Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology provides a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body. This course explores basic anatomical terminology, the organization of the body into systems, and the physiological processes that sustain life. Topics include the study of cells, tissues, and major organ systems such as the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students will gain the knowledge necessary to appreciate the complexity of the human body and prepare for advanced studies in health and biomedical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 5th Edition by
Elaine N. Marieb
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________.
A) the lowest possible energy usage
B) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
C) a static state with no deviation from preset points
D) a dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances
Answer: B
Q2) Arm.
A)Cephalic
B)Thoracic
C)Patellar
D)Gluteal
E)Brachial
Answer: E
Q3) Brain.
A)Thoracic
B)Crania
C)Abdominopelvic
Answer: B
Q4) Receptor.
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens in redox reactions?
A) both decomposition and electron exchange occur
B) the electron acceptor is oxidized
C) the organic substance that loses hydrogen is usually reduced
D) the reaction is uniformly reversible
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following does NOT describe enzymes?
A) Some enzymes are purely protein.
B) Some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor.
C) Each enzyme is chemically specific.
D) Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation.
Answer: D
Q3) Smallest particle of a compound that still retains its properties.
Answer: D
Q4) Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells?
A) magnesium
B) hydrogen
C) potassium
D) sodium
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a role of cell adhesion molecules:
A) anchor cells to molecules in the extracellular space and to each other
B) mechanical sensors
C) initiators of cell-to-cell signaling for muscle contraction
D) transmitters of intracellular signals that direct cell migration, proliferation, and specialization
Answer: C
Q2) Why are free radicals so dangerous to cells, and how are they dealt with by the body?
Answer: Free radicals are highly reactive chemicals that cause havoc in any cellular environment by reacting with things they should not. Cells with peroxisomes have enzymes specific to reducing free radicals into less reactive chemicals.
Q3) Glycocalyx.
Answer: A
Q4) Houses DNA and RNA.
Answer: E
Q5) Forms part of the protein synthesis site in the cytoplasm. Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) The epithelial membrane that lines the closed ventral cavities of the body.
Q2) Skeletal muscle.
Q3) Simple squamous epithelium.
Q4) Moves blood through the body
Q5) Found lining the digestive and respiratory tracts.
Q6) Which statement best describes connective tissue?
A) usually contains a large amount of matrix
B) typically arranged in a single layer of cells
C) primarily concerned with secretion
D) usually lines a body cavity
Q7) Smooth muscle.
Q8) A 45-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for surgical removal of a tumor on her thyroid gland. The surgeon informs her that she will have only a very thin scar. How could this be possible?
Q9) The shock-absorbing pads between the vertebrae are formed of fibrocartilage.
A)True
B)False
6
Q10) Nervous tissue consists mainly of neurons and collagen fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) We are told that every surface we touch is teeming with bacteria, and bacteria are found in the pools we swim in, the water we wash with, and on the hands of friends. Why are we not inundated with bacterial infections on our skin?
Q2) Pigment-producing cells in the epidermis are ________.
Q3) The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called:
A) dermal papillae.
B) hair follicles.
C) ceruminous glands.
D) reticular papillae.
Q4) Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because ________.
A) they grow much slower
B) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months
C) the vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is one-tenth that of the head hair follicle
D) hormones in the eyebrow follicle switch the growth off after it has reached a predetermined length
Q5) Sudoriferous gland.
Q6) The coarse hair of the eyebrows and scalp is called ________ hair.
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone fragments into many pieces.
Q2) Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?
A) calcitonin
B) thyroxine
C) parathyroid hormone
D) estrogen
Q3) Blood cell formation is called ________.
Q4) A long bone forms by a process known as ________ ossification.
Q5) Compare the function of the organic materials in the bone matrix with the function of the inorganic materials in the matrix.
Q6) List the steps in the repair process of a simple fracture.
Q7) An osteon contains osteocytes, lamellae, and a central canal, and is found in compact bone only.
A)True
B)False
Q8) What is found in a Haversian canal?
Q9) The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress.
A)True
B)False Page 9
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lordosis affects the thoracic vertebrae.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The smallest short bone in the hand is the ________.
Q3) Includes the atlas and the axis.
Q4) Passageway for optic nerve.
Q5) Articulates with hip bones of the pelvis.
