Course Introduction
Introduction to Audiology Pre-Test
Questions
Introduction to Audiology provides students with a foundational understanding of the science of hearing and the discipline of audiology. The course explores the anatomy and physiology of the auditory system, causes and types of hearing loss, methods of hearing assessment, and principles of auditory rehabilitation. Students learn about basic audiometric testing, hearing aids, cochlear implants, and contemporary approaches to managing hearing disorders. Emphasis is placed on the roles and responsibilities of audiologists, ethical considerations, and the impact of hearing loss on communication and quality of life across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Audiology Yesterday,
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true specialty area in audiology
A)Pediatric audiology
B)Hearing testing
C)Working in a medical clinic
D)PhD audiology
Answer: A
Q2) Audiologists are non-physician healthcare professionals who treat hearing loss with techniques other than medicine or surgery.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which audiologist whose work has focused on newborn and pediatric hearing is also called the Mother of Audiology?
Answer: Marion Downs
Q4) The first academic program in audiology was established by Raymond Carhart at ___________ University.
Answer: Northwestern
Q5) Harvey Fletcher worked at the _______ Laboratories.
Answer: Bell
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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics
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Q1) The human voice can be characterized in terms of its _______________ and higher frequencies called _________.
Answer: Fundamental frequency
Q2) The repeated back and forth movement of a vibrating object is called _______ motion.
Answer: Simple harmonic motion
Q3) The subjective attribute of intensity is called _________.
Answer: Loudness
Q4) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Sound can travel in any medium as long as the medium contains particles.
B)Sound can travel only in air.
C)Sound cannot travel in water.
D)Sound can travel in a vacuum a space where there are no particles.)
Answer: A
Q5) Minimum auditory field MAF)and minimum auditory pressure MAP)are measured using ______ and ________,respectively.
Answer: Loudspeakers, earphones
Q6) The detection of a sound is influenced by its duration.This is referred to as
Answer: Temporal integration
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main parts of the outer ear are ______ and ________.
Answer: Auricle/Pinna, External ear canal
Q2) There are active processes in the cochlea.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The abbreviation "CPA" stands for ___________________.
Answer: Cerebellopontine angle
Q4) The lightest bone in the human body is the ________.
Answer: Stapes
Q5) The thickness of the normal tympanic membrane is about 0.1 mm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q6) The highly metabolic structure forming the lateral wall of the cochlea is the stria
Answer: Vascularis
Q7) Name the main parts of the pinna.
Answer: Helix, Triangular Fossa, Scaphoid Fossa, Crus of Helix, Concha, Tragus, Intertragal notch, Anti-Tragus, Ear lobe/Lobule Page 5
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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment
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Q1) Before a hearing assessment is conducted in a hospital facility,a patient or his or her legal guardian must provide written consent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List two risks to patient safety in an audiology clinic.
Q3) A patient history should be taken after hearing testing is complete.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Always writing the patient's name on each clinic document before hearing testing begins is an example of good clinical ___________.
Q5) List four different types of transducers used in hearing testing.
Q6) Which of the following is a factor in behavioral hearing assessment?
A)Age in young children
B)State of arousal
C)Cognitive function and language status
D)All of the above
Q7) A purpose of masking is to prevent _________________ hearing and to obtain _______ information.
Q8) What are some examples of universal precautions for patient safety?
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Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry
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Q1) What three factors do audiologists look for when interpreting audiograms?
Q2) Define the term audiometric zero.
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of insert earphones versus supra-aural earphones?
A)Attenuation of background ambient sound
B)Increased comfort
C)Better infection control
D)All of the above
Q4) Loudspeakers are the preferred transducer of choice for hearing testing of infants and children who do not tolerate earphones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe differences in pure tone hearing testing of young children versus older children and adults.
Q6) An air-bone gap is a typical finding in
A)Normal hearing.
B)Sensorineural hearing loss.
C)Conductive hearing loss.
D)All of the above.
Q7) What is a hearing threshold?
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Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry
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Q1) In the clinic,word recognition is never tested in background noise.
A)True
B)False
Q2) State two different patient response modes in word recognition testing.
