Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology explores the fundamental structure and function of the human body, providing a comprehensive overview of how organ systems work individually and together to maintain health and homeostasis. This course covers major topics including the organization of the body, basic biochemistry, cell and tissue structure, and the anatomy and physiology of systems such as the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical applications, students gain essential knowledge of anatomical terminology, physiological processes, and the interrelationships necessary for understanding human health and disease.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by David Shier
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the body is placed in the anatomical position, which of the following is not true?
A)The head is facing to the front.
B)The palms are facing backward.
C)The body is erect.
D)The upper limbs are at the sides.
Answer: B
Q2) The chemical reaction of blood oxygenation is an example of a metabolic process. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Self-regulating control mechanisms usually operate by a process called ________ feedback.
Answer: negative
Q4) The origin of the term "anatomy" is related to A)the Greek word for "function."
B)the name of the first anatomist.
C)the Greek word for "cutting up."
D)the function of internal organs.
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sodium ions and calcium ions are examples of A)cations.
B)uncharged particles. C)anions.
D)salts.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following isotopes has the longest half-life?
A)Iodine-131
B)Iron-59
C)Phosphorus-32
D)Cobalt-60
Answer: D
Q3) Glycogen is stored in the liver and ________.
A)spleen
B)skeletal muscles
C)pancreas
D)heart
Answer: B
Q4) A change from Fe² to Fe³ would require a change in the number of ________.
Answer: electrons
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytoskeletal structures that are not found in all cell types are
A)microtubules.
B)microfilaments.
C)myofibrils.
D)intermediate filaments.
Answer: D
Q2) Solutions that have a higher osmotic pressure than body fluids are ________. Answer: hypertonic
Q3) Chloride ions follow the concentration gradient, but require a membrane protein for passage. Which transport method is occurring?
A)Diffusion
B)Active transport
C)Pinocytosis
D)Facilitated diffusion
Answer: D
Q4) A telomere is a type of hormone that controls the cell cycle.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A molecule that carries energy in a form the cell can use is A)glucose.
B)glycogen.
C)vitamin C.
D)ATP.
Q2) In what molecule are codons found?
A)mRNA
B)tRNA
C)rRNA
D)Proteins.
Q3) The process that extracts energy from glucose and makes it available is cellular ________.
Q4) In cellular respiration,
A)mitochondria release glucose molecules.
B)energy is released from molecules and is transferred to other molecules.
C)cells breathe, or take in, O and give off CO .
D)energy is absorbed from glucose and is transferred to CO .
Q5) The correspondence between a unit of DNA information and an amino acid is the genetic ________.
Page 6
Q6) Adenine and guanine are ________ and cytosine and thymine are ________.
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The skin is composed of an outer layer of epithelial tissue, the epidermis, and an inner layer of connective tissue, the dermis. Between the lowest layer of the epidermis and the top layer of the dermis lies an anchor layer called the ________.
A)serous membrane
B)basement membrane
C)simple cuboidal epithelium
D)synovial membrane
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the four basic types of body tissues?
A)Epithelial tissue
B)Connective tissue
C)Eye tissue
D)Muscle tissue
Q3) The pyloric glands of the stomach release hydrochloric acid and other digestive juices during digestion. These glands have very short ducts and the tubes are branched. These glands are ________.
A)simple branched tubular
B)simple coiled tubular
C)simple branched alveolar
D)unicellular
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reddened skin reflects
A)dilated blood vessels with more blood entering the dermis.
B)eating too many carrots.
C)inheriting extra melanin.
D)constricted blood vessels with more blood entering the epidermis.
Q2) The layer of the epidermis that includes melanocytes and a single row of columnar cells that undergo mitosis is the
A)stratum corneum.
B)stratum granulosum.
C)stratum spinosum.
D)stratum basale.
Q3) The melanocytes in very dark skin
A)are more abundant than they are in light skin.
B)contain single, large, pigment granules.
C)lack pigment but shrivel up and turn black.
D)contain many small pigment granules.
Q4) Blood with excess oxygen causes cyanosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The deepest cells of the epidermis make up the stratum ________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parathyroid gland that is overresponsive to blood calcium levels will produce abnormally high amounts of calcitonin and cause bones to rapidly gain calcium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A six-month-old baby is admitted to the hospital with a broken bone. This is the third fracture in the otherwise healthy child. The parents are arrested on charges of child abuse. The defense lawyer gets the charges dropped after the results of genetic tests indicate which of the following conditions?