Q6) Forearm bone that articulates with most of the carpals.
Q7) All of the bones of the skull, except the mandible, are united by sutures and are therefore immovable.
A)True
B)False
Q8) The hyoid bone is anchored by the annular ligament to the styloid process of the temporal bone,
A)True
B)False
Q9) The ________ is the bone confined to the septum of the nose.
Q11) Contains the joint that allows you to rotate your head "no." Page 11
Q10) Which vertebral curvature abnormality is the most serious? Why?
No canals or foramen present.
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called?
A) abduction
B) adduction
C) inversion
D) dorsiflexion
Q2) Briefly describe a typical synovial joint.
Q3) Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint?
A) suture
B) synchondrosis
C) symphysis
D) hinge joint
Q4) Many inflammations of joint areas can be treated by injections of cortisone into the area. Why don't we continually get injections rather than operations?
Q5) Synovial joints have five major features. What are they?
Q6) Turning the foot medially at the ankle would be called ________.
Q7) Periosteum.
Q8) Bones united by fibrocartilage
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly explain the sources of energy for a one-minute sustained muscle contraction.
Q2) Contain abundant amounts of glycogen.
Q3) Z disc.
Q4) Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction?
A) triggers neurotransmitter secretion
B) binds with troponin
C) removes contraction inhibitor
D) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
Q5) What are the parts of the skeletal muscle triad and what are their functions?
Q6) In the synaptic cleft of a neuromuscular junction, an enzyme called ________ is always present.
Q7) Diffusion across the cell membrane results in depolarization.
Q8) Destroys ACh.
Q9) Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin
B) forming a chemical compound with actin
C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments
Page 14
D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
Q10) A smooth, sustained contraction from rapid stimulation is called ________.
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following muscles does not act in plantar flexion?
A) popliteus
B) tibialis posterior
C) flexor digitorum longus
D) gastrocnemius and soleus
Q2) The ________ runs deep to the external oblique.
Q3) Extends and abducts the wrist.
Q4) When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle?
A) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
B) The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively.
C) The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively.
D) The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively.
Q5) The abnormal protrusion of the small intestine through a weak point in the muscle of the abdominal wall is called a ________.
Q6) The quadriceps femoris is composed of three "vastus" muscles and the ________.
Q7) Flexes the wrist.
Q8) Levator scapulae.
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) When one or more presynaptic neurons fire in rapid order it produces a much greater depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane than would result from a single EPSP; this event is called ________ summation.
Q2) If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon ________.
A) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only
B) muscle contraction would occur
C) the impulse would spread bidirectionally
D) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only, and the muscle contraction would occur
Q3) Which neuron would be found in the retina of the eye?
Q4) Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane?
A) Specific sodium gates will open.
B) Specific potassium gates will open.
C) Sodium gates will open first, then close as potassium gates open.
D) A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium.
Q5) Postsynaptic membrane.
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland?
Q2) The storage and retrieval of information is called ________.
Q3) Declarative memory ________.
A) is the ability to learn specific information
B) is best remembered in the doing
C) is hard to unlearn when learned once
D) usually involves motor skills
Q4) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in cortical arousal and stimulation.
Q5) Which of the following is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury?
A) contusion
B) concussion
C) hemorrhage
D) swelling
Q6) Which brain nucleus is the body's "biological clock"?
A) dorsomedial nucleus
B) suprachiastmatic nucleus
C) lentiform nucleus
D) subthalamic nucleus
Q7) Corpus callosum.
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tests both upper and lower motor pathways. The sole of the foot is stimulated with a dull instrument.
Q2) Define tendon organs and muscle spindles relative to the stretch reflex.
Q3) Which of the follow types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life?
A) olfactory receptor cells
B) retinal bipolar cells
C) retinal ganglion cells
D) auditory outer and inner hair cells
Q4) The perineurium defines the boundary of a ________.
Q5) Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus?
A) median
B) phrenic
C) radial
D) ulnar
Q6) Turns the eyeball laterally.
Q7) Serves the senses of hearing and equilibrium.
Page 18
Q8) Explain why your nose runs during and immediately after a good cry.
Q9) Rod.
Q10) Trace the pathway of sound as it enters the external ear until it is perceived in the brain.
