Introduction to Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts that form the basis of the biological sciences. Covering topics such as cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms, the course emphasizes the scientific method and critical thinking skills. Students will explore how biological systems operate and interact, gaining insight into the complexity of life at molecular, cellular, and ecosystem levels. Designed for students of varied backgrounds, the course serves as both a foundation for advanced biological studies and a means to appreciate the relevance of biology in everyday life.
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Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 4th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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Chapter 1: Introduction- Biology Today
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Q1) Humans are composed of ______ cells.
A) bacterial
B) eukaryotic
C) plant
D) prokaryotic
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is not a property of life?
A) Populations of organisms rarely change over time.
B) Living things exhibit complex but ordered organization.
C) Organisms take in energy and use it to perform all of life's activities.
D) Organisms reproduce their own kind.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is a producer?
A) oak tree
B) earthworm
C) sun
D) cat
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology
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Q1) An uncharged atom of gold has an atomic number of 79 and an atomic mass of 197.This atom has ______ protons,______ neutrons,and ______ electrons.
A) 79... 118... 79
B) 118... 79... 118
C) 118... 276... 118
D) 79... 34... 79
Answer: A
Q2) Human body cells are approximately ______ water.
A) 95-99%
B) 25-35%
C) 50-55%
D) 70-95%
Answer: D
Q3) The bond between oppositely charged ions is a(n)______ bond.
A) ionic
B) polar
C) hydrogen
D) covalent
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is lowest in unsaturated fats?
A) beef
B) salmon
C) corn oil
D) canola oil
Answer: A
Q2) What name is given to the following reaction?
glycerol + 3 fatty acids triglyceride + 3 water molecules
A) denaturation
B) hydrolysis
C) hydrogenation
D) dehydration reaction
Answer: D
Q3) ______ is a steroid.
A) Butter
B) Sucrose
C) Amino acid
D) Estrogen
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following is a feature of prokaryotic cells but not eukaryotic cells?
A) pili
B) cell wall
C) flagella
D) DNA
Q2) A hormone that will be secreted from the cell is manufactured by ribosomes _____.
A) attached to the endoplasmic reticulum
B) attached to the Golgi apparatus
C) attached to the plasma membrane
D) inside the nucleus
Q3) Based on its function in detoxifying drugs,you would expect to find a large amount of smooth ER in ______ cells.
A) brain
B) liver
C) intestinal
D) muscle
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Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Q1) Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate excess water from the cell.The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment ______.
A) is isotonic to the protozoan
B) is hypotonic to the protozoan
C) is hypertonic to the protozoan
D) contains a higher concentration of solutes than the protozoan
Q2) Active transport ______.
A) uses ATP as an energy source
B) can move solutes against their concentration gradient
C) can involve the transport of ions
D) all of the above
Q3) An object at rest has no ______ energy,but it may have ______ energy resulting from its location or structure.
A) kinetic... potential
B) kinetic... conserved
C) potential... kinetic
D) stored... potential
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Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy from Food
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Q1) Which part of cellular respiration produces the most NADH?
A) electron transport chain
B) citric acid cycle
C) glycolysis
D) Calvin cycle
Q2) What must pyruvic acid be converted to before it can enter the citric acid cycle?
A) acetyl CoA
B) lactic acid
C) ethyl alcohol
D) citric acid
Q3) The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is ______.
A) ATP
B) oxygen
C) lactic acid
D) NAD<sup>+</sup>
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Q1) The Calvin cycle requires ______ and ______ from the light reactions in order to operate.
A) glucose... carbon dioxide
B) electrons... NADH
C) ATP... NADPH
D) RuBP... NADP<sup>+</sup>
Q2) The last stage of one complete turn of the Calvin cycle involves ______.
A) G3P production
B) oxidation of CO<sub>2</sub>
C) regeneration of RuBP
D) sugar production
Q3) C<sub>4</sub> plants conserve water by ______.
A) shuttling CO<sub>2</sub> from the Calvin cycle to the water-splitting photosystem
B) keeping their stomata closed when the weather is hot and dry
C) growing very deep roots
D) running the Calvin cycle at night
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells from Cells
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Q1) A(n)______ is an example of an organism that can sometimes reproduce asexually.
A) cat
B) human
C) Komodo dragon
D) mouse
Q2) What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumor?
