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Introduction to Biological Sciences provides students with a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts in biology. Topics include the structure and function of cells, genetic inheritance, evolution, diversity of living organisms, energy transformation, and ecology. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method and the application of biological principles to real-world issues, preparing students for advanced study in life sciences and related fields. The course integrates laboratory exercises to enhance understanding of biological processes and phenomena.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 4th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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Q1) Is it reasonable to conclude (i.e.,is it supported by the data)that female collared lizards prefer more brightly colored male lizards over dull-colored males?
A) Yes, this conclusion is supported by the data.
B) No, this conclusion is not supported by the data.
C) The data do not clearly indicate a preference one way or the other.
D) None of the above choices are correct.
Answer: A
Q2) Humans are ______.
A) producers
B) producers and consumers
C) consumers
D) producers and decomposers
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is a producer?
A) oak tree
B) earthworm
C) sun
D) cat
Answer: A
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Q1) Adjacent water molecules are joined by ______ bonds.
A) covalent only
B) ionic
C) polar and covalent
D) hydrogen
Answer: D
Q2) People have long speculated about whether life exists on Mars.Scientists have evidence that on Mars,______.
A) microbial life exists
B) liquid water has existed in the past
C) the only water present has always been frozen in the polar ice caps
D) water is found only in the form of water vapor
Answer: B
Q3) Beryllium's atomic mass is 9 and its atomic number is 4.How many neutrons are found in a beryllium atom?
A) 9
B) 13
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: D
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Q1) A fat that is hydrogenated is ______.
A) more unsaturated
B) easier to digest
C) more solid
D) less likely to cause strokes
Answer: C
Q2) The following molecule is best described as a ______.
CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>
A) protein
B) carbohydrate
C) hydrocarbon
D) lipid
Answer: C
Q3) Nucleic acids are polymers of ______ monomers.
A) monosaccharide
B) fatty acid
C) DNA
D) nucleotide
Answer: D
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Q1) The structural combination of DNA and protein forms ______.
A) nucleoli
B) nucleoplasm
C) chromatin
D) ribosomes
Q2) Similar to the nucleus,chloroplasts and mitochondria are ______.
A) surrounded by two membranes
B) green
C) manufactured by the nucleolus
D) able to synthesize lipids
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of chloroplasts that suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria?
A) Chloroplasts have cell walls.
B) Chloroplasts contain pigments.
C) Chloroplasts have their own DNA.
D) A single, highly folded plasma membrane surrounds chloroplasts.
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Q1) Which of the following is a measure of randomness in a system?
A) entropy
B) kinetic energy
C) potential energy
D) chemical energy
Q2) Molecules that come from the food we eat provide energy for the amazing work that goes on inside of our cells.This energy,stored inside of our food,is a form of ______.
A) potential energy called chemical energy
B) potential energy called entropy
C) kinetic energy called heat
D) electrical energy called heat
Q3) Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ______ and moves a substance ______ its concentration gradient.
A) energy... down
B) transport proteins... down
C) energy and transport proteins... against
D) transport proteins... against
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Oxygen is a product of cellular respiration; carbon dioxide is a product of photosynthesis.
B) Lactic acid is a product of aerobic respiration; ethyl alcohol is a product of fermentation.
C) Oxidation is the loss of electrons; reduction is the gain of electrons.
D) Glucose is a product of aerobic respiration; lactic acid is a product of anaerobic respiration.
Q2) Electron transport takes place in the ______.
A) mitochondria
B) chloroplasts
C) cytoplasm
D) ribosomes
Q3) Humans are both
A) heterotrophs and consumers.
B) heterotrophs and autotrophs.
C) producers and consumers.
D) autotrophs and producers.
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Q1) Where are photosystems located?
A) chlorophyll
B) thylakoid membrane
C) cristae
D) stroma
Q2) If an herbicide blocked the Calvin cycle before the generation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P),which of the following statements would be true?
A) The plant would still be able to make sugar, just a lot less.
B) No oxygen would be released by the plant.
C) No sugar would be made by the plant.
D) Only RuBP would be recycled.
Q3) Which of the following is a way that a molecule releases energy gained by absorption of a photon?