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most splanchnic nerves pass through the abdominal aortic plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________.
A) parasympathetic innervation
B) sympathetic stimulation
C) vagus nerve activity
D) neurosecretory substances
Q3) Most postganglionic sympathetic.
Q4) How is hypertension (high blood pressure) related to the ANS?
Q5) Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.
A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
B) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
D) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
Q6) Cell body of ANS postganglionic neuron.
Page 20
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Chapter 15: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should the hypothalamus instead of the adenohypophysis be called the "master endocrine gland"?
Q2) Growth hormone solely exerts its influence by targeting other endocrine glands to produce hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the difference between autocrines and paracrines?
Q4) Oxytocin ________.
A) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
B) is an adenohypophyseal secretion
C) exerts its most important effects during menstruation
D) controls milk production
Q5) Which hormone stimulates production of RBCs?
Q6) Produces androgens.
Q7) Hyposecretion of the pancreas.
Q8) The beta cells in the pancreatic islets produce insulin.
A)True
B)False
Q9) Produces the body's major metabolic hormones.
Q10) Storehouse for the hormones produced by the hypothalamus of the brain. Page 21
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of fibrinolysis disposes of bacteria when healing has occurred.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Universal donor.
Q4) A total WBC count and a differential WBC count have been ordered for Mrs. Johnson. What information is obtained from the differential count that the total count does not provide?
Q5) Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
A) They are nucleated.
B) They have cytoplasmic granules.
C) They are phagocytic.
D) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.
Q6) Type O.
Q7) Abnormal excess of erythrocytes resulting in an increase in blood viscosity.
Q8) Nucleus is multilobed; functions as a phagocyte; contains fine indistinct granules.
Q9) Explain why blood is classified as a connective tissue.
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Chapter 17: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Q1) If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ________.
A) it would be much longer before cardiac cells could respond to a second stimulation
B) contractions would last as long as the refractory period
C) tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action
D) it would be less than 1-2 m
Q2) The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________.
A) accommodate a greater volume of blood
B) expand the thoracic cage during diastole
C) pump blood with greater pressure
D) pump blood through a smaller valve
Q3) If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________.
A) the heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract
B) the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
C) the AV node would become the pacemaker of the heart
D) parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate
Q4) What is the difference between the auricles and the atria?
Q5) Atrial depolarization.
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of blood vessels contain valves and what is their function?
Q2) Large unpaired branch of the abdominal aorta that supplies the liver, stomach, and spleen.
Q3) Aldosterone will ________.
A) promote an increase in blood pressure
B) promote a decrease in blood volume
C) result in a larger output of urine
D) decrease sodium reabsorption
Q4) Hypotension is generally considered systolic blood pressure that is below 100 mm Hg.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The abdominal aorta divides into three arteries at its terminus; what are they?
Q6) Inferior mesenteric vein.
Q7) Capillary found in endocrine organs that allows hormones to gain rapid entry into the blood.
Q8) The left subclavian artery is the ________ major branch of the aortic arch.
Q9) The outermost layer of a blood vessel is the tunica intima.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a bubo?
A) a wall in a lymph node
B) a lobe of the spleen
C) an infected Peyer's patch
D) an infected lymph node
Q2) Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?
A) water
B) plasma proteins
C) red blood cells
D) ions
Q3) Cisterna chyli.
Q4) Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed ________.
A) lymph follicles
B) lymph nodes
C) lacteals
D) lymphatics
Q5) There are more efferent lymphatic vessels leaving a lymph node than there are afferent vessels entering a lymph node.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive
Body Defenses
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Q1) Innate immune system defenses include ________.
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) plasma cells
D) phagocytosis
Q2) The mechanism of the "lethal hit" of cytotoxic T cells and NK cells involves a protein called perforin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The respiratory burst produced by some macrophages releases free radicals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why do schools require inoculations for childhood diseases such as mumps, measles, and whooping cough? Why are the inoculations of value?
Q5) Which of the following cells is the most critical cell in immunity?
A) B cell
B) helper T cell
C) cytotoxic T cell
D) APC
Page 28
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Chapter 21: The Respiratory System
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Q1) How is alveolar gas exchange affected by emphysema and pneumonia?
Q2) Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?