A) Benign tumors are composed of cancer cells; malignant tumors are not.
B) Benign tumors are not the result of a failure of a cell cycle control system; malignant tumors are.
C) Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do.
D) Benign tumors do not form lumps; malignant tumors do form lumps.
Q3) The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the ______.
A) nucleus
B) centriole
C) Golgi apparatus
D) nucleolus
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following techniques is used to collect fetal cells during pregnancy for genetic testing?
A) testcross
B) dihybrid cross
C) amniocentesis
D) pedigree analysis
Q2) Many human traits,such as our performance on intelligence tests or our susceptibility to heart disease,are ______.
A) determined only by our genes
B) influenced by both genes and the environment
C) determined by genes in some people and by the environment in other people
D) not affected by our genes
Q3) A couple has two female children.What is the probability that their next child will be male?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 33%
D) 67%
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Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of DNA
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Q1) The first thing you notice is that there is no immediate increase in viruses following infection.This is because ______.
A) it takes the virus time to adapt to the host
B) although the virus has infected the host, it takes time to complete the lytic cycle
C) the host is immune to the virus
D) the virus is in a lysogenic cycle throughout the experiment
Q2) What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands?
A) ionic
B) covalent
C) hydrophilic
D) hydrogen
Q3) In a DNA double helix,adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______.
A) cytosine... thymine
B) guanine... adenine
C) thymine... cytosine
D) uracil... cytosine
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Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Q1) Which of these techniques could tell you how gene expression differs between individuals with and without cystic fibrosis?
A) therapeutic cloning
B) DNA microarray
C) reproductive cloning
D) karyotyping
Q2) At one point,you were just an undifferentiated,single cell.You are now made of many cells; some of these cells function as liver cells,some as muscle cells,some as red blood cells,while others play different roles.What name is given to the process that is responsible for this?
A) gene expression
B) regeneration
C) carcinogenesis
D) cellular differentiation
Q3) In an operon,the ______ acts as an on/off switch.
A) operator
B) promoter
C) activator
D) repressor
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Page 13
Chapter 12: DNA Technology
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Q1) The state of human gene therapy today is that
A) the work that has been completed so far is purely theoretical, but some treatments are in development.
B) there have been a small number of successes, including with the disease SCID.
C) human gene therapy is used routinely in the treatment of certain rare cancers.
D) human gene therapy is used to treat a wide variety of conditions, including diabetes, cancer, and bone marrow diseases.
Q2) Cutting DNA with a particular restriction enzyme produces DNA fragments that can be separated by ______.
A) gel electrophoresis
B) enzymes
C) recombinant DNA
D) plasmids
Q3) To make restriction fragments,a DNA sample is treated with ______.
A) DNA ligase
B) restriction enzymes
C) gel electrophoresis
D) PCR
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Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of stabilizing selection?
A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.
B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.
D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.
Q2) The original source of genetic variation that serves as the raw material for natural selection is ______.
A) mutation
B) gene flow
C) sexual recombination
D) random fertilization
Q3) Natural selection results in ______.
A) increased genetic variation
B) a population that is better adapted to a future environment
C) a population that is adapted to its current environment
D) an increase in the size of a population
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Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves
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Q1) ______ is the discipline of biology that focuses on classifying organisms and determining their evolutionary relationships.
A) Taxonomy
B) Epistemology
C) Systematics
D) Biogeography
Q2) An ancestral species and all its evolutionary descendants define a ______.
A) outgroup
B) clade
C) genus
D) ingroup
Q3) The type of reproductive barrier that occurs when two species mate but produce sterile hybrids is referred to as ______.
A) mechanical isolation
B) temporal isolation
C) a postzygotic barrier
D) behavioral isolation
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Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life
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Q1) Whose experiments demonstrated that,given the conditions on the primitive Earth,biological monomers could arise spontaneously?
A) Miller and Urey
B) Darwin
C) Watson
D) Margulis
Q2) Large amounts of oxygen gas appeared in Earth's atmosphere about ______ years ago.
A) 200 million
B) 1.7 billion
C) 2.7 billion
D) 4.5 billion
Q3) Under ideal conditions,prokaryotes are capable of reproducing at a(n)______ rate.
A) hypergeometric
B) exponential
C) infinite
D) arithmetic
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Chapter 16: Plants, Fungi, and the Move onto Land
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Q1) What important role do fungi play in many ecosystems?
