Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology provides students with a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body. This course explores the organization of the human organism, including the major body systems such as the muscular, skeletal, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on the interrelationships between anatomical structures and physiological processes, enabling students to understand how the body maintains homeostasis and responds to internal and external changes. Through a combination of theoretical concepts and practical applications, students gain insights into the relevance of anatomy and physiology in health sciences, clinical practice, and everyday life.
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Anatomy Physiology Disease Foundations for the Health Professions 1st Edition by Deborah Roiger
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Basics
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Q1) What is homeostasis?
A) The body's ability to maintain a steady internal environment
B) Negative feedback
C) Positive feedback
D) The body's ability to function outside of the optimal range
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following organs are housed in the mediastinum?
A) Kidneys
B) Lungs
C) Esophagus
D) Spleen
Answer: C
Q3) The dorsal cavity can be subdivided into which two cavities?
A) Abdominal and pelvic cavities
B) Cranial and vertebral cavities
C) Pleural and pericardial cavities
D) Thoracic and abdominal pelvic cavities
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Levels of Organization of the Human Body
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Q1) What organ system is responsible for communication and hormone production?
A) Cardiovascular system
B) Nervous system
C) Endocrine system
D) Lymphatic system
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following items are composed of matter except which one?
A) All of the answer choices have matter.
B) The air we breathe
C) The steam formed from boiling water
D) The fumes emitted from a vehicle
Answer: A
Q3) All of the following are examples of the function of proteins except?
A) Transport
B) Strength
C) Fight foreign invaders
D) Store energy
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which class of disease is caused by pathogens?
A) Infectious diseases
B) Cancers
C) Immune disorders
D) Trauma
Answer: A
Q2) Which class of disease results from the inability of the body to effectively defend itself?
A) Genetic disorders
B) Cancers
C) Immune disorders
D) Mental disorders
Answer: C
Q3) In what tissue would lymphoma originate?
A) Lymphoid
B) Epithelial
C) Connective
D) Bone marrow
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements describes the epidermis?
A) The epidermis has cutaneous glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings.
B) The epidermis is the skin's most superficial layer.
C) The epidermis is the skin's deepest layer.
D) The dermis is composed of loose/areolar connective tissue over dense irregular connective tissue.
Q2) Which of the following answer choices correctly lists the ABCDEs of skin cancer?
A) Asymmetry, border, color, diameter, evolving
B) Asymmetry, border, cancerous, diameter, evolving
C) Abstract, border, color, diameter, evading
D) Asymmetry, border, color, deadly, emerging
Q3) Cellulitis is caused by what type of infection?
A) Bacteria
B) Fungus
C) Virus
D) Cancerous cells
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Q1) What is the function of the spinous and transverse process of the vertebrae?
A) To allow spinal nerves to exit the vertebrae
B) To support the weight of the body
C) An opening that allows the spinal cord to pass through the vertebrae
D) Attachment points for tendons and ligaments
Q2) All of the following bones are flat bones except which one?
A) Ribs
B) Sternum
C) Cranial bones of the skull
D) Vertebra
Q3) What type of cartilage covers the ends of long bones?
A) Hyaline cartilage
B) Elastic cartilage
C) Fibrocartilage
D) Fibroelastic cartilage
Q4) How many lumbar vertebrae are in the spinal column?
A) 7
B) 12
C) 5
D) 2
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Q1) What function of the muscular system is performed when a person's facial expression can tell you how they feel?
A) Communication
B) Movement
C) Heat production
D) Stability
Q2) Which muscular disorder is characterized as an autoimmune disorder where antibodies attack the acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction?
A) Hernia
B) Cramp
C) Muscular dystrophy
D) Myasthenia gravis
Q3) What theory of muscle contraction involves thick myofilaments grabbing thin myofilaments and pulling them toward the center of the sarcomere?
A) Cross-bridge theory
B) Power stroke theory
C) Sliding filament theory
D) All or nothing theory
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8
Chapter 7: The Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is false regarding the function of the sympathetic nervous system?
A) Prepares the body for fight or flight
B) Dilates blood vessels
C) Signals the heart to beat slower
D) Decrease blood flow to digestive organs
Q2) What are the two major components of the diencephalon?
A) Cerebrum and brainstem
B) Frontal lobe and parietal lobe
C) Medulla oblongata and pons
D) Thalamus and hypothalamus
Q3) Which type of neurons group together to form ganglia?
A) Multipolar
B) Unipolar
C) Bipolar
D) Tripolar
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Chapter 8: The Nervous System-Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which test is used to diagnose hearing loss?
A) Ishihara test
B) Rinne test
C) Snellen test
D) Tonometry
Q2) Which taste is most concentrated on the tip of the tongue?
A) Salty
B) Sour
C) Bitter
D) Sweet
Q3) What is the function of the middle ear?
A) To transfer the sound wave to the tympanic membrane
B) To amplify the vibration of the tympanic membrane
C) To guide the sound wave into the auditory canal
D) To separate the outer ear and inner ear
Q4) What type of neuron is the olfactory cell?
A) Multipolar
B) Unipolar
C) Bipolar
D) Tripolar
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Chapter 9: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are functions of the hypothalamus except which one?
A) Cause the release of FSH and LH
B) Cause the release of ACTH
C) Cause the release of CRH
D) Cause the release of TSH
Q2) Which gland resembles a bow-tie and is located anterior and lateral to the trachea just inferior to the larynx?
