Introduction to Biochemistry Question Bank - 2401 Verified Questions

Introduction to Biochemistry Question

Bank

Course Introduction

Introduction to Biochemistry explores the chemical principles and processes that underpin all living systems. This course covers the structure and function of biologically important molecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids. Students examine enzymatic activity, metabolic pathways, and the molecular mechanisms of energy production and regulation within cells. Foundational topics also include the role of water in biological systems, pH and buffers, and the basics of molecular genetics. By integrating chemistry and biology, the course prepares students for advanced studies in life sciences and related disciplines.

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Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 8th Edition by John E. McMurry

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Chapter 1: Matter and Measurements

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Sample Questions

Q1) What element is represented by the chemical symbol K?

A)kaolin

B)phosphorus

C)potassium

D)silver

E)sodium

Answer: C

Q2) How many grams are contained in 1.20 pounds?

A)545 g

B)378 g

C)264 g

D)2.2 g

E)1.20 g

Answer: A

Q3) If an automobile gets 24.5 miles to the gallon and the cost of gasoline is $2.75 a gallon,how much will it cost to drive 975 km?

Answer: $68.00

Q4) Gasoline has a density of about 0.65 g/mL.How much does 34.0 L weigh in pounds?

Answer: Convert 34.0 L to mL then multiply by the density to obtain the grams. Convert grams to pounds:34,000 mL × 0.65 g/mL × 1 lb/454 g = 48.7 lbs.

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Atoms and the Periodic Table

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Sample Questions

Q1) The element which has four valence electrons is A)H.

B)Na.

C)Mg.

D)Si.

E)S.

Answer: D

Q2) Which column of the periodic table contains only nonmetals?

A)4A

B)5A

C)6A

D)7A

E)3A

Answer: D

Q3) The number of neutrons in an atom is equal to A)atomic number - mass number.

B)mass number - atomic number.

C)the atomic number.

D)the mass number.

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Ionic Compounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) The name of Cl^- is

A)chlorine ion.

B)chloride ion.

C)chlorate ion.

D)chlorite ion.

E)diatomic chlorine.

Answer: B

Q2) A formula unit of the ionic compound copper(II)carbonate consists of ________ copper(II)ions and ________ carbonate ions.

A)one;one

B)one;two

C)two;one

D)two;two

E)some other combination of ions

Answer: A

Q3) How are noble gases related to the octet rule?

Answer: Noble gases,except helium,illustrate the stability of elements with a full outer shell (an octet).These elements are unreactive because their valence shell is filled.Helium is also grouped with these elements because it is unreactive due to its filled 1s shell.

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Chapter 4: Molecular Compounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to VSEPR theory,a molecule with three charge clouds including one lone pair would have a ________ shape.

A)bent

B)linear

C)tetrahedral

D)trigonal planar t

E)pyramidal

Q2) The bond angle in the molecule H₂S is ________ because the ________.

A)exactly 109.5°;S atom has four charge clouds

B)greater than 109.5°;lone pairs allow the bond angle to expand

C)less than 109.5°;lone pairs force the hydrogen atoms closer together

D)exactly 120°;lone pairs are counted as one charge cloud

E)exactly 180°;the S atom has two bonds

Q3) Explain why it is unlikely that an organic molecule would have an odd number of valence electrons.

Q4) Draw the Lewis structure for the a molecule of ethylamine,CH₃CH₂NH_2.

Q5) When two atoms share one or more pairs of electrons,a covalent bond is formed. A)True B)False

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Chapter 5: Classification and Balancing of Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the typical net ionic equation for an acid-base neutralization of KOH and HCl?

A)HCl(aq)+ KOH(aq) H₂O(l)+ KCl(aq)

B)KOH(aq) K⁺(aq)+ OH^-(aq)

C)H₂O(l) H⁺(aq)+ OH^-(aq)

D)K⁺(aq)+ OH^-(aq) KOH(aq)

E)H⁺(aq)+ OH^-(aq) H₂O(l)

Q2) In the redox reaction shown,________ is oxidized and becomes ________. Fe(s)+ CuCl₂ aq) Cu(s)+ FeCl₂(aq)

A)Fe;Fe⁺

B)Fe;Fe²⁺

C)Cu;Cu²⁺

D)Cu²⁺;Cu

E)none of the above

Q3) Write and balance the following acid-base neutralization reaction: KOH(aq)+ H₂SO₄ aq)

Q4) Write and balance the following acid-base neutralization reaction: HBr(aq)+ Li₂CO₃(aq)

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Chapter 6: Chemical Reactions: Mole and Mass Relationships

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Sample Questions

Q1) How much Ca(NO₃)₂ should be weighed out to have 0.650 mol?

