
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Internet Security explores the principles, technologies, and practices essential for protecting information and resources on the internet. The course examines key concepts such as cryptography, authentication, firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and secure communication protocols. Students will analyze common threats, including malware, phishing, denial-of-service attacks, and vulnerabilities in web applications. Through case studies and hands-on activities, the course provides practical experience in implementing security measures, managing digital identities, and developing strategies for maintaining privacy and data integrity in networked environments.
Recommended Textbook
Cryptography and Network Security 6th Edition by William Stallings
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Q1) A common technique for masking contents of messages or other information traffic so that opponents can not extract the information from the message is __________ .
A)integrity
B)encryption
C)analysis
D)masquerade
Answer: B
Q2) __________ is the most common method used to conceal small blocks of data,such as encryption keys and hash function values,which are used in digital signatures.
A)Symmetric encryption
B)Data integrity algorithms
C)Asymmetric encryption
D)Authentication protocols
Answer: C
Q3) In the United States,the release of student grade information is regulated by the
Answer: Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)
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Q1) The two types of attack on an encryption algorithm are cryptanalysis based on properties of the encryption algorithm,and _________ which involves trying all possible keys.
Answer: brute-force
Q2) All encryption algorithms are based on two general principles: substitution and
Answer: transposition
Q3) A __________ attack involves trying every possible key until an intelligible translation of the ciphertext is obtained.
A)brute-force
B)Caesar attack
C)ciphertext only
D)chosen plaintext
Answer: A
Q4) The best known multiple letter encryption cipher is the __________ which treats digrams in the plaintext as single units and translates these units into ciphertext digrams.
Answer: Playfair
Q5) The most widely used cipher ever is the __________ .
Answer: Data Encryption Standard (DES)

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Q1) A __________ cipher is one that encrypts a digital data stream one bit or one byte at a time.
A)product
B)block
C)key
D)stream
Answer: D
Q2) Fast software encryption/decryption and ease of analysis are two considerations in the design of a Feistel cipher.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The key schedule algorithm is more popular and has received more attention than S-box design.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Two alternatives to DES are AES and _________ DES. Answer: triple
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Q1) A polynomial fx)over a field F is called __________ if and only if fx)cannot be expressed as a product of two polynomials,both over F,and both of degree lower than that of fx).
Q2) The remainder r in the division algorithm is often referred to as a __________ .
Q3) The scheme where you can find the greatest common divisor of two integers by repetitive application of the division algorithm is known as the Brady algorithm.
A)True B)False
Q4) The polynomial cx)is said to be the __________ of ax)and bx)if cx)divides both ax)and bx)and any divisor of ax)and bx)is a divisor of cx).
Q5) Polynomial arithmetic includes the operations of addition, subtraction and multiplication.
A)True B)False
Q6) A cyclic group is always commutative and may be finite or infinite.
A)True B)False

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Q1) The National Institute of Standards and Technology chose the __________ design as the winning candidate for AES.
Q2) The __________ is when a small change in plaintext or key produces a large change in the ciphertext.
A)avalanche effect
B)Rcon
C)key expansion
D)auxiliary exchange
Q3) A polynomial mx)is called __________ if and only if mx)cannot be expressed as a product of two polynomials,both of degree lower than that of mx).
Q4) The AES key expansion algorithm takes as input a four-word 16-byte)key and produces a linear array of __________ words 176 bytes).
Q5) The standard decryption round has the structure InvShiftRows,InvSubBytes,__________,InvMixColumns.
Q6) ___________ affects the sequence of bytes in State but does not alter byte contents and does not depend on byte contents to perform its transformation.
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Q1) OFB mode requires an initialization vector that must be unique to each execution of the encryption operation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Given the potential vulnerability of DES to a brute-force attack,an alternative has been found.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The__________ is a technique in which an encryption algorithm is used multiple times.
Q4) The __________ mode operates on full blocks of plaintext and ciphertext,as opposed to an s-bit subset.
A)CBC
B)ECB
C)OFB
D)CFB
Q5) Cipher Feedback CFB)is used for the secure transmission of single values.
A)True
B)False
Q6) One of the most widely used multiple-encryption scheme is __________ .
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Q1) Random numbers play an important role in the use of encryption for various network security applications.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The __________ is drawn from the physical environment of the computer and could include things such as keystroke timing patterns,disk electrical activity,mouse movements,and instantaneous values of the system clock.