Q3) List three disadvantages to relying on the MLV approach for measurement of word recognition.
Q4) What is the difference between speech discrimination and word recognition?
Q5) The maximum score in word recognition performance is always at a comfortable listening level.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Word recognition is more accurate with a fifty-word list than with a twenty-five-word list.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Two response modes used in measuring SRT in young children are _______________ and _______________.
Q8) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry.
Q10) What is meant by the term "rollover"? Page 9
Q9) What is the relation between the SRT and the PTA?
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Page 10
Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation
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Q1) Masking is almost never required in speech audiometry.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If the amount of masking noise is insufficient to prevent cross-over,what type of masking would this be?
A)Sufficient masking
B)Undermasking
C)Overmasking
D)None of the above
Q3) While deciding to measure masked AC thresholds,which of the following should be considered?
A)Only the unmasked AC threshold/presentation level in the test ear
B)Only the amount of inter-aural attenuation
C)Only the BC threshold of the non-test ear
D)All of the above
Q4) When the stimulus is heard in the non-test ear,_____ occurs.
Q5) The reduction in intensity when sound is transmitted from other ear to the other through or around the head is called ___________.
Q6) The interaural attenuation for bone-conduction testing is ______.
Page 11
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Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures
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Q1) A very high ear canal volume estimated during acoustic immittance measurement usually indicates a ____________________.
Q2) The most common stimulus used to elicit TEOAEs is a ______________________.
Q3) The abbreviation ART stands for __________.
Q4) The abbreviations TEOAE and DPOAE stand for ______ and ________,respectively.
Q5) Two acoustic immittance tests are ______________ and ______________
Q6) The sound used in acoustic immittance measurement is known as the _________ tone.
Q7) What does the peak pressure in a tympanogram represent?
A)The pressure at which the tympanic membrane is the most compliant
B)The pressure at which the tympanic membrane is the least compliant
C)The maximum pressure that the tympanic membrane can sustain without rupturing
D)The minimum pressure that the tympanic membrane can sustain without collapsing
Q8) OAEs are always normal when pure tone audiometry is normal.
A)True
B)False
Q9) Acoustic immittance tests can be performed with the ear canal open.
A)True
B)False Page 12
Q10) Acoustic immittance recorded at a single air pressure is called _____.
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Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory
Evoked Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the SSI-ICM test and why it is useful.
Q2) A left ear advantage is normally found on dichotic listening tests.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In which of the following tests are different words,digits,or sentences are presented to each ear at the same time?
A)Dichotic tests
B)Filtered word tests
C)Speech-in-noise tests
D)PI-PB test
Q4) A type of noise consisting of multiple speakers speaking simultaneously in which words can be occasionally understood is called
A)Multitalker babble
B)Broadband speech noise
C)Cocktail party noise
D)Cafeteria noise
Q5) Define what is meant by the phrase "distorted speech tests."
Page 14
Q6) What are the two major features of ABR waves that are analyzed?
Q7) The latency of ABR wave V is the time it occurs after the __________________.
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Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders
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Q1) ______________ tests are performed with irrigation or flushing of the external ear canal with warm and cool water or air.
Q2) Hearing loss associated with aging is termed ___________.
Q3) A balance test that takes into account vestibular sensation,vision,and somatosensory or proprioceptive information is called ________________.
Q4) Name some characteristics of test performance of a screening procedure.
Q5) Why is an accurate diagnosis of hearing loss important in clinical audiology?
Q6) Name three advantages of electroacoustic techniques such as otoacoustic emissions)over pure tone screening when performing hearing screening of preschool and school age children.
Q7) Risk factors for infant hearing loss include each of the following EXCEPT
A)NICU stay of more than five days.
B)In utero infections.
C)Syndromes associated with hearing loss.
D)Term birth 40-week gestational age.
Q8) When an audiologist has any concerns about ear disease or a patient meets certain criteria for ear disease,the prudent decision is to make a _________________ to a physician.
Q9) What is the first step in the diagnostic process? Page 15
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Page 16
Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders
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Q1) A disease characterized by fixation of the ossicular chain is ________________.
