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International Marketing explores the strategies and challenges involved in marketing products and services across national boundaries. The course examines cultural, economic, legal, and technological differences that impact international marketing decisions, as well as methods for market entry, global product adaptation, pricing, distribution, and promotional strategies. Students will analyze real-world case studies and develop skills in identifying opportunities, assessing market potential, and formulating effective global marketing plans in an increasingly interconnected world.
Recommended Textbook
Marketing Management A Strategic Decision Making Approach 8th Edition by John Mullins
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who buy goods for others in their immediate household are organizational buyers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Customers want to purchase products with minimum of risk and shopping time.This is referred to as _____ utility.
A)possession
B)place
C)time
D)duration
Answer: A
Q3) Discuss brand equity.
Answer: The assets that include customers' perceptions of a product's benefits and value,their positive past experiences,and their loyalty over time,linked to a brand's name and symbol constitute the brand's equity.Brand equity reflects the value of the brand name and logo as promotional tools for attracting future buyers and building market share and profitability.A brand's value to the company depends on how much value customers think the brand provides for them.
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Q1) Ethical standards emerge only after the negative consequences of an action become apparent.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Divestiture and harvesting are strategies that most suitable for:
A)dogs.
B)question marks.
C)stars.
D)cash cows.
Answer: A
Q3) _____ occurs when a manufacturer acquires a wholesale distributor or retail outlet.
A)Horizontal integration
B)Backward integration
C)Forward vertical integration
D)Unrelated diversification
Answer: C
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Q1) In the context of rivalry among present competitors,which of the following is true?
A)Firms are mostly independent of one another.
B)Profitability increases as rivalry increases.
C)Rivalry is greater when the rate of investment intensity is low.
D)Rivalry occurs among firms producing goods that are substitutes for each other.
Answer: D
Q2) Two sociocultural trends of particular relevance today are greater interest in ethical behavior by businesses and a greater consciousness regarding fitness and nutrition.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Porter's five competitive forces include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)rivalry among present competitors.
B)threat of complementary products.
C)bargaining power of buyers.
D)the bargaining power of suppliers.
Answer: B
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Q1) Apricot Inc. ,a leading food manufacturing industry uses advertisements to get the good health message across between their products and good health.They use words such as,"contains omega-3","now with probiotic",or "no cholesterol" to indicate that their products help in maintaining good health.By which of the following ways is Apricot Inc.attempting to increase customer involvement?
A)By linking the product to an involving issue
B)By adding an important feature to the product
C)By tying the product to a personally involving situation
D)By adding a new product to the product line
Q2) The consumer decision-making approach associated with low-involvement and routine information search for a product is known as _____.
A)brand loyalty
B)complex decision making
C)compensatory decision making
D)inertia
Q3) Products are more difficult to evaluate than services.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the difference between a culture and a subculture?
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Q1) Personal selling,either by the producer's or a distributor's salesforce,is the only important promotional method for accessory equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The demand for industrial goods and services is derived from the demand for consumer goods and services.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Component parts and materials are regarded as:
A)finished goods that facilitate production of a final product.
B)processed goods that become a portion of a final product.
C)finished goods that facilitate repair,maintenance,and ongoing operations.
D)major capital goods that are used to produce the final product,but not being part of the final product.
Q4) Government organizations tend to require less documentation and paperwork from their suppliers compared to the business organizations.
A)True
B)False

Page 7
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Q1) Greater confidence can be placed in quantitative studies because of:
A)their larger sample size.
B)the type of the people sampled.
C)the involvement of focus groups.
D)their independence of statistical methods.
Q2) Observation-based forecasting is attractive because it is:
A)easier to perform than most other forecasting techniques.
B)based on what people actually do.
C)based on historical performance of organizations.
D)best suited to predict the demand for new-to-the-world products.
Q3) The diffusion process is faster when there is strong competition and competitors have favorable reputations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Under the bottom-up approach,a central person or persons take the responsibility for forecasting and preparing an overall forecast.
A)True
B)False

Page 8
Q5) Explain some of the potential biases in forecasting?
