Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Course
Introduction
Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology provides students with a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body. This course explores the organization of the body at the cellular, tissue, organ, and system levels, offering insight into how organ systems work individually and together to maintain health. Topics include anatomical terminology, basic chemistry as it relates to physiology, major body systems, and the mechanisms of disease and homeostasis. Emphasis is placed on the integration of knowledge for further study in health, biology, and medical-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Visual Anatomy and Physiology 1st Edition by Frederic
H. Martini
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms refers to the foot?
A) cervical
B) brachial
C) antebrachial
D) femoral
E) pedal
Answer: E
Q2) In general, the nervous system does each of the following, except
A) helps to maintain homeostasis.
B) responds rapidly to change.
C) directs long-term responses to change.
D) directs very specific responses.
E) responds rapidly to change and directs very specific responses.
Answer: C
Q3) Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n) ________ that detects a particular stimulus, and a(n) ________ that responds to the stimulus by communicating with a(n) ________ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus.
Answer: receptor; control center (integrating center); effector
Q4) The common name for the pollex is the ________.
Answer: thumb
3
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Chapter 2: Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) AMP + P
A) ADP
B) 2ADP
C) DNA
D) ATP
E) adenine
Answer: A
Q2) The hydrolysis of ATP yields ADP, phosphate ion, and ________.
Answer: energy
Q3) A shortage of cholesterol in the body could interfere with the formation of
A) sex hormones.
B) proteins.
C) cytoplasm.
D) glycogen.
E) nucleic acids.
Answer: A
Q4) The molecule DNA contains a five-carbon sugar called ________.
Answer: deoxyribose
Q5) All fatty acids contain a functional group at one end called the ________.
Answer: carboxylic acid group
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Chapter 3: Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anticodon for the triplet UCA is
A) AGU.
B) AGC.
C) TCA.
D) TGT.
E) AGT.
Answer: A
Q2) Which structure is water most likely to pass through?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 8
Answer: C
Q3) A molecule of ________ contains all the codons needed to produce a particular polypeptide.
Answer: mRNA
Q4) The cytoplasm contains the fluid ________ and the suspended ________. Answer: cytosol; organelles
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Chapter 4: Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between neurons and neuroglia?
Q2) Compare and contrast the three types of muscle tissue. List three similarities and three differences among them.
Q3) Adipose connective tissue is a type of dense connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Osseous tissue is also called
A) cartilage.
B) fat.
C) cellulite.
D) bone.
E) ligament.
Q5) ________ secretions are released by the gland cells into the interstitial space.
Q6) What type of cell makes up almost half the volume of blood?
A) red blood cells
B) white blood cells
C) platelet
D) monocyte
E) phagocyte
Q7) The lining of the heart and blood vessels is called ________.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are True of the pigment melanin, except that it
A) decreases in concentration within cells during exposure to the sun.
B) is usually some shade of brown or black.
C) protects DNA from the damaging effects of UV radiation.
D) is released through melanosomes.
E) is produced by cells called melanocytes.
Q2) ________ are coarse pigmented hairs.
Q3) Epidermal growth factor exerts which of these effects on the epidermis?
A) promotes cell division
B) stimulates keratin synthesis
C) accelerates tissue repair
D) speeds up glandular function
E) all of the above
Q4) A thickened area of scar tissue that is covered by a shiny, smooth epidermal surface is called a(n) ________.
Q5) Hairs are produced within organs called ________.
Q6) Why is regional infection or inflammation of the skin usually very painful?
Q7) Explain why the rate of dehydration is greater when a person is immersed in seawater than when in fresh water.
Q8) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?
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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall?
A) hypertension
B) tachycardia
C) erythema
D) hematoma
E) cyanosis
Q2) The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification.
1) Enlarged chondrocytes die.
2) Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone.
3) Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify.
4) Blood vessels penetrate the cartilage.
5) Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a thin shell of bone. The correct order for these events is
A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2.
B) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2.
C) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2.
D) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4.
E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2.
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) To settle a bet, you need to measure the length of your lower limb (head of femur to distal condyle of tibia). What landmarks would you use to make the measurement?
Q2) Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the
A) anterior and posterior nuchal lines.
B) anterior and superior nuchal lines.
C) inferior and superior nuchal lines.
D) medial and lateral nuchal lines.
