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Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology Midterm Exam - 4309 Verified Questions

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Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology

Midterm Exam

Course Introduction

Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology offers students a foundational understanding of the human bodys structure and function. This course covers the major systems of the body including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems emphasizing how these systems work both independently and interdependently to maintain homeostasis. Students will explore basic anatomical terminology, cell and tissue organization, and physiological principles that govern body processes, preparing them for advanced study in health sciences, biology, and medical fields.

Recommended Textbook

Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology Global 10th Edition by Frederic H. Martini

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29 Chapters

4309 Verified Questions

4309 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) This type of feedback exaggerates the effects of variations from normal.

A)negative

B)positive

C)neutral

D)depressing

E)All of the answers are correct.

Answer: B

Q2) An anatomical term that means the same as ventral is A)posterior.

B)inferior.

C)abdominal.

D)anterior.

E)superior.

Answer: D

Q3) What is homeostatic regulation,and what is its physiological importance?

Answer: Homeostatic regulation refers to adjustments in physiological systems that are responsible for the preservation of a constant internal environment.This provides a favorable environment for the body's cells.

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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Oppositely charged ions in solution are prevented from combining by

A)heat capacity of water.

B)hydration spheres.

C)water's nonpolar nature.

D)free radicals.

E)hydrogen bonding.

Answer: B

Q2) Which of these lists contains only trace elements?

A)sulfur,chlorine,oxygen

B)selenium,hydrogen,calcium

C)boron,oxygen,carbon

D)silicon,fluorine,tin

E)cobalt,calcium,sodium

Answer: D

Q3) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?

Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.

Q4) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.

Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.

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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements concerning mitochondria is false?

A)The cristae increase the inner surface area of the organelle.

B)The matrix contains metabolic enzymes involved in ATP synthesis.

C)Respiratory enzymes are attached to the surface of the cristae.

D)The mitochondria require carbon dioxide and produce oxygen in the process of energy transformation.

E)The mitochondria produce most of a cell's ATP.

Answer: D

Q2) The process by which cells become specialized is called

A)determination.

B)cytokinesis.

C)mutation.

D)differentiation.

E)distinction.

Answer: D

Q3) Differentiate between transcription and translation.

Answer: In transcription,RNA polymerase uses the nucleotide sequence on DNA to construct a complementary strand of mRNA.In translation,ribosomes use information carried by the mRNA strand and tRNA to synthesize the corresponding polypeptide.

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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the difference between neurons and neuroglia?

Q2) All of the following are true of neurons except that

A)when mature,they lose the ability to divide.

B)they conduct a nervous impulse.

C)they are composed of a cell body and axon.

D)they are a very specialized form of connective tissue.

E)they are separated from one another by synapses.

Q3) Damage to a joint cartilage is affecting which type of tissue?

A)fluid connective tissue

B)dense connective tissue

C)supporting connective tissue

D)loose connective tissue

E)adipose tissue

Q4) Cartilage is separated from surrounding tissues by a fibrous

A)perichondrium.

B)ground substance.

C)periosteum.

D)chondroplasm.

E)matrix.

Q5) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder.

Page 6

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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain why warm,dry climates feel cooler than warm,humid climates,even though the air temperatures are the same.

Q2) Which statement about hairs is false?

A)Eyebrows are terminal hairs.

B)Terminal hairs are in the axilla.

C)Vellus hairs are on the limbs of children until puberty.

D)A terminal hair can detach but remain in the hair follicle as a club hair.

E)Club hairs are ingrown hairs.

Q3) The nail body covers the

A)nail root.

B)nail bed.

C)lunula.

D)free edge.

E)hyponychium.

Q4) The type of burn that may require a skin graft is a ________ burn.

A)first-degree

B)second-degree

C)third-degree

D)partial-thickness

E)epidermal

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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure

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Sample Questions

Q1) While on a school skiing trip in Colorado,Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott's fracture.What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall?

A)hypertension

B)tachycardia

C)erythema

D)hematoma

E)cyanosis

Q2) The expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from the shaft by a narrower neck is called a A)head.

B)crown.

C)capitulum.

D)corona.

E)bulb.

Q3) What is the difference between ossification and calcification.?

Q4) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.

Q5) During the growth of a long bone,how is the epiphysis forced farther from the shaft?

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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton

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Sample Questions

Q1) The superior part of the sternum is called the A)apex.

B)xiphoid. C)coccyx.

D)manubrium. E)head.

Q2) The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region.

A)cervical

B)thoracic

C)lumbar

D)sacral

E)coccygeal

Q3) The structural features and skeletal components of the sternum make it a part of the axial skeleton,which is important in a variety of clinical situations.If you were teaching this information to prospective health care professionals,what clinical applications would you cite?