A)Polydactyly
B)Osteoporosis
C)Osteogenesis imperfecta
D)Anemia
Q3) The calcaneus bone of the foot is an example of a(n) A)long bone.
B)flat bone.
C)short bone.
D)irregular bone.
Q4) The membranous soft spots of a newborn's skull are called ________.
Q5) Secretion of excess ________ hormone causes acromegaly.
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A saddle joint forms between bones whose articulating surfaces have both convex and concave regions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A suture is an example of a A)fibrous joint.
B)cartilaginous joint.
C)synovial joint.
D)plane joint.
Q3) Moving a part away from the midline is abduction. A)True
B)False
Q4) Fibrocartilage discs that divide the joint into two compartments are called A)menisci.
B)bursae.
C)tendons.
D)ligaments.
Q5) A shiny, vascular lining of loose connective tissue that forms the inner layer of the joint capsule is the ________ membrane.
Q6) The type of joint that joins the fibula and tibia is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The functional unit of muscle contraction is A)the muscle.
B)the muscle fiber.
C)the myosin cross-bridge.
D)the sarcomere.
Q2) Muscle fibers are basically a collection of A)muscles.
B)sarcomeres.
C)connective tissue fibers.
D)synapses.
Q3) The muscle that causes an action is the A)synergist.
B)antagonist. C)agonist.
D)mediator.
Q4) The muscle that covers the upper part of the cranium is the ________.
Q5) After carrying a heavy box, you put it down by lowering it with your arms. Your biceps brachii muscles are contracting, but not forcefully enough to shorten and lift the box back up. This type of contraction is specifically called a(n)________ contraction.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myelin is rich in ________.
A)nucleic acids
B)carbohydrates
C)lipids
D)salts
Q2) Which of the following molecules is responsible for "runner's high," a good feeling that accompanies long-distance running?
A)Endorphin
B)Acetylcholine
C)Epinephrine
D)Dopamine
Q3) Drugs that increase the actions of norepinephrine and/or serotonin by keeping them in synapses longer are most likely used to treat
A)multiple sclerosis.
B)Tay-Sachs disease.
C)clinical depression.
D)erectile dysfunction.
Q4) A(n)________ is the junction between neurons.
Q5) Muscles and glands that respond to nervous stimulation are called ________.
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Divisions of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the area of the cerebral hemisphere corresponding to Broca's area is damaged,
A)memory is lost.
B)motor control to the right leg is impaired.
C)eyesight is lost.
D)motor control of the muscles associated with speech is lost.
Q2) The ________ is the thin meninx attached to the surface of the brain, containing many nerves and blood vessels.
A)dura mater
B)arachnoid mater
C)pia mater
D)subdural mater
Q3) Dopamine is secreted by the ________ and is deficient in ________ disease.
A)cerebral cortex; Alzheimer
B)amygdala; Lou Gehrig's
C)medulla oblongata; Huntington
D)substantia nigra; Parkinson
Q4) The subarachnoid space within the meninges contains cerebrospinal fluid.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
Q5) The ________ root of a spinal nerve consists of motor neuron axons.
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) As they extend from the retina to the brain, the nerve fibers
A)from the nasal half of each retina cross over.
B)from the temporal half of each retina cross over.
C)all cross over.
D)do not cross over.
Q2) Sensory receptors are specialized cells or multicellular structures that collect information from the environment and stimulate neurons to send impulses along sensory fibers to the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ability to ignore your socks around your ankles demonstrates
A)general adaptation.
B)receptor integration.
C)interpretive assimilation.
D)sensory adaptation.
Q4) The color receptors in the retina are most sensitive to light waves that are
A)red, green, and blue.
B)red, blue, and yellow.
C)green, yellow, and purple.
D)orange, green, and purple.
14
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxytocin stimulates the kidneys to conserve water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Exocrine glands differ from endocrine glands in that exocrine glands
A)secrete only into the bloodstream.
B)secrete only local hormones.
C)secrete through ducts or tubes to the body's exterior.
D)only secrete salts.
Q3) Oxytocin is administered to women following childbirth to stimulate A)less milk production.
B)uterine contractions.
C)uterine relaxation.
D)ACTH production.
Q4) The hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla are amines.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Your friend puts on a mask and chases you as a prank. Your body responds by releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine, along with other physiological responses. Your friend frightening you is the ________, that cause the body's response.