A)66.4 g

B)97.6 g

C)107 g

D)133 g

E)165 g

Q2) Calculate the number of moles of aspirin,C₉H₈O₄,in 4.0 gram sample.

A)2.2 × 10^-4 moles

B)2.2 moles

C)4.6 × 10^-3 moles

D)0.022 moles

E)180 moles

Q3) The molecular weight of PCl₃ is ________ amu.

A)66.42

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Chemical Reactions: Energy, rates, and Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) To simplify comparisons,the energy value of fuels is expressed in units of A)kcal.

B)kcal/mol.

C)kcal/g.

D)kcal/L.

E)some other unit.

Q2) Which of the following states of matter should have the lowest entropy value?

A)a crystalline solid

B)a liquid

C)a gas

D)Two of these have virtually the same entropy.

E)all of the above

Q3) The function of a catalyst in a reaction system is to

A)increase the yield of product.

B)decrease the amount of heat produced.

C)decrease the amount of energy consumed in the reaction.

D)increase the rate of the reaction.

E)decrease the amount of reactants consumed.

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Chapter 8: Gases, liquids, and Solids

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Sample Questions

Q1) A mixture of the gases N₂,O₂,and He has a total pressure of 760 mm Hg.If the partial pressure of N₂ is 90 mm Hg and of O₂ is 270 mm Hg,what is the partial pressure of He?

A)1120 mm Hg

B)760 mm Hg

C)400 mm Hg

D)360 mm Hg

E)120 mm Hg

Q2) Which transformation is condensation?

A)liquid solid

B)liquid gas

C)solid liquid

D)solid gas

E)gas liquid

Q3) Which of the following cannot have hydrogen bonds?

A)H₂O

B)HCl

C)HF

D)CH₃NH₂

E)NH₃

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Chapter 9: Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A water solution of sodium chloride is a good conductor of electricity.Due to this property,table salt is classified as a(n)

A)weak electrolyte.

B)strong electrolyte.

C)non-electrolyte.

D)semi-electrolyte.

E)none of these.

Q2) What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.750 mol CaCl₂ in enough water to make 0.500 L of solution?

A)0.375 M

B)0.667 M

C)1.50 M

D)83.2 M

E)166.5 M

Q3) Explain the difference between osmosis and dialysis.

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Chapter 10: Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the concentration of a phosphoric acid solution of a 25.00 mL sample of the acid requires 42.24 mL of 0.135 M NaOH for neutralization?

A)0.228 M

B)0.684 M

C)0.0760 M

D)0.0266 M

E)0.0799 M

Q2) Which of the following pH's corresponds to a neutral solution?

A)7.0

B)1.8

C)6.2

D)8.5

E)14.0

Q3) Which of the following pH's corresponds to a strongly basic solution?

A)11.5

B)2.7

C)6.9

D)7.4

E)4.3

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Chapter 11: Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The unit of radiation exposure which allows for the energy and penetrating power of different types of radiation is the A)curie.

B)roentgen.

C)rem.

D)rad.

E)sievert.

Q2) Approximately how old is a fossil that has a little more than 6% of its original radioactivity? The half-life of carbon-14 used in dating artifacts is 5700 years.

A)57,000 years

B)34,200 years

C)20,000 years

D)11,400 years

E)5700 years

Q3) Discuss the harmful effects of ionizing radiation on the human body,including the factors affecting the degree of harm and the protective measures that can be used to minimize exposure.

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Chapter 12: Introduction to Organic Chemistry: Alkanes

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Sample Questions

Q1) When hydrocarbons undergo complete combustion,the product(s)is(are)

A)CO₂ and O₂.

B)CO₂.

C)CO₂ and H₂O.

D)H₂O and O₂.

E)H₂O.

Q2) The alcohol functional group has

A)a carbon-carbon triple bond.

B)a carbon-oxygen-hydrogen group.