Q2) Two general categories of genetically determined hearing loss are autosomal __________________ and autosomal ____________________ .
Q3) Fluid in the middle ear space is called otitis media with ________________.
Q4) Sensorineural hearing loss never fluctuates in severity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) State two different treatment options for otitis media.
Q6) Constriction or narrowing of the external ear canal is called _________________
Q7) A perforation in the tympanic membrane in an otherwise normal ear produces a severe-to-profound hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Which of the following is a feature of otosclerosis?
A)Carhart's notch
B)Schwartz sign
C)Paracusis willisii
D)All of the above
Q9) TTS and PTS stand for ________ and __________,respectively.
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Central Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders
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Q1) Change in the brain brought about by experience is known as brain
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a possible site of dysfunction in auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder:
A)Middle ear
B)Inner hair cells
C)Synapse between inner hair cells and auditory nerve
D)Auditory nerve fibers
Q3) One risk factor for auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder in infants is graduation from the ____________________.
Q4) Define an auditory processing disorder APD).
Q5) Alzheimer's disease is associated with hearing loss and central auditory dysfunction.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder is usually identified by normal ___________and the absence of an __________.
Q8) What are some major features of ANSD? Page 18
Q7) How is APD different from typical hearing loss?
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Page 19
Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology
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Q1) Briefly explain the phrase prescriptive hearing aid fitting.
Q2) Surveys show that completion of the verification and validation process reduces the number of visits a hearing aid patient makes to a clinic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are some common problems with hearing aids?
Q4) Digital signal processing in a cochlear implant takes place within the _______.
Q5) The process of deciding which hearing aid to pick for a given patient is called ______.
Q6) Let's say you are fitting a hearing aid on a young child.How would you instruct the parent about battery safety?
Q7) Measurements such as hearing aid gain and frequency response are collectively termed ______________.
Q8) Paper and pencil inventories can contribute greatly to validation of hearing aid performance.
A)True
B)False
Q9) Describe what you would immediately suspect if a patient complained that their hearing aid just died. Page 20
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Page 21
Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques
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Q1) Decreased memory,attention,and processing speed are all examples of ______________ factors that can affect communication in elderly persons with hearing loss.
Q2) Explain in some detail why audiological habilitation is challenging for infants and young children with hearing loss.
Q3) Grandparents and siblings are not affected when a family member has a hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What do the acronyms ASL and SEE stand for?
Q5) Patients usually remember over 80% of what they hear following an explanation of hearing test results.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Define "bilingual-bicultural education" for children who are deaf.
Q7) An example of a computer-based program for auditory training in adults is
Q8) The strategy of using visual cues from the face and lips to better understand speech is known as _____________. Page 22
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Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis
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Q1) Hearing aids play no role in the management of tinnitus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tinnitus and hyperacusis are_________________,not diseases.
Q3) Patients who are feigning or faking a hearing loss are sometimes referred to as ________.
Q4) Describe the difference between false hearing loss and exaggerated hearing loss.
Q5) Briefly define the term tinnitus.
Q6) A tinnitus evaluation usually involves measurement of the _______ and the ________ of a patient's tinnitus.
Q7) Hyperacusis is defined as:
A)Super good hearing
B)Abnormal intolerance to everyday sounds
C)A high-frequency hearing loss
D)A false or exaggerated hearing loss
Q8) Patients with tinnitus never experience hyperacusis.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
Q9) Explain the role played by otoacoustic emissions in the evaluation and management of patients with hyperacusis.
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Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations
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Q1) Neurofibromas generally grow on only one side.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An audiology or speech pathology report is a legal document.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Team members for management of auditory processing disorders may include:
A)Audiologists and Speech pathologists
B)Educators
C)Psychologists
D)All of the above
Q4) The overall objective in management of patients with cochlear implants is _____.
Q5) Longer patient reports are always better.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Two important goals of cochlear implant programming are estimation of _______ and the __________.
Q8) List four essential components of a patient audiology report. Page 26
Q7) Describe what the "1-3-6 Principle" is and why it is important.
The acronym BPPV stands for
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