Page 15
Q6) A hormone whose effects last a long time has a ________ half-life.
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with type A blood can successfully donate blood to a person with type ________ blood.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)O
Q2) Persons with type AB blood are sometimes called universal donors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As a result of starvation or a protein-deficient diet, blood protein concentration
A)increases and water accumulates in tissue spaces.
B)decreases and water accumulates in tissue spaces.
C)increases and water accumulates in cells.
D)decreases and water accumulates in cells.
Q4) Diapedesis is
A)the formation of platelets from megakaryocytes.
B)filling of red blood cells with hemoglobin.
C)movements of white blood cells out of the circulation.
D)squeezing of red blood cells through narrow capillaries.
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the ventricular walls contract,
A)the mitral valve opens and the tricuspid valve closes.
B)the tricuspid valve opens and the mitral valve closes.
C)the mitral and tricuspid valves close.
D)the mitral and tricuspid valves open.
Q2) A left ventricular assist device
A)is routinely used in people who have had heart attacks.
B)can substitute for the atria.
C)can maintain cardiac function until a donor heart becomes available.
D)is an implantable replacement heart.
Q3) The longest vein in the body is the
A)superior vena cava.
B)great saphenous vein.
C)internal iliac vein.
D)hepatic portal vein.
Q4) Which type of blood vessel holds the greatest volume of blood?
A)Artery
B)Arteriole
C)Capillary
D)Vein
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) B cells divide and differentiate into ________ which produce and secrete antibodies.
A)T cells
B)antibodies
C)megakaryocytes
D)plasma cells
Q2) The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(n)
A)artery.
B)arteriole.
C)vein.
D)capillary.
Q3) During the primary immune response, B lymphocytes give rise to plasma cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Autoimmune diseases are more common in older people.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Lymph nodes are centers for the production of ________, which act against foreign particles carried in lymph.
Q6) Lymph is ________ that has entered a lymphatic capillary.
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child hanging upside down from a tree takes a bite from a candy bar. They manage to chew the candy and swallow it successfully. How does the bolus move along the esophagus?
A)Inhalation from the larynx sucks the bolus through the esophagus.
B)The esophagus undergoes peristalsis and the muscular movements force the bolus to the stomach, even against the force of gravity.
C)Because gravity is the main way the bolus travels to the stomach, the epiglottis pushes the bolus into the esophagus and forces it to remain there until the child returns to an upright position.
D)Because gravity is the main way the bolus travels to the stomach, the pharyngeal constrictor muscles push the bolus into the esophagus and force it to remain there until the child returns to an upright position.
Q2) ________ is a protein-digesting enzyme in pancreatic juice.
A)Trypsin
B)Pancrease
C)Amylase
D)Nuclease
Q3) Chisel-shaped teeth are ________.
Q4) ________ ions help to regulate the pH of saliva.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuropeptide Y is secreted in the stomach and suppresses appetite.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are examining different dietary supplements, trying to choose one for your child. Each supplement contains only four amino acids. Which supplement would be most suitable for your child's essential amino acid needs?
A)Supplement W containing phenylalanine, lysine, cysteine, and valine
B)Supplement X containing alanine, arginine, tyrosine, and serine
C)Supplement Y containing tyrosine, lysine, glycine, and asparagine
D)Supplement Z containing arginine, histidine, lysine, and methionine
Q3) The units of heat that measure the amount of energy in food are called ________.
Q4) Cholesterol removed from the blood is excreted as a component of ________.
Q5) Glycogen stored in the liver and muscles of an adult provides enough reserve energy to meet energy demands for about 12 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Fructose, glucose, and galactose are examples of a type of carbohydrate called ________.
Q7) Niacin can be synthesized in human cells from the essential amino acid ________.
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperventilation is usually accompanied by a(n)
A)decrease in blood CO concentration and a drop in pH.
B)decrease in blood CO concentration and a rise in pH.
C)increase in blood CO concentration and a drop in pH.
D)increase in blood CO concentration and a rise in pH.
Q2) The vocal cords are in the A)pharynx.
B)larynx.
C)trachea.
D)oral cavity.
Q3) Smokers are more susceptible to respiratory infections because
A)they congregate in small areas to smoke.
B)their respiratory passages overproduce cilia, to which bacteria cling.
