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Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology provides students with a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body. This course explores the major organ systems, tissues, and cellular processes that maintain life, highlighting the interdependence between anatomical form and physiological function. Emphasis is placed on terminology, basic biochemical principles, and the mechanisms that govern homeostasis. Through lectures, laboratory work, and practical examples, students will gain a comprehensive overview of how the bodys components work together to sustain health and respond to internal and external challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Visual Anatomy and Physiology Lab Manual Main Version 2nd Edition by Stephen N. Sarikas
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32 Chapters
640 Verified Questions
640 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Body Organization and Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anatomy instructor tells a student that the muscle the student is looking for is in the brachial region.The student should examine which portion of the anatomical model?
A) calf
B) thigh
C) forearm
D) arm
Answer: D
Q2) ________ serous membranes line the walls of cavities,whereas ________ serous membranes cover the surfaces of internal organs.
A) Parietal; visceral
B) Visceral; parietal
C) Pericardial; peritoneal
D) Pleural; visceral
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Care and Use of the Compound Light
Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the user switches to a higher-power lens to increase total magnification,the field of view ________.
A) decreases
B) decreases 4×
C) increases
D) remains the same
Answer: A
Q2) The ability to distinguish close objects as separate and distinct is known as ________.
A) working distance
B) field of view
C) resolving power
D) depth of field
Answer: C
Q3) The coarse and fine adjustment knobs are used to ________.
A) nosepiece
B) make initial and subsequent focusing adjustments when viewing a specimen.
C) secure the specimen on the stage
D) illuminate the specimen
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cellular events of muscle contraction require a large amount of energy.Which of the following organelles might be abundant in the cells that coordinate these events?
A) mitochondria
B) Golgi apparatus
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) nucleus
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a concept of the cell theory?
A) The cell is the basic unit of life.
B) The metabolic activities of individual cells in a multicellular organism are coordinated and essential for survival.
C) Each cell of a multicellular organism maintains its own metabolism.
D) All cells arise spontaneously.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Membrane Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a red blood cell,which has an internal solute concentration of 280 mOsm,is placed in a solution of pure water (0 mOsm)________.
A) the cell is hypotonic compared to the environment and will quickly lose water
B) the cell is hypertonic compared to the environment and will quickly lose water
C) the cell is hypertonic compared to the environment and will quickly gain water
D) the cell is hypotonic compared to the environment and will quickly gain water
Q2) As temperature increases,the rate of diffusion of a solute will ________.
A) decrease
B) increase
C) remain the same
D) There is not enough information to answer the question.
Q3) Which of the following statements explains the observation that dye diffuses more quickly as temperature increases?
A) Random motion of particles decreases as temperature increases.
B) Random motion of particles increases as temperature decreases.
C) Random motion of particles decreases as temperature decreases.
D) Random motion of particles increases as temperature increases.
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adipose,cartilage,bone,and blood are all types of ________ tissue.
A) muscle
B) epithelial
C) connective
D) nervous
Q2) ________ tissue connects and cushions body structures,supports organs,stores fat,defends the body from infections,and repairs tissue damage.
A) Muscle
B) Nervous
C) Connective
D) Epithelial
Q3) The epidermis of the skin is formed by multiple layers of flattened,irregularly shaped cells.The most superficial of these layers is filled with keratin.This type of epithelial tissue is classified as ________.
A) stratified cuboidal epithelium
B) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
C) simple squamous epithelium
D) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Q1) The two regions of the skin are the ________.
A) epidermis and dermis
B) stratum basale and epidermis
C) epidermis and hypodermis
D) dermis and hypodermis
Q2) Free nerve endings of sensory neurons respond to ________.
A) pain and temperature sensations
B) deep pressure sensations
C) light touch sensations
D) Sensory neurons in the skin do not respond to stimuli.
Q3) The ________ is the white,crescent-moon-shaped region of the nail plate.
A) nail bed
B) phalanx
C) lunula
D) cuticle
Q4) The protein that makes the skin water resistant is ________.
A) melanin
B) keratin
C) elastin
D) collagen
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Skeletal System and the Axial
Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following sutures connects the two parietal bones of the skull?
A) lambdoid
B) coronal
C) sagittal
D) squamous
Q2) Which of the following bones belongs in the axial skeleton?
A) clavicle
B) phalanges
C) fibula
D) sternum
Q3) Which bone contains the supraorbital foramen?
A) maxilla
B) ethmoid
C) frontal
D) palatine
Q4) Which of the following bones contains a diaphysis?
A) patella
B) carpal
C) sternum
D) tibia
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a bony protrusion on the distal end of the femur?
A) greater trochanter
B) linea aspera
C) medial epicondyle
D) gluteal tuberosity
Q2) Which of the following is a ridge of bone along the posterior surface of the femur where many thigh muscles attach?