C)a six-membered ring with three double bonds.

D)a double bond between carbon and oxygen.

E)one or more bonds between carbon and nitrogen.

Q3) Which substance is not reactive with respect to alkanes?

A)H₂

B)Cl₂

C)O₂

D)Br₂

E)none of the above

Q4) Explain the term "functional group." How do organic chemists use the functional group concept?

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Chapter 13: Alkenes, alkynes, and Aromatic Compounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) The term used to describe the geometry of a carbon atom involved in a triple bond is

A)distorted tetrahedral.

B)linear.

C)perpendicular.

D)tetrahedral.

E)trigonal planar.

Q2) A substitution reaction can best be described as a reaction in which

A)a hydrocarbon reacts with oxygen to produce CO₂,H₂O,and energy.

B)two reactants combine to form one new product with no extra atoms.

C)a single reactant splits into two products.

D)two reactants exchange atoms to give two new products.

E)a single reactant undergoes reorganization of its chemical bonds,producing an isomer of the reactant.

Q3) Another name for o-nitrotoluene is

A)1-nitrotoluene.

B)2-nitrotoluene.

C)3-nitrotoluene.

D)4-nitrotoluene.

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Chapter 14: Some Compounds With Oxygen, sulfur, or a Halogen

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the most soluble in water?

A)HOCH₂CH₂CH₂OH B)CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH C)CH₃CH₂OCH₂CH₃ D)CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₃ E)CH₃CH₂CH₂OCH₃

Q2) When a thiol is oxidized the product is

A)an aldehyde.

B)a ketone.

C)sulfuric acid.

D)a disulfide.

E)an alkene.

Q3) Strong oxidation of a primary alcohol will produce

A)an aldehyde.

B)an alkene.

C)a carboxylic acid.

D)an ether.

E)a ketone.

Q4) List three properties of enantiomers that are the same and three properties that are different.

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Chapter 15: Aldehydes and Ketones

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?

A)A red-brown solution becomes clear and colorless.

B)A red precipitate forms from a blue solution.

C)A purple solution yields a brown precipitate.

D)A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.

E)A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

Q2) Which observation denotes a positive Tollens' test?

A)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.

B)A brick-red precipitate forms.

C)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.

D)A silver wire dissolves.

E)Bubbles of oxygen gas are produced.

Q3) Which compound has the highest boiling point?

A)CH₃CHO

B)CH₃CH₂CHO

C)CH₃CH₂OH

D)CH₃CH₂CH₂OH

E)CH₃COCH₃

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Chapter 16: Amines

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which molecule listed is heterocyclic?

A)aniline

B)phenol

C)pyridine

D)benzoic acid

E)naphthalene

Q2) Some amine drugs are administered in the form of salts in order to make them

A)form into pills more easily.

B)taste bitter.

C)more basic.

D)more soluble in body fluids.

Q3) What is the most important chemical property of amines?

A)They are weak bases.

B)They are strong bases.

C)They are weak acids.

D)They are strong acids.

E)They are oxidizing acids.

Q4) Using dashed lines show how two molecules of ethylamine could possibly hydrogen bond to each other.

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Chapter 17: Carboxylic Acids and Their Derivatives

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Sample Questions

Q1) Reaction of butanoic acid with ethanol produces

A)butyl ethanoate.

B)ethyl butanoate.

C)butyl ethanamide.

D)ethyl butanamide.

E)butyl ethyl ester.

Q2) Nylons and proteins are both referred to as polyamides because

A)each reactant molecule contains an amide group.

B)they are produced by reaction between an amide and an ester.

C)they are formed when an acid reacts with ammonia.

D)they are produced by basic hydrolysis of an amine.

E)they are formed when an acid functional group reacts with an amine functional group.

Q3) Which of the following functional groups cannot hydrogen bond with itself?

A)carboxylic acids

B)esters

C)primary amines

D)alcohols

E)primary amides

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Chapter 18: Amino Acids and Proteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are non-covalent interactions important in maintaining the secondary,tertiary,and quaternary aspects of amino acids except A)sulfur-sulfur bonds.

B)hydrogen bonding along the backbone.

C)hydrogen bonding between R groups.

D)salt bridges between R groups.

E)hydrophobic interactions between R groups.