Q3) The purpose of the __________ test is to determine whether the number of runs of ones and zeros of various lengths is as expected for a random sequence.
Q4) The security of Blum,Blum,Shub is based on the difficulty of factoring n.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a stream cipher structure a key is input to a pseudorandom bit generator that produces a stream of 8-bit numbers that are apparently random.The output of the generator,called a ___________ ,is combined one byte at a time with the plaintext stream using the bitwise exclusive-OR operation.
Q6) __________ is a stream cipher designed in 1987 by Ron Rivest for RSA Security.
Q7) The most important and widely used stream cipher is __________ .
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Q1) An important quantity in number theory referred to as __________ ,is defined as the number of positive integers less than n and relatively prime to n.
A)CRT
B)Miller-Rabin
C)Euler's totient function
D)Fermat's theorem
Q2) A __________ number is an integer that can only be divided by positive and negative values of itself and 1 without having a remainder.
Q3) An integer p > 1 is a __________ number if and only if its only divisors are + 1 and + 1.
Q4) The _________ of a number is defined to be the power to which some positive base except 1)must be raised in order to equal the number.
Q5) Discrete logarithms are not fundamental to public-key algorithms.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The number of positive integers less than n and relatively prime to n is referred to as __________ function.
Q7) Two numbers are __________ if their greatest common divisor is 1.
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Q1) The __________ indicates that the subscriber identified in the certificate has sole control and access to the private key.
A)OAEP
B)Public Key Certificate
C)Digital Signature
D)PKI
Q2) Asymmetric encryption can be used for confidentiality but not for authentication.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Public-key encryption is also known as ___________ .
A)digital-key encryption
B)asymmetric encryption
C)one way time exchange encryption
D)optimal-key encryption
Q4) A major advance in symmetric cryptography occurred with the development of the rotor encryption/decryption machine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A __________ is when two sides cooperate to exchange a session key.
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Q1) The __________ pseudorandom number generator is recommended in the ANSI standard X9.82 Random Number Generation)and in the ISO standard 18031 Random Bit Generation).
Q2) Elliptic curves are ellipses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a secret key is to be used as a _________ for conventional encryption a single number must be generated.
A)discrete logarithm
B)prime curve
C)session key
D)primitive root
Q4) ECC is fundamentally easier to explain than either RSA or Diffie-Hellman.
A)True
B)False
Q5) For purposes of ECC,elliptic curve arithmetic involves the use of an elliptic curve equation defined over an infinite field.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) __________ is a mechanism or service used to verify the integrity of a message.
A)Message authentication
B)Data compression
C)Data mapping
D)Message digest
Q2) A hash function that satisfies the properties of variable input size,fixed output size,efficiency,preimage resistant,second preimage resistant and __________ is referred to as a strong hash function.
Q3) Three new versions of SHA with hash value lengths of 256,384,and 512 bits are collectively known as __________ .
A)SHA-3
B)SHA-1
C)SHA-2
D)SHA-0
Q4) The cryptographic hash function is not a versatile cryptographic algorithm.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hash functions can be used for intrusion and virus detections.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The HtE approach is used in the __________ protocol to protect WiFi networks.
Q2) Insertion of messages into the network from a fraudulent source is a __________ attack.
A)content modification
B)masquerade
C)source repudiation
D)sequence modification
Q3) "Release of message contents to any person or process not possessing the appropriate cryptographic key" is a __________ attack.
A)content modification
B)source repudiation
C)disclosure
D)sequence modification
Q4) One means of forming a MAC is to combine a cryptographic hash function in some fashion with a secret key.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The types of functions that may be used to produce an authenticator are grouped into three classes: hash function,message authentication code,and ___________ .
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Q1) The first part of the Schnorr digital signature scheme is the generation of a private/public key pair.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A _________ is an authentication mechanism that enables the creator of a message to attach a code that acts as a signature.
Q3) A digital signature can guarantee the integrity but not the source of the message.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _________ specifies that if the signature generation process results in a value of s = 0 a new value of k should be generated and the signature should be recalculated.
Q5) Message authentication protects two parties who exchange messages from any third party,however,it does not protect the two parties against each other.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) For symmetric encryption to work the two parties to an exchange must share the same key and that key must be protected from access by others.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A unique identifier for a transaction is a __________ and this identifier may be a timestamp,a counter or a random number,with the minimum requirement being that it differs with each request.
