Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology provides students with a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body. This course explores the organization of body systems, the principles of homeostasis, and the relationships between anatomical structures and physiological processes. Through the study of major systems including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and endocrine systems students will gain insight into how the body maintains health and responds to internal and external changes. Emphasis is placed on scientific terminology, basic physiological mechanisms, and the integration of anatomical knowledge with real-life applications in health and disease.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin
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Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principal theory of how evolution works is called __________.
A) natural pressure
B) selective pressure
C) darwinian pressure
D) natural adaptation
E) natural selection
Answer: E
Q2) The terms physics,physiology,and physician come from a term that __________ proposed to distinguish natural causes from supernatural causes.
A) Hippocrates
B) Plato
C) Schwann
D) Aristotle
E) Avicenna
Answer: D
Q3) A molecule of water is more complex than a mitochondrion (organelle).
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) A chemical reaction that removes electrons from an atom is called a(n)__________ reaction.
A) reduction
B) condensation
C) hydrolysis
D) anabolic
E) oxidation
Answer: E
Q2) Amylase is a digestive enzyme that breaks starches down into sugars through __________ reactions.
A) hydrolysis
B) dehydration synthesis
C) anabolic
D) endergonic
Answer: A
Q3) A dipeptide is a molecule with two peptide bonds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ provide motility to a sperm cell,__________ act as sensory "antennae" in many cells,and ____________ increase a cell's surface area.
A) Cilia;microvilli;flagella
B) Microvilli;cilia;flagella
C) Microvilli;flagella;cilia
D) Flagella;microvilli;cilia
E) Flagella;cilia;microvilli
Answer: E
Q2) The fluid outside of a cell is called __________.
A) cytosol
B) intracellular fluid
C) extracellular fluid
D) cytoplasm
E) nucleoplasm
Answer: C
Q3) The Golgi complex makes peroxisomes,but not lysosomes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme RNA polymerase participates in translation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All proteins made by the ribosomes are exported from a cell for use elsewhere in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) DNA polymerase is most active during which phase of the cell cycle?
A) S
B) G<sub>1</sub>
C) G<sub>2</sub>
D) M
E) G<sub>0</sub>
Q4) DNA is composed of double-ring nitrogenous bases,whereas RNA is composed of single-ring nitrogenous bases.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Eye color is a normal polygenic trait.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ epithelium is the most widespread epithelium in the body,whereas __________ epithelium is rare.
A) Simple columnar;stratified columnar
B) Stratified squamous;stratified columnar
C) Pseudostratified;stratified squamous
D) Simple cuboidal;stratified squamous
E) Stratified squamous;simple squamous
Q2) The process of a cell changing types to respond to its environment is called neoplasia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The replacement of damaged tissue with scar tissue is called _________.
A) necrosis
B) apoptosis
C) gangrene
D) regeneration
E) fibrosis
Q4) Adult stem cells are usually pluripotent.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Q1) The contraction of the piloerector muscles (pilomotor muscle or arrector pili)in humans causes __________.
A) hairs to stand on end,trapping an insulating layer of warm air next to the skin
B) generation of heat to raise the body temperature
C) hairs to stand on end to make the individual appear bigger
D) hairs to stand on end with no apparent function
E) increased ability to feel pain
Q2) Blood vessels in the __________ provide a hair with its sole source of nutrition. A) bulb
B) root
C) shaft
D) dermal papilla
E) medulla
Q3) Hair and nails are composed of collagen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
A) Promote calcium reabsorption by the kidneys
B) Stimulate osteoclast activity
C) Lower blood calcium
D) Promote calcitriol synthesis
E) Inhibit osteoblast activity
Q2) Mature bones are remodeled throughout life via a process known as __________.
A) intramembranous ossification
B) endochondral ossification
C) interstitial growth
D) appositional growth
E) metaphysical growth
Q3) Hypercalcemia is rare,but hypocalcemia can result from a wide variety of conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Closed reduction is the surgical realignment of the parts of a broken bone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are __________ bones in a newborn compared with the average number in an adult.
A) more
B) fewer
C) the same number of
Q2) The glenoid cavity of the __________ articulates with the head of the
A) scapula;sternum
B) radius;humerus
C) humerus;scapula
D) sternum;humerus
E) scapula;humerus
Q3) Which bone helps form the coronal,lambdoid,and squamous sutures of the skull?
