Introduction to American Government Midterm
Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of the foundations, structures, and functions of the American government. Students will explore the principles and framework established by the U.S. Constitution, the roles and powers of the three branches of government, and the federal system that balances authority between national and state governments. Key topics include political participation, civil liberties and rights, the electoral process, policymaking, and the influence of interest groups and media. The course also examines the historical development of American government and its ongoing impact on contemporary political issues and public policy debates.
Recommended Textbook
Politics in America 2014 Elections and Updates Edition 10th Edition by Thomas R. Dye
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Chapter 1: Politics: Who Gets What,When and How 1
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Q1) A government that is itself restrained by law is called __________.
A)a limited government
B)totalitarianism
C)a direct democracy
D)authoritarianism
Answer: A
Q2) A governing system in which the people govern themselves is called __________.
A)oligarchy
B)democracy
C)monarchy
D)a confederation
Answer: B
Q3) What is defined as the "widespread acceptance of something as necessary,rightful,and legally binding"?
A)common consent
B)dissent
C)justice
D)legitimacy
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Political Culture: Ideas in Conflict
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Q1) __________ is an economic system asserting an individual's right to own private property and to buy,sell,rent,and trade that property in a free market.
Answer: Capitalism
Q2) What is the current trend in income distribution in the United States?
A)evenly distributed
B)heavily weighted to the center
C)increasingly equal
D)increasingly unequal
Answer: D
Q3) how would you describe the general trend in immigration to the United States between the 1970s and today?
A)Immigration decreased slightly.
B)Immigration increased sharply.
C)Immigration increased slightly.
D)Immigration remained about the same.
Answer: B
Q4) Secular politics would not allow __________ in public life.
Answer: religion
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4
Chapter 3: The Constitution: Limiting Governmental Power
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Sample Questions
Q1) Merchants disliked the Articles of Confederation because of what they considered overregulation and interference in interstate commerce.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) What happened at the Annapolis Convention?
A)Delegates called for a convention to rework the Articles of Confederation.
B)The Declaration of Independence was approved by all thirteen states.
C)Delegates resolved disputes between Virginia and Maryland regarding commerce and navigation rights.
D)The Articles of Confederation were scrapped and a new constitution was written and approved.
Answer: A
Q3) In the writing of the Constitution,which concept was adopted from John Locke?
A)capitalist free-market system
B)individual liberty and property
C)nationalism
D)republicanism
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Federalism: Dividing Governmental Power
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Q1) All of the powers of the federal government are expressly enumerated in the Constitution.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the single most important source of federal influence over state and local activity?
A)devolution
B)gas mileage requirements
C)grant-in-aid programs
D)minimum wage legislation
Q3) The __________ Amendment says that says that those powers not given to the federal government and not prohibited to the states by the Constitution are reserved for the states and the people.
A)First
B)Eighth
C)Tenth
D)Eleventh
Q4) Many Americans believe that we live exclusively in a direct democracy.Critically evaluate that belief.How is it true,and how is it untrue?
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Chapter 5: Opinion and Participation: Thinking and Acting in Politics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is credited with bringing an end to property qualifications for voting?
A)the support of the nation's leading newspapers
B)the spread of Jeffersonian and Jacksonian principles of democracy
C)the spread of public schools and increased rates of literacy
D)the growing hostility between North and South in the years preceding the Civil War
Q2) About 60 percent of the voting-age population in the United States typically fails to vote,even in presidential elections.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How might the model of the rational voter explain that only 50 percent of the voting-age population is registered to vote?
A)respect for the right to vote outweighs any tangible benefit
B)tangible benefits outweigh respect for the right to vote
C)allegiance to democracy is a burden not overcome by registration
D)the cost of registering is more than the expected value of having a preferred candidate win
Q4) Trace the expansion of the right to vote.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Mass Media: Setting the Political Agenda
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Q1) The primary factor when editors or producers select news to present to readers and viewers is the need to __________.
A)capture attention
B)sell advertising
C)make a political point
D)change people's opinions
Q2) A local television station allowed a Republican candidate ten minutes of free air time to express her views.By law,the station was then required to allow the Democratic and Libertarian candidates ten minutes of free air time to express their views as well.This is an application of __________.
A)the Sullivan rule
B)polarization of the media
C)the equal-time rule
D)a feeding frenzy
Q3) Sensationalism in the media is caused by which of these?
A)liberal ideology
B)economic interests
C)conservative ideology
D)ethical considerations
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Political Parties: Organizing Politics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why might political parties shy away from taking strong policy positions?
A)Party discipline may be high,but ideological differences continue to divide.