Q3) A __________ consists of a public key,an identifier of the key owner,and the whole block signed by a trusted third party and can be used by participants to exchange keys without contacting a public key authority in a way that is as reliable as if the keys were obtained directly from a public key authority.
Q4) __________ is an integer value unique within the issuing CA that is unambiguously associated with this certificate.
A)Signature identifier
B)Version
C)Serial number
D)Issuer unique identifier
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Q1) A concept dealing with the use of a common identity management scheme across multiple enterprises and numerous applications and refers to the agreements,standards,and technologies that enable the portability of identities,identity attributes,and entitlements across multiple enterprises and numerous applications and supporting many thousands,even millions,of users is _________ .
Q2) A solution,which eliminates the burden of each server having to confirm the identities of clients who request service,is to use an __________ that knows the passwords of all users and stores these in a centralized database and shares a unique secret key with each server.
Q3) In an unprotected network environment any client can apply to any server for service.The obvious security risk of this is __________ .
A)certification
B)authentication
C)impersonation
D)authorization
Q4) _________ protocols enable communicating parties to satisfy themselves mutually about each other's identity and to exchange session keys.
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Q1) In using cloud infrastructures,the client necessarily cedes control to the CP on a number of issues that may affect security.
A)True
B)False
Q2) EAPOL operates at the network layers and makes use of an IEEE 802 LAN,such as Ethernet or Wi-Fi,at the link level.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A cloud broker is useful when cloud services are too complex for a cloud consumer to easily manage.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In effect,________ is an operating system in the cloud.
A)IEEE 802.1X
B)PaaS
C)IaaS
D)DHCP
Q5) An _________ is an access point or NAS that requires EAP authentication prior to granting access to a network.
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Q1) The _________ Protocol allows the server and client to authenticate each other and to negotiate an encryption and MAC algorithm along with cryptographic keys to be used to protect data sent in an SSL Record.
Q2) TLS makes use of a pseudorandom function referred to as __________ to expand secrets into blocks of data for purposes of key generation or validation.
Q3) ISSl/TLS includes protocol mechanisms to enable two TCP users to determine the security mechanisms and services they will use.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unlike traditional publishing environments,the Internet is three- way and vulnerable to attacks on the Web servers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The shared master secret is a one-time 48-byte value generated for a session by means of secure key exchange.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Two important SSL concepts are the SSL session and the SSL _________ .
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Q1) Forming a hierarchy beginning with a master key from which other keys are derived dynamically and used for a limited period of time,__________ are used for communication between a pair of devices typically between a STA and an AP.
Q2) MAC spoofing occurs when an attacker is able to eavesdrop on network traffic and identify the MAC address of a computer with network privileges.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To certify interoperability for 802.11b products an industry consortium named the __________ was formed.
Q4) The function of the __________ is to on transmission assemble data into a frame,on reception disassemble frame and perform address recognition and error detection,and govern access to the LAN transmission medium.
A)transmission layer
B)logical layer
C)media access control layer
D)physical layer
Q5) The MPDU authentication phase consists of three phases.They are: connect to AS,EAP exchange and _________ .
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Q1) The __________ enables the recipient to determine if the correct public key was used to decrypt the message digest for authentication.
A)key ID of the sender's public key
B)timestamp
C)filename
D)leading two octets of message digest
Q2) S/MIME provides the following functions: enveloped data,signed data,clear signed data,and ________ .
Q3) The _________ type refers to other kinds of data,typically either uninterpreted binary data or information to be processed by a mail-based application.
Q4) A message component includes the actual data to be stored or transmitted as well as a filename and a timestamp that specifies the time of creation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ___________ is an open-source,freely available software package for e-mail security.
Q6) PGP provides compression using the __________ algorithm.
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Q1) The Payload Data Field is designed to deter replay attacks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) IPsec encompasses three functional areas: authentication,key management,and
Q3) Authentication must be applied to the entire original IP packet.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ payload contains either error or status information associated with this SA or this SA negotiation.
A)Encrypted
B)Notify
C)Configuration
D)Nonce
Q5) The default automated key management protocol for IPsec is referred to as ISAKMP/Oakley.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The __________ facility is concerned with the secure exchange of keys.
Q7) Authentication makes use of the _________ message authentication code.
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