an immunodeficiency
D)antibodies produced that clone a pathogen
E)antibodies produced that destroy an invading pathogen
Q2) A disease-causing agent that does not usually infect and cause disease in a person with a healthy immune system is termed a(n) A)pathogen.
B)subtle pathogen.
C)secondary pathogen.
D)opportunistic pathogen.
E)unlikely pathogen.
Q3) The innate chemical defense substance that activates T cells and B cells is A)histamine.
B)complement protein.
C)interleukin.
D)All answers are correct.
E)epinephrinE.
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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/53503
Sample Questions
Q1) Thalidomide was given to pregnant women from 1957 to 1961 to help relieve the symptoms of morning sickness.Thalidomide binds to and inactivates the protein cereblon,which is important in limb formation.If a woman took thalidomide during the _____ period of her baby's development,it could result in stunted growth of their limbs.
A)preembryonic
B)fetal
C)prezygotic
D)embryonic
E)delivery
Q2) The hormone released by the anterior pituitary that stimulates the development of the corpeus luteum is A)GnRH.
B)FSH.
C)LH.
D)ATP.
E)progesteronE.
Q3) Genital warts are caused by HPV.
A)True
B)False
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