A) alveolar sacs
B) alveoli
C) respiratory bronchioles
D) alveolar ducts
Q3) After a long scuba diving session on a Caribbean reef, Carl boards a plane to Dallas. He begins to feel pain in his elbow on the flight back to Dallas. What is happening to him?
Q4) Tidal volume.
Q5) Which of the following incorrectly describes mechanisms of CO transport?
A) 7-10% of CO is dissolved directly into the plasma
B) 20% of CO is carried in the form of carbaminohemoglobin
C) as bicarbonate ion in plasma
D) attached to the heme part of hemoglobin
Q6) Timothy has been having difficulty breathing since he had pneumonia last month. Recently he had severe pain in his chest and back, and his breathing was extremely irregular. The doctor at the emergency room told him that one of the lobes of his lung had collapsed. How could this happen?
Q7) Trachea.
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Chapter 22: The Digestive System
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Q1) Wavelike smooth muscle contractions that move foodstuffs through the alimentary tube.
Q2) The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?
A) Severe indigestion would occur, caused by the lack of sufficient digestive enzymes.
B) This type of food would cause secretion of gastrin to cease, causing digestive upset.
C) Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum.
D) The acid secretions from the stomach would be sufficient to digest this food.
Q3) Smooth muscle layer.
Q4) Only digestive structure with three muscle layers.
Q5) Which of these is not part of the splanchnic circulation?
A) hepatic portal vein
B) inferior vena cava
C) superior mesenteric artery
D) celiac artery
Q6) Another word for vomiting is ________.
Q7) Increases HCl secretion and stimulates contraction of intestinal muscle.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition, Metabolism, and Body Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Formation of ketone bodies.
Q2) In the Krebs cycle, citric acid is followed by ________ acid.
Q3) Which of the choices below is not a source of glucose during the postabsorptive state?
A) glycogenolysis in the liver
B) lipolysis in adipose tissues and the liver
C) absorption of glucose from the GI tract
D) catabolism of cellular protein
Q4) Which of the following is not an important function of the liver?
A) carbohydrate and lipid metabolism
B) synthesis of bile salts
C) synthesis of vitamin K
D) protein metabolism
Q5) What are the four mechanisms of heat exchange and how are they defined?
Q6) Glucose serves as the initial reactant.
Q7) The primary function of cellular respiration is to ________.
A) determine the amount of heat needed by the human body
B) provide the body with adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals
C) efficiently monitor the energy needs of the body
D) break down food molecules and generate ATP Page 31
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Chapter 24: The Urinary System
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Q1) Explain what is meant by the terms cotransport process and transport maximum.
Q2) Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body.
1) major calyx
2) minor calyx
3) nephron
4) urethra
5) ureter
6) collecting duct
A) 3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4
B) 6, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
C) 2, 1, 3, 6, 5, 4
D) 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 4
Q3) The urethra contains an internal sphincter of smooth muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ADH activated water channels called ________ are essential for water reabsorption in the collecting duct.
Q5) What clinical effects would low blood pressure have on the kidneys of a burn patient?
33
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Chapter 25: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of sodium while enhancing potassium secretion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To remain properly hydrated, water intake must equal water output.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient's anxiety caused her to develop respiratory alkalosis. The nurse instructs the patient to take some slow deep breaths. Explain why this would be effective.
Q4) The term alkaline reserve is used to describe the ________ buffer system.
A) phosphate
B) hemoglobin
C) bicarbonate
D) protein
Q5) The main way the kidney regulates potassium ions is to excrete them.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The female hormone ________ seems to decrease sodium reabsorption, thus promoting sodium and water loss by the kidney.
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive System
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Q1) The prostate atrophies as a man ages, and it usually causes no health problems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The portion of the uterine endometrium that is not sloughed off every month is called the ________.
Q3) Based on your knowledge of how the prostate encircles part of the urethra, what are two clinical manifestations of an enlarged prostate?
Q4) Which hormone is absolutely necessary for ovulation to occur?
A) LH
B) FSH
C) progesterone
D) estrogen
Q5) Which of the choices below is not a function of testosterone?
A) stimulates the male pattern of development
B) contributes to male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis
C) stimulates protein synthesis
D) stimulates mammary gland development
Q6) Describe the composition and functional roles of semen.
Q7) Acrosome.
Q8) What are some risk factors for developing breast cancer?
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