A) heat
B) fluorescence
C) light
D) all of the above
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Q1) For a species with four pairs of chromosomes,________ chromosome combinations are possible.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 20
Q2) Sexual intercourse in humans ______.
A) allows a haploid sperm cell to fertilize a haploid egg cell
B) produces a haploid individual
C) produces an individual with 23 chromosomes
D) combines two diploid gametes, producing a zygote
Q3) A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ______.
A) have less genetic material than it started with
B) not have completed anaphase
C) have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell
D) have two nuclei
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Q1) Which of these crosses will only produce heterozygous offspring?
A) AA × aa
B) AA × Aa
C) Aa × Aa
D) Aa × aa
Q2) Mendel crossed purebred purple-flowered plants with purebred white-flowered plants,and all of the resulting offspring produced purple flowers.The offspring are all ______,and the allele for purple flowers is ______.
A) heterozygotes... recessive
B) heterozygotes... dominant
C) homozygotes... recessive
D) homozygotes... dominant
Q3) ______ genes violate Mendel's principle of independent assortment.
A) Codominant
B) Linked
C) Recessive
D) Pleiotropic
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Q1) How many nucleotides make up a codon?
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Q2) What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?
A) holotype
B) genotype
C) phenotype
D) morphology
Q3) If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix,what percent of the bases are guanine?
A) 60%
B) 40%
C) 20%
D) 30%
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Q1) How is it that the cells in different body tissues are able to perform different functions?
A) The cells exhibit different patterns of gene expression.
B) Different chromosomes have been inactivated in different cells.
C) The cells contain different genes.
D) The mutations that have accumulated in the cells of the different tissues control functions.
Q2) In prokaryotes,the production of a single RNA transcript for a group of related genes is under the control of the ______.
A) operon
B) master control gene
C) signal transduction pathway
D) homeobox
Q3) Many proto-oncogenes regulate ______.
A) cell growth
B) cell suicide
C) cell division
D) cell repair
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Q1) STR analysis is a DNA profiling technique that makes use of the fact that different people have
A) different numbers of repeats of short DNA sequences at certain sites in the genome.
B) different alleles for many genes in the genome.
C) different restriction fragments
D) different CODIS DNA sequences
Q2) The results indicate that ______.
A) she is not the mother of the son
B) she is the mother of daughter D1
C) she is not the mother of daughter D1
D) the mother could not be the mother of both daughter D1 and daughter D2
Q3) "Sticky ends" are ______.
A) single-stranded ends of fragments of double-stranded DNA
B) regions of double-stranded DNA that can be cut by a restriction enzyme
C) the site on chromosomes where the centromere is found
D) telomeres
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Q1) The presence of freckles is due to a dominant allele.Four percent of the individuals in a particular population lack freckles.Use the Hardy-Weinberg formula to calculate the percentage of individuals in this population who are homozygous dominant for freckles.
A) 32%
B) 4%
C) 64%
D) 80%
Q2) Which of the following is an example of sexual selection?
A) Bacteria evolve resistance to antibiotics.
B) Cheetahs experienced a population bottleneck.
C) Peahens choose to mate with peacocks that have the most beautiful tails.
D) Female butterflies have a higher survival rate than male butterflies.
Q3) Which of the following is likely to be the result of polygenic inheritance?
A) freckles
B) an extra finger
C) human height
D) ABO blood type
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Q1) Sympatric speciation specifically excludes ______.
A) behavioral isolation
B) post-zygotic barriers
C) geographic isolation
D) temporal isolation
Q2) Which of the following taxonomic levels is most inclusive?
A) order
B) genus
C) family
D) class
Q3) Which of the following is a binomial?
A) sapiens
B) Nitzschia jouseae
C) diatom
D) Rhizosolenia
Q4) The wing of a bald eagle is ______ the wing of a penguin.
A) convergent with
B) homologous to
C) unrelated to
D) analogous to

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Q1) Spherical bacteria that occur in clusters are ______.
A) streptococci
B) bacilli
C) spirilla
D) staphylococci
Q2) Variation among pre-cells was due to ______.