Q2) All of the following are globular proteins except A)myosin.

B)ribonuclease.

C)hemoglobin.

D)albumin.

E)immunoglobulin.

Q3) List three denaturing agents that can act on proteins and explain how each one disrupts the protein's structure.

Q4) Using three letter designation,write the six tripeptides that can be formed from the combination of serine,tyrosine and aspartate.

Q5) Draw the tripeptide as it would be found at pH = 7: ala-gly-phe

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Chapter 19: Enzymes and Vitamins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Noncompetitive inhibition can be overcome by

A)increasing the concentration of substrate.

B)increasing the concentration of enzyme.

C)decreasing the concentration of inhibitor.

D)decreasing the concentration of products.

E)decreasing the concentration of substrate.

Q2) An enzyme that catalyzes addition or removal of hydrogen or oxygen on substrate molecules is a(an)

A)ligase.

B)isomerase.

C)oxidoreductase.

D)transferase.

E)hydrolase.

Q3) Enzymes are members of which class of biomolecules?

A)carbohydrates

B)lipids

C)nucleic acids

D)proteins

E)steroids

Q4) Explain how an allosteric enzyme is regulated.

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Chapter 20: Carbohydrates

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Sample Questions

Q1) Illustrate the conversion between the and forms of d-fructose.Make sure to include the open chain form.

Q2) The reaction in which a disaccharide is broken down into its component monosaccharides is

A)glycoside formation. B)hydrolysis.

C)enediol formation. D)reduction.

E)oxidation.

Q3) Which of the following polysaccharides is used to inhibit blood clotting?

A)chitin

B)heparin

C)amylopectin

D)hyaluronic acid

Q4) Which of the following monosaccharides is present in nucleic acids?

A)glucose

B)galactose

C)ribose

D)fructose

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Chapter 21: The Generation of Biochemical Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP ________ 7 kcal/mol of energy and is an ________ reaction.

A)releases;endergonic B)consumes;exergonic C)releases;exergonic D)consumes;endergonic

E)None of these are correct.

Q2) After O₂ has been reduced in the electron transport chain,the oxygen atoms are part of what molecules?

A)ATP

B)water

C)carbon dioxide

D)acetate

E)acetyl-CoA

Q3) The enzymes of the oxidative phosphorylation system are located in the A)cytosol.

B)nucleus.

C)matrix of the mitochondria.

D)cristae of the mitochondria.

E)endoplasmic reticulum.

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Chapter 22: Carbohydrate Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) The pathway followed by glucose when energy is needed is A)gluconeogenesis.

B)glycogenesis.

C)glycolysis.

D)lipogenesis.

E)the pentose phosphate pathway.

Q2) All of the following statements concerning digestion are correct except A)the major chemical reaction in digestion is enzyme-catalyzed hydrolysis of large molecules.

B)digestion begins in the mouth,continues in the stomach,and is completed in the small intestine.

C)digestion can be considered a catabolic process in which bulk food is broken down into individual small molecules.

D)the same enzymes are used in the digestion of carbohydrates,lipids,and proteins.

E)the major physical processes in digestion are mixing,softening,and grinding of food.

Q3) What are the three possible fates of pyruvate?

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Chapter 23: Lipids

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Q1) Upon hydrolysis,which of the following lipid types would yield a carbohydrate as a product?

A)lecithins

B)glycolipids

C)cephalins

D)phospholipids

Q2) All of the following are components of a cell membrane except A)liposomes.

B)integral proteins.

C)peripheral proteins.

D)glycoproteins.

E)cholesterol.

Q3) Which molecule is a polyunsaturated fatty acid?

A)CH₃(CH₂)₇CH=CH(CH₂)<sub>7</su b>COOH

B)CH₂=CHCH=CHCOOH

C)CH₃CH₂(CH=CHCH₂)₃(CH<sub>2</ sub>)₆COOH

D)HOOCCH₂(CH=CHCH₂)₃CH₂COOH E)none of the above

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Chapter 24: Lipid Metabolism

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Q1) Chylomicrons are the least dense of all the lipoprotein/lipid combinations because A)their lipoproteins nest together easily.

B)they have a high ratio of cholesterol to triacylglycerols.

C)they have the highest proportion of less dense lipid molecules.

