Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology Exam Review - 1477 Verified Questions

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Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology Exam Review

Course Introduction

Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology provides a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body. This course explores the major organ systems, their interrelationships, and how they contribute to overall health and homeostasis. Topics include basic anatomical terminology, cellular structure, tissue organization, and physiological processes that sustain life. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and practical exercises, students gain insights into the mechanisms that govern body function, laying the groundwork for further studies in health, medicine, and related fields.

Recommended Textbook

Anatomy Physiology Disease Foundations for the Health Professions 1st Edition by Deborah Roiger

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17 Chapters

1477 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: The Basics

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following describe an anatomical region except which one?

A) Sagittal

B) Inguinal

C) Appendicular

D) Plantar

Answer: A

Q2) Anatomy and physiology is defined as:

A) the study of the normal and abnormal function of the body.

B) the study of body structures.

C) the study of how the body functions.

D) the study of the body's structure and how those structures function.

Answer: D

Q3) Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that affects what region of the body?

A) Foot

B) Arm

C) Leg

D) Wrist

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Levels of Organization of the Human Body

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements correctly describes the parent cell and daughter cells in mitosis?

A) In mitosis, the parent cell divides to become two identical daughter cells.

B) In mitosis, the parent cell divides to become two different daughter cells.

C) In mitosis, the parent cell divides to become one identical daughter cell.

D) In mitosis, the parent cell divides to become two identical sex cells.

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following correctly describes a malignant neoplasm?

A) A neoplasm that remains localized

B) A neoplasm that is encapsulated

C) A neoplasm that does not metastasize

D) A neoplasm in which cells have broken off and traveled to other parts of the body where they are producing more abnormal cells

Answer: D

Q3) Which term describes a stacked layer of epithelial cells?

A) Simple

B) Stratified

C) Pseudostratified

D) Transitional

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Introduction to Pathology

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are oncogenes?

A) Genes that code for uncontrolled production of cellular growth factors.

B) Environmental factors that affect DNA.

C) Blood vessel growth.

D) Noncancerous growths.

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following does not happen during inflammation?

A) The damaged tissues produce chemicals called mediators of inflammation.

B) Blood vessels become more permeable.

C) Fluid from the blood leaks out into the surrounding damaged tissue.

D) Blood flow to the area is decreased.

Answer: D

Q3) In what tissue would a sarcoma originate?

A) Lymphoid

B) Epithelial

C) Connective

D) Bone marrow

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: The Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is cornification?

A) The process of epidermal cells filling with keratin and moving to the surface of the epidermis to form a durable waterproof layer

B) The process of skin pigmentation

C) The process of receptors allowing for fine touch

D) The process of the immune system being alerted by the presence of pathogens

Q2) Which of the following combining forms mean oil?

A) kerat/o

B) seb/o

C) melan/o

D) onych/o

Q3) Cellulitis is caused by what type of infection?

A) Bacteria

B) Fungus

C) Virus

D) Cancerous cells

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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following features can be found on the humerus,radius and femur?

A) Neck

B) Condyles

C) Head

D) Styloid process

Q2) What type of bone is dense and highly organized?

A) Cancellous bone

B) Compact bone

C) Haversian bone

D) Trabeculae bone

Q3) How many thoracic vertebrae are in the spinal column?

A) 7

B) 12

C) 5

D) 2

Q4) Which of the following combining forms means straight?

A) humer/o

B) ili/o

C) orth/o

D) carp/o

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Chapter 6: The Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is an antagonist?

A) A muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle

B) A Muscle that has the same action

C) The main muscle of the synergist to perform the action

D) A muscle that has the opposite action

Q2) What is the term for a muscle that holds an origin stable for another muscle?

A) Fixator

B) Synergist

C) Prime mover

D) Antagonist

Q3) If a person stands on his or her heels with their toes pointing up,what muscle action is he or she performing?