Q6) Describe the five categories of adopters.
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the decentralized buying situation?
A)The buyer is apt to be less sensitive to the user's need.
B)The buyer is apt to emphasize product quality.
C)The buyer is apt to be less cost-conscious.
D)The buyer is apt to emphasize fast delivery.
Q2) In the context of mass market,designing separate products and marketing programs for the differing market segments is called _____.
A)niche marketing
B)growth marketing
C)exclusive marketing
D)differentiated marketing
Q3) Macrosegmentation groups customers by the characteristics of the individuals who influence the purchasing decision.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Age and occupation are demographic descriptors that are used to segment consumer markets.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following provides a visual representation of the positions of various products or brands in the competitive set typically in terms of two determinant attributes?
A)Conjoint analysis
B)Gantt chart
C)Value curve
D)Perceptual map
Q2) Describe the categorization of attributes that should be endowed by marketing decision makers in their brands.
Q3) Competing directly against the market leaders on the basis of attributes appropriated by larger competitors is one of the most effective strategies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The speed of a computer system is an example of a complex physical attribute.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Brand positioning comprises both competitive and customer considerations.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A(n)_____ offering can rarely be experienced in advance of a sale while a(n)_____ offering can be tested before purchase.
A)intangible;tangible
B)intangible;service
C)tangible;intangible
D)service;intangible
Q2) Speed,an automobile company,has a broad product range that includes cars as well as car accessories.It prioritizes new product and service development and innovation to meet new and changing customer needs and demands and to create new demands.It is constantly on the lookout for new opportunities and ensures that it is the "first mover" in new product and market areas.In the context of the Miles and Snow typology,this accurately exemplifies the _____ strategy.
A)prospector
B)defender
C)endorser
D)reactor
Q3) Identify the fundamental marketing difference between a differentiated analyzer and a differentiated defender.
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Q1) Harper Inc.is a multinational consumer goods company that markets multiple brands.The company's brands include Sunshine tea,Goldie cookies,Arch fragrance products,and so on.Which of the following branding strategies is practiced by Harper Inc.?
A)Family branding
B)Individual branding
C)Brand extension
D)Collective branding
Q2) Briefly explain each stage of the product life cycle.
Q3) Conjoint analysis is a tool that measures links between known customer needs and technical features.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the skimming and penetration pricing strategies.
Q5) Most new products fail purely due to technical reasons.
A)True
B)False
Q6) High levels of investments are needed during the growth stage of a product.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Penetration pricing is the most appropriate strategy when consumers are not price-sensitive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true of freight absorption pricing?
A)The seller picks up all or part of the freight charges.
B)A standard freight charge is assessed every customer regardless of location.
C)The freight charge is equal to the average freight cost across all customers.
D)The seller does not pay any of the freight charges.
Q3) A firm following a harvesting strategy would set product prices:
A)relatively low,only slightly above costs.
B)at the cost price,in order to penetrate the market.
C)relatively high,to maintain margins and maximize profits.
D)low,to maintain a presence in the market.
Q4) A break-even analysis can calculate break-even and target return volumes at different price levels.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Many firms base their pricing decisions largely on what is necessary to recover their costs or match competitors.Discuss.
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Q1) Brokers are used primarily by small firms or start-ups that have limited marketing capabilities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Neil worked as an agent for an organization that produced ballet shoes,another that produced ballet tights,and other organizations that produced ballet tutus,ballet socks,and other ballet accessories.This implies that Neil is a _____.
A)broker.
B)sales agent.
C)full-service wholesaler.
D)manufacturer's agent.
Q3) Referent power stems from a perception that one channel member has special knowledge or expertise that can benefit other members of the system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify some of the incentives that can be provided to increase personal selling effort.
Q5) What are the types of agent middlemen? Briefly explain each.
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a sales promotion activity?
A)Use of billboards to popularize a brand
B)A newspaper article about a new product
C)Distribution of free samples of a new product
D)Press release of a software product's new version
Q2) Cost per acquisition is a useful measure for web advertising that results directly in actual customer purchases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Roger,the CEO of Alfresco Solutions,strives to maintain good relationships with media personnel.He gives interviews and press releases to support his company's products.These activities are part of:
A)cooperative advertising.