D)there are many carbohydrate groups included in the external structure.

E)their amino acids are mostly hydrophobic.

Q2) Glycerol produced as a byproduct of metabolism of lipids is converted to ________,which can be isomerized to a compound that can enter glycolysis or gluconeogenesis.

A)fatty acids

B)citrate

C)dihydroxyacetone phosphate

D)acetone

E)carbon dioxide

Q3) Which has greater "energy density," carbohydrates or fats.Explain your answer in terms of molecular structure and net energy production.

Q4) Compare the processes of -oxidation of fatty acids and lipogenesis of fatty acids.

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Chapter 25: Protein and Amino Acid Metabolism

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Q1) Explain the difference between ketogenic and glucogenic amino acids.Identify the amino acids in each category.

Q2) The reaction of pyruvate with glutamate is the main synthetic route for the formation of A)aspartate.

B)alanine.

C)phenylalanine.

D)glycine.

E) -ketoglutarate.

Q3) The conversion of nitrogen derivatives to urea takes place in the A)blood.

B)kidneys.

C)liver. D)brain.

E)intestines.

Q4) One of the most important functions of amino acids is for the synthesis of A)glucose.

B)pyruvate for energy.

C)body proteins.

D)purines and pyrimidines.

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Chapter 26: Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis

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Q1) When a -N-glycosidic bond forms between guanine and deoxyribose,the resulting molecule is called A)riboguanine. B)deoxyriboguanine. C)deoxyriboguanosine. D)guanosine. E)deoxyguanidine.

Q2) The type of nucleic acid that carries the information for protein synthesis from the nucleus to the cytoplasm is A)DNA. B)mRNA. C)rRNA.

D)tRNA. E)RNA.

Q3) How many three letter combinations are there present in the genetic code?

A)32

B)64

C)16

D)88

Q4) Draw the structure for the dCMP nucleotide.Label all parts.

Page 28

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Chapter 27: Genomics

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Q1) Recombinant DNA is the process of

A)inserting a gene from one species into the DNA sequence of another.

B)commingling the DNA strands of two different chromosomes.

C)combining one chromosome from one species with a chromosome from another species.

D)realigning gene sequences to form a new gene.

E)cross breeding two closely related species to produce a hybrid.

Q2) All of the following terms are associated with recombinant DNA except A)plasmids.

B)restriction enzymes.

C)bacterial cells.

D)ribonuclease.

E)sticky ends.

Q3) An alteration of an individual's genetic makeup with the goal of providing a cure is called

A)biotechnology.

B)bioinformatics.

C)gene therapy.

D)genetic engineering.

E)pharmacogenetics.

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Chapter 28: Chemical Messengers: Hormones, neurotransmitters, and Drugs

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Q1) The second messenger cAMP is synthesized from A)ATP.

B)ADP.

C)AMP.

D)GTP.

E)GDP.

Q2) Which of the following statements about neurotransmitters is not correct?

A)A neurotransmitter must carry a message across a tiny gap between nerve cells.

B)A neutrotransmitter is released in short bursts and their effects are very short lived.

C)A neutrotransmitter is quickly broken down or reabsorbed by the nerve cell.

D)A neutrotransmitter is synthesized and released close to its site of action.

E)All statements are true.

Q3) Progestins are a specific type of steroid whose function is to A)maintain pregnancy.

B)promote development of secondary male sex characteristics.

C)promote development of secondary female sex characteristics.

D)regulate the sodium/potassium balance in cellular fluids.

E)regulate glucose metabolism.

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Chapter 29: Body Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) extracellular fluid

A)any substance that is foreign to the body and therefore causes an immune response

B)a protein molecule that identifies foreign substances and mediates certain immune responses

C)an abnormal condition in which the acidity of the blood is lower than normal and the pH is higher

D)fluid outside of cells,such as blood plasma or interstitial fluid

E)fluid inside cells

F)an abnormal condition in which the acidity of the blood is higher than normal and the pH is lower

Q2) The human body contains approximately 64% ________ fluid.

A)extracellular

B)intracellular

C)blood plasma

D)none of the above

Q3) Distinguish between inflammatory and immune responses to antigens.

Q4) Comment on the tertiary structure of the defensive proteins immunoglobulins and fibrin.Explain how the structure of each protein contributes to its function.

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