C)their respiratory passages lose cilia, which would otherwise remove bacteria.
D)the respiratory passages have too little mucus.
Q4) The walls of the alveoli are composed of
A)ciliated columnar epithelium.
B)simple squamous epithelium.
C)stratified squamous epithelium.
D)areolar connective tissue.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The juxtaglomerular apparatus regulates the filtration rate by ________.
A)vasodilation of the peritubular capillaries
B)vasoconstriction of the peritubular capillaries
C)renin-angiotensin II vasoconstricting both the afferent and efferent arterioles
D)increasing osmotic pressure in the glomerular capsule
Q2) The countercurrent mechanism in the nephron
A)creates a highly concentrated interstitial fluid so that urine can be concentrated by the collecting ducts when they are permeable to water.
B)is a method to move sodium to control its concentration.
C)keeps the volume of water lost in the urine relatively constant.
D)keeps interstitial fluid hydrated to maintain blood pressure.
Q3) Inulin clearance measures the rate of glomerular filtration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sympathetic nerve impulses usually cause proportional degrees of vasodilation in the afferent and efferent arterioles.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) An arterial blood pH above 7.45 is called ________.
Q2) A person is experiencing severe heartburn. To compensate for their pain, they take 9 sodium bicarbonate-based antacids, which is more than triple the recommended dosage. Which of the following is NOT a way the body can compensate to react to the pH-related condition this overdose will produce?
A)The kidneys reabsorb hydrogen ions and decrease their secretion into the urine.
B)The respiratory centers will cause an increased breathing rate and depth to release CO .
C)Dihydrogen phosphate in the extracellular environments will dissociate to release H ions.
D)In the blood, amino acid chains of structures like hemoglobin will release H ions from -COOH and -NH groups.
Q3) Diabetes mellitus, in which fatty acids react to produce ketone bodies, leads to A)respiratory acidosis.
B)respiratory alkalosis.
C)metabolic acidosis.
D)metabolic alkalosis.
Q4) Carbon dioxide reacts with water to form ________.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the correct sequence for the steps of meiosis I.
A)Interphase-mitosis-meiosis
B)Telophase I-anaphase I-metaphase I-prophase I
C)46 chromosomes-23 chromosomes-then 46 chromosomes
D)Prophase I-metaphase I-anaphase I-telophase I
Q2) The testes originate from tissues posterior to the parietal pleura.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Judy runs 50 miles a week. She and her husband have been trying to conceive for three years, with no luck. Her disturbed reproductive cycles and infertility are due to
A)increased secretion of adrenal androgens.
B)decreased secretion of adrenal androgens.
C)increased synthesis of estrogens.
D)decreased synthesis of estrogens.
Q4) About the time of ovulation, the anterior pituitary gland releases a surge of A)estrogens.
B)progesterone.
C)LH.
D)androgens.
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Q1) If a pregnant woman becomes infected with the Varicella (chicken pox)virus during the embryonic stage, the fetus can develop eye problems, mental retardation, and delayed growth. The Varicella virus is a(n)________.
Q2) A pregnant woman wants to know the approximate day her child was conceived. She knows the date of the start of her last menstrual period was March 4th. What does she need to do to calculate the date of conception from this point?
A)Add 38 weeks to that date
B)Add 14 days to that date
C)Add 7 days to that date
D)She can't calculate the conception date with that information, only the expected due date
Q3) The fetal blood that passes through the ductus venosus is relatively
A)low in oxygen and nutrients.
B)high in oxygen and nutrients.
C)low in oxygen but high in nutrients.
D)high in oxygen but low in nutrients.
Q4) The umbilical cord contains two umbilical veins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Q1) The expression of an inherited trait is the genotype and the DNA sequence is the phenotype.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A woman insists on an ultrasound and a maternal serum marker test to check for Trisomy 21 in her unborn child because she only wants to use non-invasive methods. Her obstetrician will
A)follow the procedures she wants, because ultrasound and maternal serum markers check chromosomes while CVS and amniocentesis do not.
B)heavily advise against this decision, because ultrasound and maternal serum markers do not check chromosomes while CVS and amniocentesis do.
C)allow the maternal serum marker test but still recommend amniocentesis, because maternal serum markers and amniocentesis check chromosomes while ultrasound and CVS do not.
D)allow the ultrasound but still recommend CVS, because ultrasound and CVS check chromosomes while maternal serum markers and amniocentesis do not.
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