A) gluteal tuberosity
B) lateral epicondyle
C) intercondylar fossa
D) linea aspera
Q3) What is the roughened surface on the humerus where the deltoid muscle attaches?
A) medial epicondyle
B) deltoid tuberosity
C) capitulum
D) lateral epicondyle
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the anatomical name for the knuckle joints?
A) intercarpal
B) radioulnar
C) metacarpophalangeal
D) intertarsal
Q2) Which of the following ligaments is Y-shaped and strengthens the anterior aspect of the hip joint?
A) pubofemoral
B) ischiofemoral
C) iliofemoral
D) acetabular labrum
Q3) What is the anatomical term for moving your mandible anteriorly?
A) elevation
B) protraction
C) depression
D) retraction
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11
Chapter 10: Introduction to Skeletal Muscle
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is it called when the myosin heads pivot and pull on the actin filaments?
A) power stroke
B) tropomyosin displacement
C) action potential
D) troponin
Q2) What structure contains proteins that stabilize the thin filaments?
A) Z line
B) M line
C) A band
D) I band
Q3) What structure of a sarcomere contains proteins that connect and stabilize thin filaments?
A) Z line
B) H band
C) I band
D) A band
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Chapter 11: Muscles of the Head, Neck, and Trunk
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contraction of muscle results in movement because ________.
A) at a joint, the bone acts as a pulley and the joint serves as a lever
B) at a joint, the bone acts as a lever, the joint serves as a fulcrum, and effort is generated by muscle attached to bone
C) at a joint, the bone acts as a fulcrum and the joint serves as a pulley
D) at a joint, the bone acts as a fulcrum and the joint serves as a lever
Q2) Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in mastication?
A) frontalis
B) masseter
C) temporalis
D) lateral pterygoid
Q3) An antagonist ________.
A) opposes a specific action
B) serves as the fixed attachment of a muscle
C) promotes or facilitates a specific action
D) is also known a prime mover. Contraction results in a specific action
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Chapter 12: Muscles of the Upper and Lower Limbs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Superficial muscles of the gluteal region include the ________.
A) piriformis, gluteus maximus, obturator internus, and tensor fasciae latae
B) gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae
C) piriformis, gluteus maximus, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae
D) quadratus femoris, gluteus maximus, superior gemellus, and tensor fasciae latae
Q2) The primary action of the triceps brachii is ________.
A) pronation of the forearm
B) flexion of the fingers
C) flexion of the forearm
D) extension of the forearm
Q3) The common action of the pectoralis minor,subclavius,and serratus anterior muscles is to ________.
A) rotate the scapula
B) stabilize the pectoral girdle when the shoulder moves
C) elevate the ribs
D) protract the shoulder
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Chapter 13: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Q1) A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it controls is called a ________.
A) neuromuscular junction
B) threshold stimulus
C) motor nerve
D) motor unit
Q2) The range of motion at a joint is called ________.
A) static flexibility
B) flexibility
C) muscle fatigue
D) dynamic flexibility
Q3) Isotonic muscle contractions differ from isometric contractions because isotonic contractions ________.
A) result in lengthening of the muscle
B) involve movement of the muscle and body structures
C) do not involve shortening of a muscle
D) result in shortening of the muscle
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Cranial and spinal nerve fascicles are covered by the ________.
A) telodendrion
B) epineurium
C) microglia
D) perineurium
Q2) The ________ lies between the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes.
A) synaptic knob
B) cell body
C) synaptic cleft
D) secretory vesicles
Q3) Complete the following statement: The posterior horn of the gray matter of the spinal cord ________.
A) contains the cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons in thoracic and lumbar spinal cord levels
B) contains the cell bodies of multipolar neurons that contribute motor fibers to spinal nerves
C) contains axons of sensory neurons and cell bodies of interneurons
D) is a narrow band of tissue that connects the gray matter on each side of the spinal cord
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correctly lists the meninges in order from deep to superficial?
A) pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater
B) arachnoid mater, dura mater, and pia mater
C) dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid mater
D) dura mater, subarachnoid space, and pia mater
Q2) Which of the following is a correct listing of the cranial nerves that originate from the medulla oblongata?
A) glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory, and olfactory
B) glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory, and hypoglossal
C) glossopharyngeal, vagus, trochlear, and oculomotor
D) glossopharyngeal, trigeminal, accessory, and abducens
Q3) The ________ is the fold of the dura mater that separates the cerebral hemispheres.
A) falx cerebelli
B) endosteal layer
C) falx cerebri
D) tentorium cerebelli
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Chapter 16: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sensory cutaneous region,innervated by a single pair of spinal nerves,is called a
A) receptive field
B) dermatome
C) sensory neuron
D) plexus
Q2) Which of the following statements explains why sensations felt on the left side of the body are received by the right cerebral hemisphere?