Q4) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures more common in cervical vertebrae?

Q5) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?

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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint.

A)olecranon process

B)coronoid process

C)styloid process

D)radial tuberosity

E)capitulum

Q2) The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the A)skull.

B)pelvis.

C)sacrum.

D)teeth.

E)thoracic cage.

Q3) The bones that form the palm are the A)carpals.

B)tarsals.

C)metacarpals.

D)metatarsals.

E)phalanges.

Q4) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.

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Chapter 9: Joints

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Sample Questions

Q1) The joints between vertebrae are examples of ________ joints.

A)saddle

B)pivot

C)condylar

D)hinge

E)gliding

Q2) An immovable joint is a(n)

A)synarthrosis.

B)diarthrosis.

C)amphiarthrosis.

D)syndesmosis.

E)symphysis.

Q3) The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the A)humero-ulnar joint.

B)ulnar joint.

C)ulnaradial joint.

D)radial joint.

E)humeroradial joint.

Q4) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?

Q5) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different?

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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fast fibers

A)have low resistance to fatigue.

B)rely on aerobic metabolism.

C)have many mitochondria.

D)have twitches with a very brief contraction phase.

E)have low resistance to fatigue and quick twitches.

Q2) All of the following proteins are part of the thin filaments except A)actin.

B)tropomyosin.

C)troponin.

D)titin.

E)None of the answers is correct; there are no exceptions.

Q3) During activities requiring aerobic endurance,

A)glycogen and glycolysis are the primary sources of reserve energy.

B)oxygen debts are common.

C)most of the muscle's energy is produced in mitochondria.

D)fatigue occurs in a few minutes.

E)oxygen is not required.

Q4) Describe the basic sequence of events that occurs as an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction and is transmitted to the muscle cell.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: The Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The muscle that elevates the larynx is the ________ muscle.

A)masseter

B)buccinator

C)platysma

D)sternocleidomastoid

E)stylohyoid

Q2) Which eye muscle sends its tendon of origin through a pulley or trochlea before inserting on the globe?

A)superior rectus

B)superior oblique

C)lateral rectus

D)inferior rectus

E)inferior oblique

Q3) The ________ muscle allows you to look down.

A)inferior rectus

B)medial rectus

C)lateral rectus

D)superior rectus

E)inferior oblique

Q4) How do first-,second-,and third-class levers differ?

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Neural Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of synapse is most common in the nervous system?

A)chemical

B)electrical

C)mechanical

D)processing

E)radiative

Q2) After acetylcholinesterase acts,the synaptic terminal

A)reabsorbs the acetylcholine.

B)reabsorbs the acetate.

C)reabsorbs the choline.

D)reabsorbs axoplasm.

E)pinches off and a new terminal grows.

Q3) Sensory neurons of the PNS are

A)unipolar.

B)bipolar.

C)anaxonic.

D)multipolar.

E)tripolar.

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14

Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, spinal Nerves, and Spinal

Reflexes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ventral rami form four major plexuses,including all of the following except the ________ plexus.

A)brachial

B)lumbar

C)sacral

D)nuchal

E)cervical

Q2) Recognized neuronal circuit patterns include all of the following except A)convergent.

B)divergent.

C)multipolar.

D)reverberating.

E)parallel processing.

Q3) The white ramus and the gray ramus collectively are called the A)spinal nerve.

B)rami communicantes.

C)meninges.

D)ganglia.

E)ascending tracts.

Q4) What is a reflex arc? What components must be present to qualify?

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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the A)jugular veins.

B)dural drain.

C)arachnoid granulations.

D)tentorium cerebelli.

E)frontal sinus.

Q2) Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory nerve?

A)loss of the sense of taste

B)tooth pain

C)weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

D)lack of facial expression

E)dry mouth from lack of saliva

Q3) A person who has difficulty comprehending and using written language suffers from the disorder known as A)Parkinsonism.

B)dyslexia.

C)a stroke.

D)Alzheimer's disease.

E)epilepsy.

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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A very large,fast-adapting tactile receptor that is composed of a single dendrite enclosed by concentric layers of collagen is a

A)Ruffini corpuscle.

B)lamellated (Pacinian)corpuscle.

C)tactile (Meissner)corpuscle.

D)tactile (Merkel)disc.

E)root hair plexus.

Q2) Which of the following statements is true about general senses?

A)They are distributed all over the body.

B)They are all mechanoreceptors.

C)Receptors involved in general sensation consist of naked nerve endings.

D)They are located in sense organs.

E)The reception of the stimulus occurs slowly with these receptors.

Q3) Sensory information from all parts of the body is routed to

A)the prefrontal cortex.