B)Party membership is too moderate.
C)Parties have no way to bind their elected officials to a party platform.
D)Party powers are limited by the U.S.Constitution.
Q2) The creation of third parties has always accompanied major protest movements.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n)__________ is a delegate to the Democratic Party national convention selected because of his/her position in the government or party and not pledged to any specific candidate.
Q4) The form of change in which a dominant party declines and is replaced by another dominant party is called dealignment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A long period of electoral dealignment began in the 1960s,as indicated by the growing numbers of self-described __________ voters and declining numbers of voters who identify as "strong" Democrats or Republicans.
Q6) Assess whether dealignment in the American party system has actually occurred.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Campaigns and Elections: Deciding Who
Governs
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long is the typical paid political television advertisement?
A)15 to 30 seconds
B)30 to 45 seconds
C)45 to 60 seconds
D)60 to 90 seconds
Q2) For elections to serve as policy mandates,__________.
A)voters must cast their ballots on personal appeal
B)the media endorses winning candidate
C)voters must endorse similar candidates in all three branches of government
D)elected officials have to be bound by their campaign promises
Q3) A political ad touts a candidate's "outsider" status and stresses the need for change.A candidate running such an ad is most likely a(n)__________.
A)challenger
B)incumbent
C)amateur
D)careerist
Q4) Considering the media attention focused on the New Hampshire primary and the Iowa caucuses,why do you think states have moved their primary dates earlier in the election year?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Interest Groups: Getting Their Share and More
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is lobbying the executive branch similar to lobbying the courts?
A)Both require a lobbyist to hold a law degree.
B)Both can involve lobbying related to the implementation of an existing policy.
C)Both are relatively rare,given that most lobbyists focus exclusively on Congress.
D)Both typically involve grassroots lobbying.
Q2) Why is grassroots lobbying an effective political tactic?
A)Grassroots lobbying shapes public opinion,and elected officials are known to respond to public opinion.
B)Interest groups rarely engage in grassroots lobbying,so when they use this tactic,elected officials take notice.
C)Grassroots lobbyists collect and bundle together campaign contributions from multiple individuals.This results in one large campaign contribution and thus maximizes the impact of each contributor.
D)Grassroots lobbying depends on building personal connections with elected officials,who are more likely to listen to groups that they know and like.
Q3) Common Cause,an organization that pushes for openness and fairness in government,is an example of a(n)__________ group.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Congress: Politics on Capitol Hill
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Q1) The House minority leader __________.
A)has authority over the selection of the president pro tempore
B)has joint authority over which legislation goes to the floor
C)is elected by the minority party
D)is selected by the majority leader
Q2) A lobbyist for the NRA would be most effective when targeting a legislator __________.
A)whose voting behavior supports gun control
B)whose voting behavior opposes gun control
C)with a large and mostly unoccupied support staff
D)who wants cash for personal trips to gun shows
Q3) A bill goes through markup in a full committee after a subcommittee votes in favor of it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What advantage does a subcommittee offer the legislative process?
A)expedited approval of joint committee floor submissions
B)expedited approval of standing committee floor submissions
C)greater division of labor
D)oversight of joint committees
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Chapter 11: The President: White House Politics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Analyze the president's role as chief legislator and lobbyist.What role does the president play in initiating legislation,and how does the president lobby for passage of legislation? What does the president need to do effectively in order to be successful in this role?
Q2) The principal responsibility of the vice president is to __________.
A)initiate programs and policies and shepherd them through Congress
B)be prepared to assume the responsibilities of the president
C)oversee the federal budget
D)establish executive departments and agencies
Q3) Which phrase best describes the White House press corps?
A)an elite group of reporters assigned to cover the president
B)foreign reporters assigned to cover news about the White House
C)television journalists who cover the activities of the executive branch
D)reporters from the Washington Post who cover the White House
Q4) Refer to Table 11.2.After the terrorist attacks of September 11,2001,George W.Bush and Congress added the Department of Homeland Security to the executive body known as the __________.
Q5) Congress has the sole authority to declare war.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Bureaucracy: Bureaucratic Politics
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Q1) When would Congress be most likely to allow a federal agency significant discretion in rule-making?
A)following a congressional election
B)following a presidential election
C)following the passage of a law dealing with specialist issues
D)following the passage of a law supported by both political parties
Q2) Which of the following illustrates the bureaucratic characteristic of impersonality?
A)an agency dividing its workload among many specialized workers
B)an agency emphasizing the uniform application of rules
C)an agency ignoring public complaints about its operations
D)an agency ignoring the policy objectives of the president and Congress
Q3) What role is the National Labor Relations Board taking when it settles a dispute between labor and management on federal labor laws?