A) They decompose organic material.
B) They pollinate plants.
C) They disperse the fruits of angiosperms.
D) They perform photosynthesis.
Q2) Why are bryophytes considered incompletely liberated from their ancestral aquatic habitat?
A) Their embryos do not develop within gametangia.
B) Their sperm are flagellated.
C) The gametophyte generation is dominant.
D) They lack a cuticle.
Q3) Why are ferns considered incompletely adapted to the terrestrial environment,when compared with other plants?
A) They lack vascular tissue.
B) Their sperm are flagellated.
C) The gametophyte generation is dominant.
D) They lack gametangia.
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Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of all chordates?
A) They all have vertebral columns.
B) They all exhibit radial symmetry.
C) They all have a notochord sometime during the life cycle.
D) They all have an exoskeleton sometime during the life cycle.
Q2) Which of these exhibits radial symmetry?
A) butterfly
B) spoon
C) Ferris wheel
D) shoe box
Q3) The common ancestor of all animals is likely to have been a(n)______.
A) colonial, flagellated protist
B) colonial, ciliated protist
C) colonial, flagellated bacterium
D) sponge
Q4) ______ are the most diverse group of arthropods.
A) Insects
B) Millipedes
C) Arachnids
D) Crustaceans
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Chapter 18: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) What name is given to the region where sea meets land?
A) pelagic realm
B) intertidal zone
C) benthic realm
D) aphotic zone
Q2) Water-storing plants and deeply-rooted shrubs are plants that characterize ______.
A) tropical forests
B) chaparral
C) deserts
D) savanna
Q3) Which of the following can moderate climate by absorbing heat when the air is warm and releasing heat when the air is cold?
A) clouds
B) glaciers
C) mountains
D) oceans
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Chapter 19: Population Ecology
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Q1) The harsh winter that led to the death of many moose in 1996 is an example of ______.
A) a density-dependent factor
B) acclimation
C) a density-independent factor
D) a trigger for logistic growth
Q2) Species that exhibit an equilibrial life history typically ______.
A) have long lives
B) exhibit a Type III survivorship curve
C) exhibit a Type II survivorship curve
D) have a large number of offspring
Q3) In an ideal,unlimited environment,what shape does a population's growth curve most closely resemble?
A) S
B) J
C) D)
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21
Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) Modern conservation science increasingly aims at ______.
A) protection of federally listed endangered species
B) countering pollution
C) sustaining entire ecosystems
D) maintenance of genetic diversity within species
Q2) The atmosphere is approximately 80% ______ gas.
A) CO<sub>2</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>O
C) CH<sub>4</sub>
D) N<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Besides the atmosphere,abiotic reservoirs of carbon dioxide include
A) fossil fuels and dissolved carbon compounds in the oceans.
B) rocks and dissolved carbon compounds in the oceans.
C) fossil fuels only.
D) rocks only.
Q4) Plants can utilize the ______ form of nitrogen.
A) thiol
B) N<sub>2</sub>
C) amino
D) nitrate
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Q1) Marine animals that have body fluids with a solute concentration equal to that of the surrounding seawater are said to be ______.
A) osmoregulators
B) osmoconformers
C) hypertonic
D) hypotonic
Q2) A main function of most types of epithelial tissue is ______.
A) sensation
B) support
C) covering surfaces
D) absorption
Q3) What is the name of the functional unit of the kidney?
A) renal unit
B) urinary bladder
C) nephron
D) filtrate
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) The esophagus and trachea are both open to the ______.
A) pharynx
B) posterior oral cavity
C) posterior nasal cavity
D) larynx
Q2) On a global scale,the most significant type of malnutrition is _____.
A) vitamin A deficiency
B) calcium deficiency
C) iron deficiency
D) protein deficiency
Q3) Digestion is ______.
A) the absorption of nutrients
B) breakdown of food into small nutrient molecules that the body can absorb
C) churning of food in the stomach and intestine
D) eating
Q4) The stomach mixes food with the secretions of the stomach wall to form ______.
A) gastric juice
B) a food ball
C) chyme
D) acid gastrin
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Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) Trace the path of a red blood cell in a circuit that takes it from the capillary bed of the right kidney to the capillary bed of the left kidney.Assume that you are doing this for an animal with a double circulation system.