B)the cerebellum.

C)the primary motor cortex.

D)the somatosensory cortex.

E)Broca's area.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nerves synapse on neurons located within ________ ganglia.

A)somatic

B)collateral

C)contralateral

D)intramural

E)terminal

Q2) A state of unconsciousness in which an individual cannot be aroused even by strong stimuli is

A)somnolence.

B)sleep.

C)stupor.

D)coma.

E)a chronic vegetative state.

Q3) The sympathetic division is also called the ________ division.

A)thoracolumbar

B)craniosacral

C)thoracocranial

D)craniolumbar

E)craniococcygeal

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Chapter 17: The Special Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following description applies to the term myopia?

A)farsightedness

B)nearsightedness

C)normal vision

D)astigmatism

E)age-related decline in accommodation

Q2) A sudden increase of light into the eye would cause

A)contraction of the sphincter pupillary muscles.

B)contraction of the radial pupillary muscles.

C)conversion of 11-trans to 11-cis retinal.

D)a decrease in the size of the pupil.

E)parasympathetic stimulation to the pupil.

Q3) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term basilar membrane?

A)moves up and down due to currents in the perilymph

B)transmits movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear

C)supports the olfactory organ

D)tiny duct necessary for the static sense of equilibrium

E)covers over the oval window

Q4) How would blockage of the auditory (Eustachian)tube at its exit in the nasopharynx by lymphatic tissue ("adenoids")affect ear function and health?

Page 19

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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The anterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the A)basal ganglion.

B)infundibulum.

C)adenohypophysis.

D)mesencephalon.

E)neurohypophysis.

Q2) Type 2 diabetes

A)can usually be controlled by diet and exercise rather than with medication.

B)is associated with an immune reaction to the pancreatic cells.

C)is a lack of insulin production.

D)is typically diagnosed in the very young.

E)is not as common as type 1 diabetes.

Q3) The hormone that dominates during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)is

A)testosterone.

B)aldosterone.

C)cortisol.

D)thyroid hormone.

E)epinephrine.

Q4) Describe the four patterns of hormonal interaction.

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) A cross-match test is performed between donor blood and recipient blood,even though the ABO and Rh blood types match between the two because

A)there are many more surface antigens on red blood cells other than A,B and Rh.

B)all antibodies of the donor blood and the recipient blood must be identified.

C)coagulation can occur even in a small percentage of cases.

D)one has to make sure that the same agglutinogens have to be on both donor and recipients red blood cells.

E)errors are commonly made by the clinical staff regarding donor-recipient matches.

Q2) Jane has Type A blood; therefore,she

A)has antibodies to B agglutinogens.

B)can give blood to other people with Type A blood only.

C)can receive blood from other people with Type A blood only.

D)makes anti-A without ever having been exposed to Type A blood.

E)has B antigen on her RBCs.

Q3) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood?

Q4) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?

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Page 21

Chapter 20: The Heart

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked,

A)the ventricles will beat faster.

B)the ventricles will beat more slowly.

C)the ventricular beat will remain unchanged.

D)cardiac output will increase.

E)the atria will contract more forcefully.

Q2) The two types of cardiac muscle cells involved in a normal heartbeat include specialized cells of the conducting system and ________ cells.

A)contractile

B)conductive

C)intercalated

D)pacemaker

E)internodal

Q3) An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to A)increase heart rate.

B)decrease heart rate.

C)decrease blood pressure.

D)both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure.

E)both increase heart rate and increase pressure.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) As blood travels from arteries to veins, A)pressure builds.

B)pressure drops.

C)flow becomes turbulent.

D)viscosity increases.

E)diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller.

Q2) Pulmonary veins carry blood to the A)right atrium.

B)left atrium.

C)lungs.

D)aorta.

E)pulmonary circuit.

Q3) Clinically,the term blood pressure usually refers to A)arteriovenous pressure.

B)capillary hydrostatic pressure.

C)arterial pressure.

D)peripheral pressure.

E)pulse pressure.

Q4) During exercise,the blood flow to the active skeletal muscles is increased by autoregulation.How does this work? What other controls on blood flow operate?

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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The alternative pathway of complement activation is sometimes called the ________ pathway.

A)properdin

B)interferon

C)inflammatory

D)infectious

E)memory

Q2) Characteristics of adaptive defenses include

A)versatility.

B)tolerance.

C)memory.

D)specificity.

E)All of the answers are correct.

Q3) Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells.

A)B

B)plasma

C)helper T

D)cytotoxic T

E)suppressor T

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Page 24

Chapter 23: The Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Under quiet conditions,blood returning to the heart retains about ________ of its oxygen content.