B)sponsorship programs.
C)public relations.
D)trade extensions.
Q4) What are the decisions involved in planning a sales program?
Q5) Describe the three step process uses to design the promotion mix.
Q6) Define reach and frequency.
Q7) List the decision sequence for developing a promotion mix.
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Q1) Aloof Inc. ,offers t-shirts,bags,and shoes with designs based on needs of consumers.Their products include consumers' favorite bands,favorite quotes,personal ideas,etc.Which of the following techniques is being used by Aloof Inc.?
A)Collaborative filtering
B)Rules-based personalization
C)Customization
D)Recommendation
Q2) The sale of the same information to many customers,who then combine the information with information from other sources,and distribute it,is referred to as:
A)customization.
B)disintermediation.
C)syndication.
D)information dissemination.
Q3) During the customer support or service stage,additional information may flow in either direction or additional goods or services may flow to the customer,possibly in exchange for additional revenue.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The most basic defensive strategy is to continually strengthen a strongly held current position to build an impregnable fortress capable of repelling attacks by current or future competitors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On the basis of the Booz,Allen & Hamilton study,distinguish graphically among categories of new products.Label axes of your graph,and label the positions of the major product groupings in terms of its newness to the market and company.
Q3) Followers have the ability to take advantage of pioneers' positioning mistakes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Using a fortress strategy can very threatening when the:
A)market is fragmented into major segments.
B)market needs are homogeneous.
C)pioneer is has the highest market share.
D)market is characterized by large barriers to entry.
Q5) In what key ways do objectives associated with the major share maintenance strategies differ?
Q6) Explain the conditions under which contraction or strategic withdrawal occurs.
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Q1) The quality dimension of serviceability refers to a customer's ability to obtain prompt and competent service when the product does break down.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Carter & Stockdale,a seaside resort,believes in giving feedback forms to its guests to understand their opinions of the services that they offer and to work on the areas for which they receive poor feedback.The managers of the resort aim to maximize their lifetime value with the help of the responses from a variety of consumers.Which of the following is the resort involved in?
A)Innovative production process
B)Low-cost distribution
C)Measurement of customer satisfaction
D)Quantity analysis
Q3) The reliability quality dimension can refer to the consistency of performance from purchase to purchase or to a product's uptime,the percentage of time that it can perform satisfactorily over its life.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) _____ is the degree to which formal rules standard policies and procedures govern decisions and working relationships.
A)Specialization
B)Formalization
C)Centralization
D)Decentralization
Q2) When a company or SBU has many product-market entries,the:
A)simple functional form of organization is inadequate.
B)hierarchical form of organization works the best.
C)task-based form of organization is the most appropriate.
D)product management organization structure is not appropriate.
Q3) Low-cost defender SBUs perform better on ROI and cash flow by:
A)using relatively little synergy and few shared programs.
B)giving their managers relatively little autonomy.
C)focusing on democratic decision making.
D)stressing participation more than productivity improvements.
Q4) What are the factors that are most likely to aid the successful implementation of a given business strategy?
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Q5) List the key sections in an annual marketing plan.
Q6) Describe matrix organizations.
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Q1) The basic objective of a _____ is to develop a continuous monitoring system that provides data designed to help answer key questions about the opportunities and threats to each SBU.
A)management control
B)marketing evaluations system
C)contingency plan
D)strategic control system
Q2) Which of the following is true of performance standards?
A)Performance standards are not measurable in nature.
B)Performance standards need not be tied to a specific time period.
C)At the product-market level,performance standards include sales and market-share determinants.
D)Performance-based measures tied to the compensation of those individuals responsible for attaining the specified goals may be detrimental to the firm in the short term.
Q3) Describe the step of determining probabilities in the contingency planning process.
Q4) Describe the marketing functions audit.
Q5) What are the limitations associated with using profitability as a measure of performance?
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