A) capillary bed of right kidney venules veins right atrium right ventricle pulmonary arteries capillaries of lungs pulmonary veins left atrium left ventricle aorta arteries arterioles capillary bed of left kidney
B) capillary bed of right kidney venules veins right atrium right ventricle pulmonary veins capillaries of lungs pulmonary arteries left atrium left ventricle aorta arteries arterioles capillary bed of left kidney
C) capillary bed of right kidney venules veins left atrium left ventricle pulmonary arteries capillaries of lungs pulmonary veins right atrium right ventricle aorta arteries arterioles capillary bed of left kidney
D) capillary bed of right kidney arterioles arteries aorta right atrium right ventricle pulmonary arteries capillaries of lungs pulmonary veins left atrium left ventricle veins venules capillary bed of left kidney
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Chapter 24: The Body's Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following kinds of protein circulates in the blood and coats the surfaces of microbes to make them more susceptible to engulfment by phagocytic cells?
A) complement
B) interferon
C) prostaglandin
D) antigen
Q2) A primary immune response is the ______.
A) production of primary-type antibodies in the first day of exposure to a microorganism
B) immune response elicited by the primary antigen of a disease-causing microorganism
C) immune response elicited by the first exposure of lymphocytes to a particular antigen
D) immune response elicited by the first exposure of memory cells to a particular antigen
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Chapter 25: Hormones
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Q1) Osteoporosis could be caused by overactivity of ______.
A) the thyroid gland
B) the parathyroid gland
C) the adrenal cortex
D) glucocorticoids
Q2) Which of the following hormones can make a person susceptible to infection when administered for too long as a drug?
A) glucagon
B) growth hormone
C) glucocorticoids
D) antidiuretic hormone
Q3) Which of the following hormones affects the greatest variety of cell types?
A) prolactin
B) insulin
C) growth hormone
D) calcitonin
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which of the following correctly lists the three stages of labor,in the proper order?
A) dilation, expulsion, delivery of the placenta
B) dilation, crowning, expulsion
C) contractions, dilation, expulsion
D) contractions, dilation, crowning
Q2) Which of the following birth control methods provides the most effective protection against pregnancy and sexually transmitted disease for sexually active people?
A) the pill
B) latex condoms
C) a diaphragm
D) the rhythm method
Q3) When does the human embryo implant in the wall of the uterus?
A) within a few hours of fertilization
B) about a day after conception
C) about a week after conception
D) just after gastrulation
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Chapter 27: Nervous, Sensory, and Locomotor Systems
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Q1) The cells that carry electric signals from one part of the body to another in the nervous system are _____.
A) dendrites
B) neurons
C) effectors
D) synapses
Q2) What causes the inside of a membrane to become positively charged during an action potential?
A) Negatively charged ions rush out.
B) Positively charged ions rush in.
C) Positively charged ions rush in, and negatively charged ions rush out.
D) Negatively charged ions rush in.
Q3) A neuron can relay a more intense signal by ______.
A) sending a stronger action potential
B) sending more action potentials in a given amount of time
C) sending an action potential that travels more quickly
D) sending a longer action potential
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29
Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant
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Q1) The formation of a zygote and a cell with a triploid nucleus is unique to flowering plants. What is this process called?
A) fertilization
B) double fertilization
C) germination
D) pollination
Q2) The ______ enclose and protect the flower bud,while the ______ advertise the flower to insects and other pollinators.
A) anthers... petals
B) carpels... stigmata
C) sepals... stamens
D) sepals... petals
Q3) Which of the following describes the delivery of pollen to the stigma?
A) fertilization
B) double fertilization
C) germination
D) pollination
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Chapter 29: The Working Plant
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Q1) Which of the following best describes transpiration?
A) the loss of oxygen from a plant
B) evaporation from a plant's roots
C) the bulk flow movement of water in a plant
D) the loss of water from plant leaves through evaporation
Q2) Which of the following describes how phloem sap moves within a plant?
A) bulk-flow mechanism
B) sugar-flow mechanism
C) pressure-flow mechanism
D) sink-to-source mechanism
Q3) Which of the following weather conditions would cause transpiration to be most rapid?
A) hot, humid weather
B) cold, humid weather
C) hot, dry weather
D) windy, wet weather
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