E) cranial and caudal nuchal lines.
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the axial division of the skeletal system?
A) skull
B) auditory ossicles
C) hyoid bone
D) pectoral girdle
E) vertebral column
Q4) ________ are non-ossified fibrous attachments between cranial bones.
Q5) The space enclosed by the True pelvis is called the ________.
Q6) The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the ________ suture.
Q7) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.
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Chapter 8: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ subdivide synovial cavities, channel the flow of synovial fluid, and allow for variations in the shapes of the articular surfaces.
Q2) Which of the following movements is a good example of hyperextension?
A) opening the mouth
B) turning the hand palm upward
C) extreme bending of the head backwards
D) moving the hand toward the shoulder
E) spreading the fingers
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid?
A) shock absorption
B) increases osmotic pressure within joint
C) lubrication
D) provides nutrients
E) protects articular cartilages
Q4) Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged?
A) The matrix begins to break down.
B) The exposed surface changes to a rough felt work.
C) Friction in the joint increases.
D) Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue.
E) all of the above
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Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle weakness of myasthenia gravis results from
A) insufficient acetylcholine release from presynaptic vesicles.
B) loss of acetylcholine receptors in the end-plate membrane.
C) the motor neuron action potential being too small to shock the muscle fibers.
D) excessive acetylcholinesterase that destroys the neurotransmitter.
E) All of the above probably contribute to the weakness.
Q2) Calcium ions are binding to troponin during the ________ of a muscle twitch.
A) latent period
B) contraction phase
C) recovery phase
D) relaxation phase
E) latent period and the contraction phase
Q3) When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the end plate membrane becomes
A) more permeable to sodium ions.
B) less permeable to sodium ions.
C) more permeable to calcium ions.
D) less permeable to potassium ions.
E) repolarized.
Q4) A single contraction-relaxation cycle in a muscle fiber produces a ________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles with fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the body are called
A) lateralis.
B) transversus.
C) rectus.
D) obliquus.
E) medialis.
Q2) The muscle that inserts on the iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity of the femur is the
A) tensor fasciae latae.
B) piriformis.
C) gluteus minimus.
D) gluteus medius.
E) gluteus maximus.
Q3) Shelly gives her son an ice-cream cone. The boy grasps the cone with his right hand, opens his mouth, and begins to lick the ice cream. Which muscles does he use to perform these actions?
Q4) Jeff is interested in toning his abdomen. What muscles would you tell Jeff to exercise to accomplish his goal?
What movements would best exercise these muscles?
Q5) In the musculoskeletal system, levers are formed by ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Neural Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest and most numerous neuroglia in the CNS that absorb and recycle neurotransmitters are the
A) astrocytes.
B) ependymal cells.
C) microglia.
D) oligodendrocytes.
E) none of the above
Q2) The buildup of depolarization when EPSPs arrive in rapid succession is called ________ summation.
Q3) The minimum stimulus required to trigger an action potential is known as the ________.
Q4) Neurons that are rare, small, and lack features that distinguish dendrites from axons are called
A) anaxonic.
B) unipolar.
C) bipolar.
D) tripolar.
E) multipolar.
Q5) The plasma membrane of an axon is called the ________.
Q6) The tiny gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called ________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spinal nerves are
A) purely sensory.
B) purely motor.
C) both sensory and motor.
D) interneuronal.
E) involuntary.
Q2) The ________ reflex complements the flexor reflex by activating contralateral muscles.
A) stretch
B) tendon
C) flexor
D) crossed extensor
E) reciprocal
Q3) ________ reflexes activate skeletal muscles.
Q4) Reflexes based on synapses formed during development are ________ reflexes.
A) visceral
B) innate
C) acquired
D) somatic
E) vegetative
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Chapter 13: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are differences and similarities between "crude" touch and "fine" touch sensations?
Q2) The spinal tract that relays information concerning pain and temperature to the CNS is the
A) fasciculus gracilis.
B) fasciculus cuneatus.
C) posterior spinocerebellar.
D) lateral spinothalamic.
E) anterior spinothalamic.
Q3) The pyramids on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata are formed by fibers of the ________ tracts.
A) corticospinal
B) corticobulbar
C) reticulospinal
D) vestibulospinal
E) tectospinal
Q4) Sensory neurons that are always active are called ________ receptors.