A) genetic drift
B) natural selection
C) the bottleneck effect
D) mutation
Q3) Under ideal conditions,prokaryotes are capable of reproducing at a(n)______ rate.
A) hypergeometric
B) exponential
C) infinite
D) arithmetic
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Q1) At current rates of destruction,all of Earth's tropical forests will be gone within ______ years.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 100
Q2) Nearly all food plants are as ______.
A) bryophytes
B) gymnosperms
C) ferns
D) angiosperms
Q3) Which of the following lack vascular tissue?
A) cone-bearing plants
B) grasses
C) ferns
D) mosses
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Q1) What is a feature of birds that makes them valuable as biological indicators?
A) Many migrate long distances.
B) Many are brightly colored.
C) There are over 10,000 different species of birds.
D) Birdwatching is a popular hobby.
Q2) The lancelet is a(n)_____.
A) annelid
B) flatworm
C) chordate
D) tunicate
Q3) Where did humans first appear?
A) South America
B) Africa
C) Asia
D) Europe
Q4) Humans are chordates.Which animal group is most closely related to chordates?
A) molluscs
B) echinoderms
C) annelids
D) arthropods
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Q1) In the oceans,global warming has ______.
A) decreased the amount of oxygen available
B) benefited corals
C) made the water more basic
D) made the water more acidic
Q2) What term applies to the physical and physiological changes experienced by astronauts who spend months in space?
A) acclimation
B) adaptation
C) cosmosation
D) accreditation
Q3) What name is given to the seafloor?
A) pelagic realm
B) intertidal zone
C) benthic realm
D) aphotic zone
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Q1) ______ is the maximum population size that a particular habitat can support.
A) Crash point
B) Carrying capacity
C) Intrinsic population size
D) Intrinsic rate of increase
Q2) In most developed countries,overall population growth rates ______.
A) are high, so the population is growing rapidly
B) are high, so the population size is fairly stable
C) are near zero, so the population size is fairly stable
D) are low, so the population is declining
Q3) The harsh winter that led to the death of many moose in 1996 is an example of ______.
A) a density-dependent factor
B) acclimation
C) a density-independent factor
D) a trigger for logistic growth
Q4) Which population is growing at the fastest rate?
A) Population A
B) Population B
C) Population C
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Q1) Which type of ecosystem has low production but nonetheless contributes a large proportion of Earth's total net primary production?
A) tropical rain forest
B) coral reef
C) open ocean
D) desert
Q2) Herbivory is an example of a _____ interaction.
A) +/+
B) -/-
C) 0/+
D) +/-
Q3) The present rate of species loss ______.
A) suggests that about 25% of all plant and animal species may be extinct by the end of the century
B) is about the same as it has been during the last 100,000 years
C) is as much as 100 times higher than at any time in the last 100,000 years
D) is slower than in recent years because of conservation efforts
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Q1) When body temperature is too low,which of the following occurs?
A) Blood vessels in the skin constrict.
B) Muscles relax.
C) Sweat glands are activated.
D) Blood vessels at the body surface dilate and fill with blood.
Q2) Connective tissue is different from the other major tissue types in that ______.
A) it is made up of cells
B) the cells are sparsely scattered through an extracellular matrix
C) it is not made up of cells
D) it is found only in humans
Q3) Which of the following is a source of water loss in humans?
A) urination
B) defecation
C) breathing
D) all of the above
Q4) Bone is a type of
A) connective tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) extracellular matrix
D) adipose tissue
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Q1) The four stages of food processing are,in order:
A) ingestion, absorption, elimination, digestion
B) ingestion, elimination, digestion, absorption
C) ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination
D) digestion, absorption, ingestion, elimination
Q2) Which of the following choices lists the organs of the alimentary canal in the correct order?
A) pharynx, oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, large intestine
B) oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine
C) esophagus, pharynx, stomach, large intestine, small intestine
D) oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine
Q3) Altogether,the body secretes about 7 liters of water into the alimentary canal each day. About what percentage of this water gets reabsorbed?
A) 30%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 90%
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Q1) Leukemia ______.