A) Pineal gland
B) Hypothalamus
C) Thyroid
D) Pancreas
Q3) Which of the following is a symptom of acromegaly?
A) Hair loss
B) Collection of fat on the lower neck and shoulders
C) Goiter
D) Organ enlargement
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11
Chapter 10: The Cardiovascular System-Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about hemoglobin is true?
A) The cytoplasm of white blood cells contains hemoglobin.
B) Hemoglobin is a complex protein made of 5 chains of amino acids called globins.
C) Each globin chain on a hemoglobin molecule contains a heme group.
D) Each hemoglobin molecule can carry five oxygen molecules.
Q2) Which term describes the prompt constriction of a broken vessel?
A) Vascular spasm
B) Platelet plug formation
C) Coagulation
D) None of these answers are correct.
Q3) What is the correct order of hemostasis?
A) Vascular spasm- platelet plug formation- coagulation
B) Platelet plug formation- coagulation- vascular spasm
C) Vascular spasm- coagulation- platelet plug formation
D) Coagulation- vascular spasm- platelet plug formation
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Chapter 11: The Cardiovascular System - Heart and Vessels
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Q1) Which of the following combining forms describes an anatomical structure of the heart?
A) pericardi/o
B) ventricul/o
C) atri/o
D) All of these answers are correct.
Q2) Which chambers in the heart receive blood?
A) Atria
B) Ventricles
C) Auricles
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) What is the endocardium?
A) The cardiac muscle tissue of the heart
B) The tissue that lines the heart's four chambers
C) A fluid-filled, double-walled membrane that surrounds the heart
D) None of these are correct.
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13
Chapter 12: The Lymphatic System
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Q1) In humoral immunity,B cells clone themselves in the germinal centers of the lymphatic nodules to become what two types of cells?
A) Natural killer cells and helper cells
B) Natural killer cells and memory cells
C) Helper cells and plasma cells
D) Plasma cells and memory cells
Q2) What lymphatic disorder is characterized by a hypersensitivity to a foreign antigen?
A) Lymphadenitis
B) Elephantiasis
C) Allergies
D) HIV/AIDS
Q3) In cellular immunity,which cells directly attack a pathogen or cancer cell?
A) T <sub>Cytotoxic</sub> cells
B) T <sub>Helper</sub> cells
C) T <sub>Memory</sub> cells
D) T <sub>Regulatory</sub> cells
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14
Chapter 13: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagnostic exam determines whether a person has developed an immune response to the bacterium that causes tuberculosis?
A) Peak flow meter
B) Mantoux test
C) Arterial blood gas
D) Pulse oximetry
Q2) Which type of lung cancer is the least common form of lung cancer,but it is the most deadly because it easily metastasizes to other tissues?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Oat cell carcinoma
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Alkalosis occurs if the pH of the blood is greater than what?
A) 7.35
B) 6.35
C) 7.45
D) 8.35
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Chapter 14: The Digestive System
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Q1) What is the function of pepsin in the stomach?
A) Partially breaks down proteins
B) Allows vitamin B<sub>12</sub> to be absorbed
C) Protects the stomach walls
D) Partially breaks down lipids
Q2) Hydrochloric acid in the stomach has what pH?
A) 8.0
B) 0.08
C) 0.8
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Which disorder affects an accessory organ of the digestive system?
A) Colon cancer
B) Dental caries
C) Hepatitis
D) Gastroenteritis
Q4) What structure is part of both the respiratory and digestive system?
A) Epiglottis
B) Esophagus
C) Pharynx
D) Larynx
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Excretoryurinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperventilation may cause which of the following?
A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Q2) Which muscle is under voluntary control?
A) External urethral sphincter
B) Internal urethral sphincter
C) Detrusor muscle
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Which is true regarding the effects of aging on the excretory system?
A) The size of the kidneys and the number of functioning nephrons decrease.
B) The glomerular filtration rate decreases.
C) Drugs are cleared less efficiently with age, so drugs remain in circulation longer.
D) Responsiveness to ADH increases in the elderly.
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Chapter 16: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) During which stage of sexual response is the sperm moved by peristaltic contractions through the ductus deferens to its ampulla?
A) Arousal
B) Emission
C) Ejaculation
D) Resolution
Q2) Which accessory gland secretes a thick,yellowish fluid that contains sugar and other carbohydrates to nourish sperm,and a protein that will help semen adhere to the vaginal walls?
A) Seminal vesicle
B) Prostate
C) Bulbourethral
D) Glans penis
Q3) Which of the following is not a secondary reproductive structure in the male?
A) Penis
B) Spermatic ducts
C) Testicles
D) Scrotum
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Chapter 17: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which stage of the birth process involves crowning of the baby's head?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Which structure drains the milk produced by the secretory cells in the breast?
A) Lactiferous ducts
B) Lactiferous sinuses
C) Myoepithelial cells
D) Lobules
Q3) Which of the following initiates the birth process?
A) CRH targets the fetal anterior pituitary to release ACTH.
B) Progesterone production levels decrease around six months, while estrogen levels keep increasing making the uterus more likely to contract.
C) The hypothalamus signals the posterior pituitary to secrete oxytocin.
D) All of these happen to initiate the birth process.
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