A) Occipital bone
B) Sphenoid bone
C) Parietal bone
D) Temporal bone
E) Frontal bone
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10
Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is not found in the shoulder?
A) The glenohumeral ligament
B) The transverse humeral ligament
C) The coracohumeral ligament
D) The radioulnar ligament
E) The rotator cuff
Q2) The least movable joints are _____________ joints.
A) symphysis
B) synchondrosis
C) syndesmosis
D) gomphosis
E) synostosis
Q3) Coronal,sagittal,and lambdoid are examples of __________.
A) syndesmoses
B) gomphoses
C) serrate sutures
D) plane sutures
E) lap sutures
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11
Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Injury to the deep fibular nerve would cause inability to extend ones toes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which muscle(s)of respiration is(are)innervated by the phrenic nerve?
A) Diaphragm
B) External intercostals
C) Internal intercostals
D) Innermost intercostals
E) Pectoralis major
Q3) Which muscle attaches to the manubrium and the thyroid cartilage,and aids in singing low notes?
A) Omohyoid
B) Thyrohyoid
C) Sternothyroid
D) Stylohyoid
E) Lateral pterygoid
Q4) A sacral fracture affecting the S3 and S4 nerve roots would result in a person having difficulty with evacuation of the bowels.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Q1) The process of engaging more motor units to increase the strength of a muscle contraction is called __________.
A) wave summation
B) recruitment
C) temporal summation
D) incomplete tetanus
E) complete tetanus
Q2) If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber does NOT relax at all from the previous twitch,the most likely result will be __________.This can only be achieved in the laboratory.
A) fatigue
B) spasm
C) incomplete tetanus
D) complete tetanus
E) wave summation
Q3) A dark band formed by parallel thick filaments that partly overlap the thin filaments is known as an H band.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells form myelin in the spinal cord?
A) Schwann cells
B) Astrocytes
C) Satellite cells
D) Oligodendrocytes
E) Microglia
Q2) Memories are formed by neural pathways of modified synapses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nitric oxide (NO)acts as a neuromodulator by altering synaptic function.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Where do most local potentials form in a neuron?
A) The dendrites
B) The neurosomas
C) The axon hillock
D) The trigger zone
E) The Schwann cells
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic
Reflexes
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Q1) A patient with no sensation in the left thumb would most likley have nerve damage of the __________ spinal nerve.
A) T1
B) T5
C) C5
D) C6
E) L3
Q2) A ganglion is a _________.
A) bundle of axons in the CNS
B) cluster of dendrites in either the CNS or the PNS
C) cluster of neurosomas in the PNS
D) bundle of axons in the PNS
E) cluster of neurosomas in the CNS
Q3) Tendon organs are __________.
A) chemoreceptors
B) visceral receptors
C) proprioceptors
D) pain receptors
E) nociceptors
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) The blood-CSF barrier is composed of dense regular connective tissue lining the ventricles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Short-term memory is associated with the __________,whereas long-term memory is associated with the __________.
A) cerebral cortex;hippocampus
B) hippocampus;cerebral cortex
C) cerebral cortex;amygdala
D) amygdala;hippocampus
E) hippocampus;midbrain
Q3) A patient is experiencing a high fever,stiff neck,drowsiness,and intense headaches.A spinal tap showed bacteria and white blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).This individual most likely has what condition?
A) Parkinson disease
B) Alzheimer disease
C) Meningitis
D) Hydrocephalus
E) A stroke
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Q1) Binding of norepinephrine (NE)to an alpha-adrenergic receptor is usually excitatory,and binding to a beta-adrenergic receptor is usually inhibitory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The effect of autonomic fibers on target cells is _________.The effect of somatic fibers on target cells is __________.
A) always excitatory;always excitatory
B) excitatory or inhibitory;always excitatory
C) excitatory or inhibitory;excitatory or inhibitory
D) always inhibitory;excitatory or inhibitory
E) always inhibitory;always excitatory
Q3) Sympathetic nerve fibers are not associated with situations involving __________.
A) anger
B) digestion
C) exercise
D) stress
E) arousal
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) You can smell the fragrance of your deodorant when you just put it on,but after a little while the smell fades.What explains this phenomenon?