A) Dorsiflexion

B) Plantar flexion

C) Inversion

D) Eversion

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Chapter 7: The Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about the ganglion is true?

A) A ganglion is a group of cell bodies in the bipolar neurons.

B) A ganglion is found in the dorsal roots of the spinal nerves.

C) A ganglion is a group of dendrites that create a bulge in the spinal nerve.

D) A ganglion is associated with spinal nerves that carry efferent messages.

Q2) Which condition is a degenerative disorder of the brain characterized by tremors and slow,uncoordinated movements?

A) Alzheimer's disease

B) Cerebrovascular accident

C) Parkinson's disease

D) Huntington's disease

Q3) How is cognitive function affected by aging?

A) Increases rapidly

B) Remains stable

C) Declines

D) Cognitive function declines but motor skills improve

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Chapter 8: The Nervous System-Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a person cannot hear the sound produced by the tuning fork through the air or when the tuning fork is placed on the bone of the skull behind the ear,what type of hearing loss do they most likely have?

A) Conductive hearing loss

B) Sensorineural hearing loss

C) Both of these answers are correct.

D) Neither of these answers is correct.

Q2) What type of equilibrium is perceived as a gymnast does somersaults?

A) Static equilibrium

B) Dynamic equilibrium

C) Both of these answers are correct.

D) Neither of these answers is correct.

Q3) What structure leads from the middle ear to the nasopharynx?

A) Auditory tube

B) Eustachian tube

C) Both of these answers are correct.

D) Neither of these answers is correct.

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10

Chapter 9: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is true about steroid hormones?

A) They can bind anywhere within the cell.

B) They can bind anywhere on the cell membrane.

C) They must bind to receptors within the cell either in the cytoplasm or nucleus.

D) Neither of these answers is true.

Q2) Which statement is true regarding the speed of communication by the nervous system compared to the endocrine system?

A) The nervous system responds to stimulus slower than the endocrine system.

B) The nervous system responds to stimulus quicker than the endocrine system.

C) The nervous system responds to stimulus at the same rate as the endocrine system.

D) The nervous system responds to stimulus and the endocrine system does not.

Q3) Which of the following combining forms means sex glands?

A) andr/o

B) crin/o

C) ster/o

D) gonad/o

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Chapter 10: The Cardiovascular System-Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hemoglobin transports all of the following except which one?

A) Oxygen

B) Hydrogen ions

C) Carbon dioxide

D) Hydroxyl ions

Q2) How long do red blood cells typically survive?

A) 50-70 days

B) 80-100 days

C) 110-120 days

D) 130-140 days

Q3) What type of leukemia usually occurs in adults over 70 years of age?

A) Acute myeloid leukemia

B) Chronic myeloid leukemia

C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

D) Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia

Q4) What role do red blood cells play in the various functions of the blood?

A) Transportation

B) Both answers are correct.

C) Regulation

D) Neither answer is correct.

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Chapter 11: The Cardiovascular System - Heart and Vessels

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following does not happen during ventricular systole?

A) Papillary muscles contract, pulling on the tendinous chords to ensure that the AV valves stay closed and do not swing open towards the atria.

B) Contraction of the ventricles decreases the volume and increases the pressure inside the ventricles.

C) The conduction system carries the electrical impulses from the AV node to the Purkinje fibers, the ventricles depolarize and contract together.

D) All of these happen during ventricular systole.

Q2) What are the most common anastomoses?

A) Arteriovenous anastamoses

B) Arterial anastamoses

C) Venous anastomoses

D) None of these are correct.

Q3) When blood reaches the lungs,what does it unload?

A) CO<sub>2</sub>

B) O<sub>2</sub>

C) CO

D) O

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13

Chapter 12: The Lymphatic System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of B cell remembers pathogens that have been introduced to the body so that repeat exposure can be fought more swiftly?

A) B<sub>Plasma</sub> cells

B) B<sub>Memory</sub> cells

C) APCs

D) None of these are correct.