Q5) The folds of the surface of the cerebellum are called ________.
Q6) The CNS interprets the ________ of stimulus entirely on the basis of the labeled line over which it arrives.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about adrenergic receptors is True ?
A) They are proteins in the plasma membrane.
B) When activated, cAMP levels are affected.
C) Epinephrine activates both alpha and beta types.
D) Norepinephrine activates mainly the alpha type.
E) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is exclusive to the sympathetic division of the ANS?
A) ventral roots
B) dorsal rami
C) spinal nerves
D) ventral rami
E) white rami
Q3) Mary accidentally ate poison mushrooms that contain muscarine. What symptoms would you expect to observe?
A) diarrhea
B) salivation
C) very low heart rate
D) sweating
E) all of the above
Q4) The integrative centers for autonomic activity are located in the ________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sense of taste is also known as ________.
Q2) Perception of gravity and linear acceleration depends on A) changes in the pressure exerted by the cupula on hair cells.
B) vibrations of the tectorial membrane striking hair cells.
C) the force exerted by otoliths on hair cells of the maculae.
D) the movement of endolymph within the semicircular canals.
E) all of the above
Q3) A pigment synthesized from vitamin A is
A) retinal.
B) opsin.
C) rhodopsin.
D) transducin.
E) cGMP.
Q4) Which structure is known as the vestibule?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
E) 11
Q5) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone that dominates the alarm phase of the stress response is ________.
Q2) Pinealocytes produce
A) MSH.
B) FSH.
C) LH.
D) melanin.
E) melatonin.
Q3) Hormone release may be controlled by which of the following factors?
A) blood level of an ion-like potassium
B) blood level of glucose
C) blood level of a hormone
D) nervous stimuli
E) all of the above
Q4) Inability of the pancreas to produce insulin results in
A) acromegaly.
B) goiter.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) diabetes insipidus.
E) Addison disease.
Q5) The posterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Blood and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ are multiple arteries joined in order to serve a single capillary network.
Q2) The ________ collects blood from the entire small intestine and two-thirds of the large intestine.
Q3) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if
A) the diet is deficient in iron.
B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin.
C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.
D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen.
E) hemolysis is prevented by a bad gene.
Q4) Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a A) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius.
B) viscosity about the same as water.
C) pH of 7.4.
D) built-in system for clotting.
E) deep red color from hemoglobin.
Q5) The ________ receives all the venous blood from the kidney.
Q6) Blood is drained from the liver by the ________.
Q7) A fibrin network that contains trapped blood cells and platelets is called a(n)
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Heart and Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is greater during left ventricular systole?
A) the peak pressure in the ventricle
B) the peak pressure in the aorta
C) Neither is greater.
Q2) The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the A) heart.
B) lungs.
C) brain.
D) intestines.
E) liver.
Q3) The coronary sulcus is a groove that
A) marks the border between the atria and ventricles.
B) marks the boundary line between the right and left ventricles.
C) marks the boundary line between the right and left atria.
D) separates the atrioventricular valves from the atria.
E) separates the coronary arteries from the coronary veins.
Q4) A patient's ECG recording shows a very long P-R interval. What is the cause of this abnormal wave pattern?
Q5) Muscular ridges on the inner surface of the ventricles are called ________.
Page 20
Q6) The ________ is the volume of blood in a ventricle at the beginning of systole.
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Chapter 19: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "3."
A) cortex
B) capsule
C) subcapsular space
D) trabeculae
E) outer cortex
Q2) In IgG, the antigen binding site is formed by
A) the variable segment of the light chain.
B) the variable segment of the heavy chain.
C) the constant segment of the heavy chain.
D) the variable segment of the light chain + the variable segment of the heavy chain.
E) the variable segment of the light chain + the constant segment of the heavy chain.
Q3) ________ is the class of antibody first secreted in response to a new antigen.
A) IgG
B) IgE
C) IgD
D) IgM
E) IgA
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Chapter 20: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen. To get the same amount of oxygen to dissolve in plasma as carbon dioxide, you would have to
A) increase the temperature of the plasma.
B) increase the partial pressure of oxygen.
C) decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide.
D) increase the rate of plasma flow through the lungs.
E) either increase the partial pressure of oxygen or decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide.