A) There is no explanation for this occurrence.
B) Axons of third-order neurons cross over to the opposite side of the CNS.
C) First-order neurons cross over to the opposite side of the CNS.
D) Axons of second-order neurons in a sensory pathway cross over to the opposite side of the CNS.
Q3) The bony structure that encloses and protects the spinal cord is called the
A) cauda equina
B) conus medullaris
C) dura mater
D) vertebral canal
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Chapter 17: Human Reflex Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following is a normal response to the plantar reflex test in an adult?
A) extension of the great toe and spreading of the other toes
B) slight extension of the forearm
C) plantar flexion of the foot
D) slight flexion of the forearm
Q2) Which of the elements of a reflex arc is responsible for delivering motor impulses from the central nervous system to effector organs?
A) motor neuron
B) sensory neuron
C) integration center
D) sensory receptor
Q3) Which component of a reflex arc responds to stimuli (either external or internal)?
A) sensory neuron
B) motor neuron
C) integration center
D) sensory receptor
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Chapter 18: Special Senses
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Q1) The ________ is the innermost layer of the eye and it contains photoreceptor cells (rods and cones).
A) retina
B) cornea
C) lens
D) sclera
Q2) The role of the accessory structures of the eye is to ________.
A) focus light waves onto the retina
B) prevent incoming light waves from being reflected out of the eye
C) change the shape of the lens while focusing on objects that are distant or near
D) protect the eye from airborne particles and dust
Q3) Taste buds,sensory receptors for gustation,are located ________.
A) in structures called papillae
B) in the olfactory epithelium
C) in the semicircular canals
D) in the cochlear duct
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Chapter 19: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Which cells of the thyroid produce calcitonin?
A) oxyphil cells
B) parafollicular cells
C) chief cells
D) follicle cells
Q2) Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)has been linked to increased production and secretion of a specific hormone.Where is this hormone produced and secreted?
A) anterior pituitary
B) thyroid
C) pineal gland
D) posterior pituitary
Q3) A young child was brought to the hospital with multiple bone breaks.It is determined that the child's osteoclasts are overactive.Which hormone is most likely to be elevated?
A) natriuretic peptide
B) thyroxine
C) calcitonin
D) parathyroid hormone
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21
Chapter 20: Blood Cells
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Q1) Which of the following leukocytes is most likely to be found destroying viruses by phagocytosis?
A) lymphocytes
B) monocytes
C) basophils
D) eosinophils
Q2) During wound healing,which of the following leukocytes will help enhance tissue repair?
A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) monocytes
Q3) Which of the following leukocytes are responsible for producing antibodies?
A) basophils
B) neutrophils
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes
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Chapter 21: Gross Anatomy of the Heart
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Q1) What structure connects the free margins of the AV valve cusps to the papillary muscles?
A) trabeculae carneae
B) endocardium
C) chordae tendineae
D) myocardium
Q2) A 53-year-old patient with a history of heart trouble has been having trouble breathing.It has been determined that his left ventricle is damaged.What is the name of his condition?
A) atrial septal defect
B) endocarditis
C) pericarditis
D) congestive heart failure
Q3) Which vessels open into the left atrium?
A) aorta
B) pulmonary artery
C) pulmonary vein
D) superior vena cava
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Chapter 22: Anatomy of Blood Vessels
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Q1) A pulmonary embolism is most likely to enter the pulmonary circulation directly from which part of the heart?
A) left atrium
B) right ventricle
C) left ventricle
D) right atrium
Q2) Which artery originates at the inferior border of the teres major?
A) brachial
B) deep brachial
C) ulnar
D) radial
Q3) An athlete decides to run 10 miles at noon during the hottest day of the summer.Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur?
A) atherosclerosis
B) vasodilation
C) varicose veins
D) vasoconstriction
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Q1) Systolic blood pressure represents ________.
A) the expansion and recoil of the artery walls
B) the highest blood pressure generated in arteries during ventricular systole when the artery is maximally stretched
C) the resistance to blood flow in the arteries
D) the electrical activity in the heart
Q2) During your last visit to the doctor,your blood pressure was 125/80.Calculate the "mean arterial pressure."
A) 102.5
B) 93.5
C) 205
D) 13.5
Q3) The artery at the pulse point found at the femoral triangle is the ________.
A) femoral artery
B) superficial temporal artery
C) popliteal artery
D) radial artery
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Chapter 24: The Lymphatic System
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Q1) You notice that your roommate has swollen lymph nodes.Based on your knowledge of the lymphatic system,what might the clinical significance of this observation be?
A) Swollen lymph nodes may indicate the presence of an infection.