A)regulation
B)oversight
C)rule-making
D)adjudication
Q4) The president appoints,but cannot dismiss,officials who serve on __________.
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Chapter 13: Courts Judicial Politics
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Q1) The Judiciary Act of 1789 established the federal circuit courts and district courts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which body or office must confirm all federal judges?
A)House of Representatives
B)Supreme Court
C)Senate
D)president
Q3) Proponents of which of the following believe that judges should use their power broadly to further justice?
A)judicial restraint
B)judicial constructionism
C)judicial activism
D)judicial originalism
Q4) Which of the following limits judicial power?
A)judicial review
B)judicial activism
C)stare decisis/precedent
D)constitutional courts
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Chapter 14: Politics and Personal Liberty
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Q1) Under the preferred position doctrine,any speech or writing is presumed constitutional unless the government can prove that it presents what?
A)a serious and immediate danger
B)a preferred position
C)prior restraint
D)a wall of separation
Q2) In order for a public official to prove that a communication is libelous,they must prove that the statement(s)made about them were "made with actual malice" or with __________ of the truth.
Q3) In Dennis v.United States,commentators have noted that the Supreme Court appeared to substitute a clear and __________ danger doctrine for the clear and present danger doctrine.
A)possible
B)unquestionable
C)definite
D)probable
Q4) The requirement that a warrant be specific is designed to protect citizens from police fishing expeditions that would constitute unreasonable __________.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Politics and Civil Rights
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Supreme Court decisions in Regents of the University of California v.Bakke
A)legalized using affirmative action to achieve racial diversity
B)struck down the use of numerical quotas in affirmative action programs
C)ruled that the university was required to match the racial diversity of the students with the racial diversity of the staff
D)clearly defined what sorts of programs would be acceptable to achieve diversity
Q2) The __________ Amendment guarantees African Americans the right to vote.
A)Equal Rights
B)Fourteenth
C)Fifteenth
D)Eighteenth
Q3) Even though the Hispanic population is fairly small,they earned their civil rights earlier and more completely than did African Americans.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rosa Parks's refusal to give up her seat on a public bus was an act of __________ that led to the Montgomery Bus Boycott.
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17
Chapter 16: Politics and the Economy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a nation's total production of goods and services for a single year,valued in terms of market prices?
A)gross domestic product
B)national debt
C)stimulus package
D)deficit
Q2) According to Figure 16.2 in your text,what is the relationship between unemployment and inflation?
A)The inflation rate is always higher than unemployment.
B)The inflation rate always increases when unemployment increases.
C)The inflation rate never declines,regardless of the unemployment rate.
D)The unemployment rate is generally higher than the inflation rate.
Q3) Which of the following is a possible solution to the long-term problem of solvency in the Social Security program?
A)Eliminate the prescription drug program for seniors.
B)Increase the states' financial contribution.
C)Increase the minimum retirement age.
D)Lower the minimum retirement age.
Q4) The federal government uses fiscal policy when it raises ___________.
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Chapter 17: Politics and Social Welfare
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Sample Questions
Q1) Social Security is aimed at what group of people?
A)children
B)business owners
C)seniors
D)the poor
Q2) Which of the following is most accurate regarding the future of Social Security?
A)Social Security will likely need adjustments to meet future demands.
B)Social Security is expected to run out of money by 2014.
C)Social Security is expected to be financially stable for the next 50 years.
D)Social Security is expected to be financially stable for the next 100 years.
Q3) The Great Society is associated with which president?
A)John F.Kennedy
B)Lyndon B.Johnson
C)Ronald Reagan
D)George W.Bush
Q4) Temporary Assistance for Needy Families provides funds for families in need of financial assistance.Therefore,it is considered a means-tested program.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Medicare is designed to help the __________ population.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Politics and National Security
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Q1) Why are terrorist threats "nondeterrable"?
A)because nuclear weapons are too powerful to be deterred
B)because cutbacks were made to the SDI program that could have provided deterrence
C)because partisanship has clouded the debate over BMDs
D)because the threat of retaliation is meaningless to terrorists
Q2) What was the foreign policy of containment designed to prevent?
A)nuclear proliferation
B)the spread of communism
C)terrorism
D)epidemics and pandemics
Q3) According to the feature box titled "The Game,the Rules,the Players," Operation Desert Storm was a quick and decisive military victory for the United States that resulted in relatively few casualties.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Terrorism is a technique used to effect political change by instilling __________ among the general public.
Q5) The __________ was the U.S.effort to help rebuild Western Europe after World War II.
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