A) The sensory projection of olfaction
B) The projection pathway of olfaction
C) The tonic nature of olfaction
D) The phasic nature of olfaction
E) The fast adaptation of the primary olfactory cortex to the smell of your deodorant
Q2) What are the only retinal cells that produce action potentials?
A) Rods
B) Cones
C) Ganglion cells
D) Bipolar cells
E) Horizontal cells
Q3) The human ear can detect what frequency of vibrations?
A) 5 to 20 Hz
B) 10 to 10,000 Hz
C) 20 to 20,000 Hz
D) 5 to 200,000 Hz
E) 100 to 100,000 Hz
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of diabetes mellitus?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Polyuria
C) Polyphagia
D) Polydipsia
E) Glycosuria
Q2) The __________ secretes several hormones that stimulate the development of lymphatic organs and regulates development and activity of T cells (white blood cells).
A) thyroid
B) thymus
C) adrenal gland
D) spleen
E) parathyroid
Q3) Target organs most often regulate the pituitary gland via _________.
A) negative feedback inhibition
B) positive feedback inhibition
C) up-regulation
D) down-regulation
E) antagonistic regulation
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells aid in the body's defense processes by secreting histamine and heparin?
A) Eosinophils
B) Basophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Platelets
E) Monocytes
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with leukocytosis if they have more than __________ WBCs/ L.
A) 100,000
B) 50,000
C) 10,000
D) 5,000
E) 1,000
Q3) A person develops anti-A antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen A,and anti-B antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Q1) Which of the following belong to the pulmonary circuit?
A) Aorta and venae cavae
B) Aorta and pulmonary veins
C) Pulmonary arteries and venae cavae
D) Venae cavae and pulmonary veins
E) Pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins
Q2) When sodium channels are fully open,the membrane of the ventricular cardiomyocyte _________.
A) sharply hyperpolarizes
B) sharply repolarizes
C) sharply depolarizes
D) plateaus
E) has no reponse
Q3) Pericardial fluid is found between the __________ and the __________.
A) visceral pericardium;myocardium
B) visceral pericardium;epicardium
C) parietal;visceral membranes
D) myocardium;endocardium
E) epicardium;myocardium
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) Arteries are sometimes called the __________ vessels of the cardiovascular system because they have strong-resilient tissue structure.
A) resistance
B) capacitance
C) hydrodynamic
D) compliance
E) fenestrated
Q2) While out hiking,a friend of yours falls and suffers a trauma.You notice they start to go into shock.What do you do to help?
A) Lie them down and elevate their head
B) Hold them upright in a standing position
C) Encourage them to sit up
D) Lie them down and elevate their legs
Q3) What is the most important force in venous flow?
A) Cardiac suction
B) The pressure generated by the heart
C) The skeletal muscle pump
D) The thoracic (respiratory)pump
E) The one way flow due to valves
22
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) Complement fixation cannot lead to __________.
A) enhanced inflammation
B) opsonization
C) endogenous pyrexia
D) bacterial phagocytosis
E) cytolysis
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of lymphatic tissue?
A) Aggregated lymphoid nodule
B) MALT
C) Lymphatic nodules
D) Macrophages
E) Diffuse lymphatic tissue
Q3) Each immunoglobulin (Ig)has __________ antigen-bonding site(s).
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) one
E) three
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is caused by the chemical reactions of gases of the respiratory system?
A) Regulation of blood pressure
B) The synthesis of vasodilators
C) Aids in defecation
D) Regulation of pH
Q2) Hemoglobin releases the same amount of oxygen to all the tissues regardless of variations in their metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Breathing is controlled solely by the medulla oblongata and pons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Respiratory arrest is an irreversible condition.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The maximum amount of air the lungs can contain is known as inspiratory capacity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Q1) A single lobe of a kidney is comprised of __________.
A) two calyces and a renal pelvis
B) one pyramid and the overlying cortex
C) one major calyx and all of its minor calyces
D) a renal medulla and two renal columns
E) one collecting duct and all nephrons that drain into it
Q2) Aldosterone acts on the __________.
A) proximal convoluted tubule
B) medullary portion of the collecting duct
C) descending limb of the nephron loop
D) distal convoluted tubule
E) glomerulus
Q3) Which of the following is a direct result of antidiuretic hormone?