B) Swollen lymph nodes cannot be observed by a physical exam.
C) Swollen lymph nodes may signal the end of an illness.
D) Swollen lymph nodes are not clinically significant.
Q2) Where would you be most likely to find MALT?
A) in the inguinal region
B) in the lining of the small intestine
C) in the center of a lymph node
D) in the pharynx
Q3) Which of the following may occur as a result of removal of the palatine or pharyngeal tonsils?
A) heightened susceptibility to ingested or inhaled pathogens
B) decreased susceptibility to ingested or inhaled pathogens
C) Removal of the tonsils would have no clinical consequences.
D) Susceptibility to ingested or inhaled pathogens would not be affected.
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Chapter 25: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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Q1) The vocal cords are located in the ________.
A) trachea
B) esophagus
C) larynx
D) pharynx
Q2) Which of the following distributes air to particular regions of the lung?
A) trachea
B) respiratory airways
C) conducting airways
D) pulmonary capillaries
Q3) The nasal cavity is divided into left and right portions by the ________.
A) ethmoid bone
B) nasal bones
C) nasal septum
D) frontal bone
Q4) The ________,or windpipe,delivers air to the bronchial tree.
A) glottis
B) pharynx
C) larynx
D) trachea
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Physiology
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Q1) The amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during one cycle of normal inhalation and exhalation is called the ________.
A) inspiratory capacity
B) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
C) vital capacity (VC)
D) tidal volume (VT)
Q2) Inspiratory muscles include the ________.
A) diaphragm and external intercostals
B) external and internal obliques
C) diaphragm and internal intercostals
D) transverse thoracis and rectus abdominis
Q3) The ________ is the primary inspiratory muscle in the body.
A) serratus anterior
B) rectus abdominis
C) diaphragm
D) internal oblique
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Chapter 27: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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Q1) What is the name of the membranous fold that connects the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity?
A) vestibule
B) labial frenula
C) lingual frenulum
D) palate
Q2) A patient has been identified to have a "leaky" ileum,which is causing inflammation and irritation of one of his mesenteries.Which of the following mesenteries is most likely to become inflamed?
A) mesocolon
B) mesentery proper
C) lesser omentum
D) greater omentum
Q3) What is the name of the juncture between the ascending and transverse colons?
A) hepatic flexure
B) sigmoid flexure
C) cecum
D) left colic flexure
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Chapter 28: Actions of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) What is the name for a biological catalyst?
A) enzyme
B) active site
C) polysaccharide
D) substrate
Q2) Which of the following can be broken down chemically by amylase?
A) lactose
B) glucose
C) amylopectin
D) sucrose
Q3) In the absence of maltase,what product will accumulate during the breakdown of starch?
A) glucose
B) maltose
C) sucrose
D) amylose
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Chapter 29: Anatomy of the Urinary System
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Q1) What type of epithelium is found in the urethra near the junction with the urinary bladder?
A) transitional epithelium
B) simple cuboidal epithelium
C) stratified squamous epithelium
D) pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Q2) What is the name of the tube that travels through the shaft of the penis?
A) membranous urethra
B) prostatic urethra
C) ureter
D) spongy urethra
Q3) Which section of the nephron is sensitive to antidiuretic hormone?
A) distal convoluted tubule
B) nephron loop
C) collecting duct
D) proximal convoluted tubule
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Chapter 30: Urinary Physiology
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Q1) Microscopic examination of a patient's urine shows the presence of squamous epithelial cells.What is the most likely origin of these cells?
A) urinary bladder
B) urethra
C) nephrons
D) ureters
Q2) Which of the following is a type of cast that might be found in a concentrated urine sample?
A) hyaline
B) trichomonas
C) uric acid
D) cholesterol
Q3) Where does the most reabsorption occur in the nephron?
A) distal convoluted tubule
B) proximal convoluted tubule
C) collecting duct
D) glomerulus
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Chapter 31: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) The ________ of a spermatozoon consists of mitochondria arranged in a spiral formation.
A) tail
B) head
C) acrosome
D) middle piece
Q2) The ________ produces sperm and hormones.
A) epididymis
B) testis
C) urethra
D) scrotum
Q3) Spermatozoa become functionally mature in the ________.
A) urethra
B) ejaculatory duct
C) epididymis
D) ductus deferens
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Page 33
Chapter 32: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following pairings represents homologous structures?
A) labia majora : labia minora
B) ovary : testis
C) clitoris : testis
D) ovary : scrotum
Q2) Which of the following represents the most mature stage of follicular development?
A) primordial follicle
B) tertiary follicle
C) secondary follicle
D) primary follicle
Q3) Breast milk is stored in the ________ prior to breastfeeding.
A) lactiferous sinus
B) lobules
C) nipple
D) lactiferous duct
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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