A) decreases the production of white blood cells
B) increases the production of red blood cells
C) is a cancer of the white blood cells
D) is a cancer that arises in the lungs
Q2) In animals with a closed circulatory system,gas exchange occurs across the thin walls of ______.
A) arteries
B) arterioles
C) capillaries
D) venules
Q3) Cigarette smoking ______.
A) kills about 440,000 Americans every year
B) accounts for 90% of all cases of lung cancer
C) can affect the health of nonsmokers through secondhand smoke
D) all of the above
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Q1) ______ may destroy infected cells.
A) Phagocytic cells
B) Helper T cells
C) Natural killer T cells
D) Cytotoxic T cells
Q2) Which of the following types of cells does HIV preferentially infect?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) natural killer cells
C) helper T cells
D) phagocytic cells
Q3) What has caused the evolution of drug-resistant strains of HIV?
A) genetic engineering of the virus in research laboratories
B) the merger of different AIDS viruses into one new virus
C) the joining of antibodies to HIV
D) anti-AIDS drugs
Q4) Which of the following is a response of our innate defense system?
A) active immunity
B) inflammation
C) cell-mediated immunity
D) movement of red blood cells to the affected site
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Q1) Steroid hormones _____.
A) are derived from amino acids
B) diffuse through the plasma membrane into target cells
C) bind to receptors in the plasma membrane.
D) are water soluble
Q2) ______ can be a symptom of hypothyroidism.
A) Goiter
B) A low sperm count
C) Graves' disease
D) Hyperactivity
Q3) In the human body,calcium levels are regulated by the ______.
A) antagonistic actions of calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
B) antagonistic actions of insulin and glucagon
C) interactions of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
D) interactions of glucocorticoids and androgens
Q4) Epinephrine ______.
A) decreases metabolic rate
B) decreases heart rate
C) increases absorption of glucose by the digestive tract
D) increases breathing rate
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Q1) Why are human testes located in an external sac rather than in the abdominal cavity?
A) to shorten the distance that semen must travel during ejaculation
B) so the testes can be kept at a constant temperature
C) so the testes can be kept cooler than the body's interior
D) so the testes can enlarge at sexual maturity
Q2) Which one of the following STDs is not caused by a virus?
A) AIDS
B) chlamydia
C) genital warts
D) genital herpes
Q3) When does the human embryo implant in the wall of the uterus?
A) within a few hours of fertilization
B) about a day after conception
C) about a week after conception
D) just after gastrulation
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Q1) A baseball player leaping for a baseball and a cricket jumping away from a frog are both using all of the following except their ______.
A) sensory receptors
B) central nervous system
C) digestive system
D) muscle system
Q2) Bloodshot eyes reflect increased blood flow to the eye surface because of irritants such as dust and smoke.These swollen blood vessels are located on the ______.
A) cornea
B) sclera
C) iris
D) lens
Q3) A person whose eyeball is shorter than normal suffers from ______.
A) hyperopia
B) myopia
C) astigmatism
D) presbyopia
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Q1) Without honeybees,which process in the life cycle of plants such as apples,almonds,blueberries,and pumpkins is most affected?
A) seed dispersal
B) secondary growth
C) pollination
D) seed germination
Q2) Which of the following do guard cells act to regulate?
A) stomata
B) cuticle
C) epidermis
D) root hairs
Q3) Which of the following best describes the function of typical leaves?
A) anchoring
B) photosynthesis
C) shade
D) storage of the sugars produced
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Q1) Which of the following convert soil ammonium to nitrate?
A) nitrifying bacteria
B) ammonifying bacteria
C) denitrifying bacteria
D) nitrogen-fixing bacteria
Q2) Transpiration pulls water up a plant because of two mechanisms: _____ describes water molecules sticking together and _____ describes water molecules sticking to the walls of the xylem.
A) cohesion...adhesion
B) adhesion...cohesion
C) adhesion...gravity
D) gravity...cohesion
Q3) Which of the following best describes the conversion that occurs during nitrogen fixation?
A) ammonium to nitrate
B) nitrate to ammonium
C) nitrogen to ammonium
D) nitrogen to ammonium or nitrate
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