Q2) What is the correct sequence of events in the inflammatory process?

A) Vasodilation - margination - diapedesis - chemotaxis - phagocytosis

B) Vasodilation - diapedesis - chemotaxis - margination - phagocytosis

C) Vasodilation - margination - phagocytosis - diapedesis - chemotaxis

D) Vasodilation - diapedesis - margination - chemotaxis - phagocytosis

Q3) What are pyrogens?

A) A set of 20 inactive proteins activated by the presence of a pathogen

B) Chemicals released by virally-infected cells that encourage the production of anti-viral proteins

C) Chemicals released by activated macrophages that raise the body temperature

D) Chemicals released by damaged tissue to cause blood vessels to widen

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Page 14

Chapter 13: The Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What structures serve as the common passage way for food and air?

A) Pharynx

B) Trachea

C) Larynx

D) None of these are correct.

Q2) What procedure removes fluid from the chest through a needle or tube?

A) Chest x-ray

B) Monospot test

C) Thoracentesis

D) Spirometry

Q3) What is the definition of total lung capacity?

A) The maximum amount of air the lung can hold

B) The maximum amount of air that can be inspired after the expiration of a normal breath at rest

C) The maximum amount of air that can be moved

D) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after the expiration of a normal breath at rest

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15

Chapter 14: The Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is chyme?

A) Liquefied contents of the stomach.

B) Mixture of bolus with gastric juices.

C) Partially digested carbohydrates, lipids and proteins.

D) All of the answers are correct.

Q2) Which of the following is not an area of the stomach?

A) Lesser curvature

B) Fundus

C) Pyloric curvature

D) Greater curvature

Q3) Peptic ulcers can be found in all of the following places except which one?

A) Esophagus

B) Stomach

C) Intestines

D) Peptic ulcers can be found in the esophagus, stomach and intestines.

Q4) Which of the following combining forms means tongue?

A) gingiv/o

B) peps/o

C) gloss/o

D) sigmoid/o

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Chapter 15: The Excretoryurinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a layer of the kidney?

A) Renal capsule

B) Renal pelvis

C) Renal cortex

D) Renal medulla

Q2) Which excretory system disorder is an inflammation of the urinary bladder usually caused by a bacterial infection that has traveled up the ureters to the renal pelvis?

A) Kidney stones

B) Glomerular nephritis

C) Pyelitis

D) Cystitis

Q3) What condition occurs if there is decreased kidney elimination of hydrogen ions or increased production of acidic substances through metabolism?

A) Respiratory acidosis

B) Respiratory alkalosis

C) Metabolic acidosis

D) Metabolic alkalosis

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Chapter 16: The Male Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which STD is characterized by the growth of warts on the genitals?

A) Gonorrhea

B) HPV

C) Syphilis

D) HIV

Q2) A spermatogonium enlarges to become what type of cell?

A) Primary spermatocyte

B) Secondary spermatocyte

C) Spermatid

D) Sperm

Q3) What is the male's germ cell?

A) Sperm

B) Spermatozoa

C) Spermatogonia

D) Spermatid

Q4) Which of the following combining forms means semen?

A) orch/o

B) semin/o

C) vas/o

D) crypt/o

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Chapter 17: The Female Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which hormone suppresses uterine contractions,promotes a rich lining of the uterus for the developing blastocyst and embryo to feed upon,and promotes the development of mammary glands and ducts?

A) Human chorionic somatomammotropin

B) Progesterone

C) Estrogen

D) Human chorionic gonadotropin

Q2) Which of the following is not an effect of aging of the female reproductive system?

A) Declining bone mass

B) Thinning vaginal secretions

C) Increased muscle and connective tissue

D) Menopause

Q3) Which of the following combining forms refers to a structure of the female reproductive system?

A) episi/o

B) metr/o

C) vagin/o

D) All of these answers are correct.

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