A)25 percent

B)50 percent

C)75 percent

D)90 percent

E)100 percent

Q2) The volume of air moved in a single respiratory cycle is called

A)alveolar minute volume.

B)vital capacity.

C)respiratory volume.

D)tidal volume.

E)lung volume.

Q3) Which of the following age-based changes is false?

A)The lungs lose elastic tissue.

B)The lung's compliance changes.

C)Vital capacity increases.

D)Respiratory muscles weaken.

E)Costal cartilages become more flexible.

Q4) What is hypercapnia? How does it affect respiration? What are common causes?

Page 25

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Chapter 24: The Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Complexes of fatty acids,monoglycerides,and bile salts are called A)chylomicrons.

B)countertransporters. C)vesicles.

D)micelles.

E)varicosities.

Q2) Blockage of the common hepatic duct would interfere with digestion of A)proteins.

B)fats.

C)disaccharides.

D)complex carbohydrates.

E)vitamins.

Q3) ________ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding.

A)Molars

B)Cuspids

C)Eye teeth

D)Canines

E)Dentins

Q4) What role do hormones play in hunger and satiety?

Page 26

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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Energetics

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Q1) During the absorptive state,

A)the liver forms glycogen.

B)adipocytes release fatty acids to the circulation.

C)skeletal muscle breaks down glycogen.

D)insulin levels are low.

E)skeletal muscle fibers release glucose.

Q2) The vitamin that is required for proper bone growth and for calcium absorption and retention is vitamin

A)A)

B)B)

C)C)

D)D)

E)E)

Q3) The citric acid cycle is an aerobic process because A)ADP is phosphorylated.

B)FADH2 is produced.

C)citric acid molecules have oxygen atoms.

D)oxygen is needed to remove carbon atoms as carbon dioxide.

E)NAH+ is converted into NADH.

Q4) List and briefly describe the body's five metabolic components.

Page 27

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Chapter 26: The Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Identify the structure labeled "8."

A)renal pelvis

B)minor calyx

C)ureter

D)major calyx

E)renal column

Q2) Eighty percent of nephrons in the human kidney are located in the ________ and have short nephron loops.

A)cortex

B)medulla

C)pyramids

D)capsule

E)pelvis

Q3) Capillaries that surround the proximal convoluted tubules are

A)proximal capillaries.

B)corticoradiate capillaries.

C)vasa recta capillaries.

D)efferent arterioles.

E)peritubular capillaries.

Q4) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.

Page 28

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Chapter 27: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance

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Q1) When the pH of the extracellular fluid drops,the kidneys

A)excrete more hydrogen ions.

B)excrete more bicarbonate ions.

C)excrete fewer bicarbonate ions.

D)secrete more hydrogen ions and more bicarbonate ions.

E)secrete more hydrogen ions and fewer bicarbonate ions.

Q2) In an adult female,the body consists of about ________ percent water.

A)60

B)50

C)40

D)70

E)80

Q3) Secretion of potassium into the urine is

A)increased by ADH.

B)associated with the reabsorption of sodium from the distal tubules and collecting ducts.

C)minimal because the human diet includes very little potassium.

D)an indication of dehydration.

E)All of the answers are correct.

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29

Chapter 28: The Reproductive System

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Q1) A vasectomy would interfere with a man's ability to A)secrete testosterone.

B)make sperm.

C)ejaculate.

D)produce semen.

E)deliver spermatozoa to the ejaculatory duct.

Q2) The vagina is

A)lined by simple columnar epithelium rich in goblet cells.

B)similar to the inner lining of the uterus.

C)another term for the cervix.

D)a muscular tube extending between the uterus and the external genitalia.

E)a muscular tube extending between the uterus and the anus.

Q3) The segment of the uterine tube where fertilization commonly occurs is the A)ampulla.

B)fimbriae.

C)infundibulum.

D)posterior.

E)outer one-third of the tube.

Q4) How does mitosis differ from meiosis?

Q5) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different?

Page 30

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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance

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140 Verified Questions

140 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34567

Sample Questions

Q1) Where in the embryo does mesoderm first appear?

A)between the cell layers of the inner cell mass

B)within the blastocoele

C)in the chorionic villi

D)above the epiblast

E)around the trophoblast

Q2) The developmental period that is the period of all embryological and early fetal development is

A)the first trimester.

B)the second trimester.

C)the third trimester.

D)infancy.

E)adolescence.

Q3) A zygote whose genotype is XX will develop as a A)female.

B)male.

Q4) What activity during oocyte activation prevents penetration by additional sperm?

Q5) A new mother tells you that when she nurses her baby,she feels as if she is having menstrual cramps.How would you explain this phenomenon?

Page 31

Q6) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation.

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