Q2) Secondary bronchi supply air to the A) lungs.
B) lobes of the lungs.
C) lobules of the lungs.
D) alveoli.
E) alveolar ducts.
Q3) Internal respiration refers to exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the ________ and the ________.
Q4) In the condition known as ________ the partial pressure of oxygen in the tissues is low.
Q5) Moving air to and from exchange surfaces in the lungs is termed ________.
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In response to the hormone secretin, the pancreas secretes a fluid
A) rich in enzymes.
B) rich in bicarbonate ion (buffers).
C) rich in bile.
D) rich in mucus.
E) that contains only amylase.
Q2) The intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate-rich fluid is
A) vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP).
B) secretin.
C) cholecystokinin.
D) GIP.
E) gastrin.
Q3) After food and gastric juices combine, the gastric contents are referred to as ________.
Q4) The roof of the oral cavity is formed by the A) hard palate.
B) soft palate.
C) all of the above
D) none of the above
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energetics
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Q1) Ketosis develops in the postabsorptive state. What is ketosis? Why does it develop? What metabolic effects does it have?
Q2) ________ are lipoproteins that are formed within the intestinal epithelium to transfer dietary fats into circulation.
Q3) The inherited metabolic disorder that results from the accumulation of phenylketones from phenylalanine is ________.
Q4) The vitamin that is essential for the production of several clotting factors is vitamin
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) E.
E) K.
Q5) Identify the molecule labeled "5."
A) fumaric acid
B) citric acid
C) 4-carbon molecule
D) malic acid
E) oxaloacetic acid
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Q1) Insoluble deposits that form within the urinary tract from calcium salts, magnesium salts, or uric acid are called kidney stones or renal ________.
Q2) Urine is temporarily stored in the ________.
Q3) Functions of the urinary system include
A) regulation of blood volume and blood pressure.
B) regulation of plasma concentration of certain ions.
C) helping to stabilize blood pH.
D) conservation of valuable nutrients.
E) all of the above
Q4) When the level of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) decreases,
A) more urine is produced.
B) less urine is produced.
C) the osmolarity of the urine decreases.
D) more urine is produced and the osmolarity of the urine decreases.
E) none of the above occurs.
Q5) The glomerular hydrostatic pressure is significantly higher than the capsular hydrostatic pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) The ions in highest concentration in the extracellular fluid are
A) sodium and chloride.
B) sodium and potassium.
C) sodium and calcium.
D) sodium and hydrogen.
E) sodium and phosphorus.
Q2) A(n) ________ acid is an acid that cannot leave solution and enter the atmosphere.
Q3) A person with emphysema will exhibit signs of
A) chronic respiratory acidosis.
B) chronic respiratory alkalosis.
C) acute respiratory acidosis.
D) chronic metabolic acidosis.
Q4) Antidiuretic hormone
A) is secreted by the pituitary.
B) stimulates water intake.
C) stimulates water conservation by the kidneys.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q5) ________ promotes water reabsorption at the kidneys and stimulates thirst.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: The Reproductive System
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Q1) The ________ is a fleshy pouch suspended below the perineum and anterior to the anus.
Q2) The ________ consists of the follicle cells that cling to the oocyte after ovulation.
Q3) The cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by the first meiosis are called A) spermatogonia.
B) primary spermatocytes.
C) secondary spermatocytes.
D) spermatids.
E) spermatozoa.
Q4) The funnel-like opening at the distal end of the uterine tube is called the ________.
Q5) The termination of the uterine cycle at age 45-55 is called ________. A) menarche
B) menstruation
C) menopause
D) basilar phase
E) menses
Q6) The ________ is a pocket formed between the posterior wall of the uterus and the anterior surface of the rectum.
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Chapter 26: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The original 46 chromosomes and their component genes constitute an individual's
Q2) After fertilization, the first cell division is completed
A) within a few seconds.
B) within the hour.
C) about 6 hours later.
D) in 12 hours.
E) more than a day later.
Q3) A blastocyst is a(n)
A) extraembryonic membrane.
B) solid ball of cells.
C) hollow ball of cells.
D) portion of the placenta.
E) origin of the urinary bladder.
Q4) The infancy stage of life is considered to be over at
A) age 1.
B) age 2.
C) 6 months.
D) 1 month.
E) 18 months.
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