A) Decreased urine volume
B) Decreased urine molarity
C) Increased urine volume
D) Increased urine salinity
E) Increased urine acidity
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Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Q1) Fluid intake is governed mainly by hypothalamic neurons called .
A) baroreceptors
B) proprioceptors
C) nociceptors
D) osmoreceptors
E) mechanoreceptors
Q2) Hypovolemia refers to a reduction in total body water while maintaining normal osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ina state of fluid balance, average daily fluid gains and losses are equal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The kidneys secrete ADH in response to dehydration.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Blood plasma osmolarity is higher than intracellular fluid osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Q1) The enterogastric reflex serves to __________.
A) relax the stomach in preparation for swallowed food
B) stimulate acid and enzyme secretion when food enters the stomach
C) stimulate intestinal motility when there is food in the stomach
D) inhibit gastric motility when there is chyme in the small intestine
E) relax the ileocecal valve when chyme is on its way to the colon
Q2) The movement of colonic contents from one puckered section to another is called
A) the gastrocolic reflex
B) the duodenocolic reflex
C) mass movement
D) haustral contraction
E) defecation
Q3) Which of the following is not a component of the pancreatic juice?
A) Trypsinogen
B) Chymotrypsinogen
C) Deoxyribonuclease
D) Sodium bicarbonate
E) Enteropeptidase
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) What process produces most of the NADH that contributes to ATP synthesis in the cell?
A) Glycolysis
B) The citric acid cycle
C) Anaerobic fermentation
D) The mitochondrial proton pumps
E) The electron transfer from FADH<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Glycolysis and aerobic respiration collectively produce up to ____________ ATP per glucose,whereas anaerobic fermentation produces __________.
A) 2;about the same,varying from one tissue to another
B) 32;none
C) 32;2
D) 32;36
E) 36;about the same,varying from one tissue to another
Q3) Mental state does not affect metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Body weight is stable when average daily energy intake and output are equal.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) The __________ is an example of the female external genitalia.
A) scrotum
B) clitoris
C) uterine tube
D) seminal vesicle
E) vagina
Q2) Only germ cells undergo meiosis,which produces four haploid (n)cells with 23 chromosomes each.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Male infertility (sterility)refers to _________.
A) the inability to fertilize an egg
B) low sperm count
C) a lack of seminal fluid during ejaculation
D) low levels of testosterone
E) the inability to have an erection
Q4) The scrotum contains the testes and spermatic cords.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) The __________ sometimes expels copious fluid similar to prostatic fluid,which constitutes the female ejaculate.
A) prostate
B) paraurethral glands
C) bulbourethral glands
D) vestibular bulb
E) vaginal epithelium
Q2) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)stimulates the corpus luteum to grow and secrete estrogen and progesterone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is breast milk superior to cow's milk for an infant?
A) Cow's milk provides fewer calories per mL.
B) Cow's milk provides less calcium per mL.
C) Cow's milk provides less phosphorous per mL.
D) Cow's milk has too much protein and minerals in it.
E) It is a myth;cow's milk is equal in quality to breast milk.
Q4) The proliferative phase of the uterus is driven by estrogen from the ovaries.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Q1) The optimal "window of opportunity" to conceive a child is __________.
A) a few days before ovulation to less than a day after
B) less than a day before ovulation to less than a day after
C) a few days before ovulation to a few days after
D) a few days before ovulation
E) a few days after ovulation
Q2) __________ pass(es)from the maternal blood to the fetal blood.Fetal __________ pass(es)the other way.
A) Carbon dioxide and oxygen;wastes
B) Carbon dioxide;nutrients
C) Wastes;nutrients and oxygen
D) Wastes and nutrients;oxygen and carbon dioxide
E) Oxygen and nutrients;wastes
Q3) The fertilization membrane is the endometrial tissue that receives the conceptus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fetus deposits fat in its subcutaneous tissue in the 7th month of gestation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human
Anatomy
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Q1) The continuation of the peritoneum that binds the small intestine and suspends it from the abdominal wall is called the __________.
A) greater omentum
B) mesentery
C) mesocolon
D) lesser omentum
E) mediastinum
Q2) The ______ wraps around the stomach,small intestine,and parts of the large intestine.
A) pleura
B) pericardium
C) meninges
D) visceral peritoneum
E) parietal peritoneum
Q3) The cut of a guillotine (decapitation)is an example of a section done in the midsagittal plane.
A)True
B)False
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